Ophthalmology Flashcards

(82 cards)

1
Q

what conditions are ocular emergencies

A

Central Retinal Artery Occlusion

Retinal detachment

Orbital cellulitis

Acute angle closure glaucoma

Giant cell arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

measuring visual acuity

A

corrective glasses or contact lenses should be worn

pt 6 metres away from snellen chart

record as distance from chart/number of lowest line read

if can’t read top line at 6 metres move closer 1m at a time

if not perfect with corrected lenses then used pinholes to remove refractory error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is a logMAR

A

a more specialist chart for testing visual acuity where a logarithmic scale is used - used by ophthalmologists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the components of the retina

A

an inner and outer plexiform layer

photoreceptors called rods and cones - rods night vision, cones daylight vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cornea
- vascularity
- layers

A

avascular - derives its oxygen from the tear film and aqueous humour

consists of 5 layers
collagen fibres regularly arranged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where does the optic nerve enter the orbit

A

through the optic foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

where does the ophthalmic artery arise from

A

the carotid artery and supplies the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

three Cs of the optic disc

A

Cup - pale centre devoid of neuroretinal tissue. estimate cup to disc ratio. 1/3 considered normal. increased ratio=less neuroretinal tissue –> glaucoma

Colour - orange-pink donut with a pale centre.

Contour - should be clear and well defined. if swollen may indicate papilloedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how are pupils best dilated for fundoscopy

when not to use

A

1% tropicamide eye drops - short acting dilation
can also use Cyclopentolate 1%
Phenylephrine 2.5%

don’t use if any symptoms of acute angle closure glaucoma such as a painful sore red eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

dry age related macular degeneration

presentation
risk factors
O/E
treatment

A

gradual loss of central vision (as the macular region is responsible for this area of fine vision).

difficulty with reading and seeing fine detail, and often cannot see people’s faces clearly.
lines can appear distorted

Risk factors include female gender, smoking, hypertension and previous cataract surgery. Peripheral vision is spared.

O/E
visual acuity affected
fundoscopy; optic disc normal, peripheral retina flat, hard to visualise macula with drusen (lipid deposits) usually seen

No treatment currently available
some evidence that high doses of vitamins A, C, E and copper and zinc may slow disease progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of glaucomatous optic neuropathy

A

raised intraocular pressure, optic nerve damage (cupping) and peripheral visual field defect (visual acuity usually preserved)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is glaucoma

A

a condition where the optic nerve becomes damaged
usually caused by fluid building up in the front part of the eye, which increases pressure inside the eye. Glaucoma can lead to loss of vision if it’s not diagnosed and treated early.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

glaucoma risk factors

A

race
old age
family history
short sightedness
diabetes
having a thin cornea
wearing tight tie and collar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

normal pressure in the eye

how is it measured

A

10-20mmHg
<5 too low
>22 too high

measured with a Goldmann tanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where does aqueous humour drain out of the eye

A

the canal of schlemm
if blocked can raise pressure in the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which medications can lower intraocular pressure (used in AACG)

A

betablockers
pilocarpine
prostaglandin analogues
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is wet macular degeneration

A

fluid and/or blood develops in the retina due to neovascularisation which occurs in an attempt to restore function

can present suddenly with loss of central vision and distortion and requires an urgent referral as treatments exist (e.g., intra-vitreal anti VEG-F injections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

risk factors for acute angle closure glaucoma

A

female
near sighted (hypermetropia)
dilatation of pupil
lens growth associated with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

symptoms of acute angle closure glaucoma

A

vomiting
progressive subacute headache
blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

signs of acute angle closure glaucoma

A

red eye
dilated pupil
cloudy cornea
blue iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what happens to the intraocular pressure in acute angle closure glaucoma

A

quickly rises to >50mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

management of acute angle closure glaucoma

A

peripheral idiotomy to restore the flow of aqueous humour

medical management to reduce pressure

same procedure in other eye prophylactically

follow up in glaucoma clinic to assess visual fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how does central retinal artery occlusion present

A

sudden, painless loss of vision - can be reduced to NPL - ophthalmic emergency

cherry red spot on fundoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what other condition must be excluded in a central retinal artery occlusion

A

giant cell (temporal) arteritis

(only in a few patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what causes central retinal artery occlusion in most patients
non-inflammatory vascular problems associated with raised cholesterol, hypertension and atherosclerosis need good personal Hx and FHx of diabetes, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia as well as other vascular problems and vascular risk factors
26
retinal detachment: - presentation - risk factors - management
sudden onset of floaters or flashes in vision preceding loss of vision myopia, trauma, advancing age needs surgery immediately - retina is usually flattened with gas or oil, after having the vitreous removed urgency and prognosis (retaining vision) depends on whether macular is detached
27
orbital cellulitis - presentation - common pathogens
periocular erythema, swelling and pain reduced eye movements and vision fever unwell life threatening ophthalmic emergency often associated with a respiratory tract infection and involves common pathogens such as Haemophilus influenzae Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pneumoniae Betahaemolytic streptococcu
28
orbital cellulitis - investigations - management
orbital scan (MRI or CT) FBC swab from conjuctivae blood cultures IV antibiotics according to cultures and swabs hourly observations including visual acuity
29
infective endophthalmitis
rare ocular emergency presenting with red eye, pain, reduced vision signs; pus in anterior chamber and injected conjunctiva can be associated with recent surgery and with recent ocular surgery refer urgently to ophthalmology
30
signs of conjunctivitis
injected conjunctiva normal visual acuity mucoid discharge reactive pupils
31
investigations in conjunctivitis
bacterial swabs viral swabs chalmydia swabs
32
what can be used to investigate the cornea in a presentation of red eye
Fluorescein (sodium fluorescein) - an orange water-soluble dye. Used intravenously or topically. Visualized using a cobalt-blue filter which causes the dye to fluoresce a bright green color. Fluorescein does not stain intact corneal epithelium but does stain the deeper corneal stroma, highlighting the area of the epithelial loss.
33
how can herpes simplex infection affect the eye
dendritic ulcers of the eye are associated with herpes simplex Most primary infections are subclinical or cause only mild fever, malaise and upper respiratory tract symptoms. Blepharitis and follicular conjunctivitis may develop but are usually mild and self-limited. Treatment, if necessary, involves topical aciclovir ointment for the eye and/or cream for skin lesions
34
what is anterior uveitis how does it present what clinical signs
inflammation of the uveal tract which involves the iris, ciliary body, retina and choroid usually red, aching eyes, vision can be blurred no discharge refer to ophthalmology signs of intra-ocular inflammation, such as cells in the anterior chamber and posterior synechiae. if posterior synechiae (where iris sticks to lens) irregular pupil and raised intraocular pressure can occur often associated with autoimmune conditions
35
treatment and management of bacterial conjunctivitis
send off swabs for PCR chloramphenicol eye drops cool compresses avoid contact lenses for duration of treatment and 48hrs afterwards irrigation of the eye may be useful in purulent cases
36
what are the common bacterial and viral causes of conjunctivitis
bacterial: S. pneumoniae, S. aureus, H. influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis. occasional gonnhorhea or chlamydia can viral: commonly adenoviruses - self limiting
37
what is bacterial keratitis what can it progress to management
infection of the cornea, usually presenting with an ulcer (pain and redness). more common in contact lense wearers can progress rapidly to cause a hypopyon, which represents pus in the anterior chamber this can cause a corneal perforation refer urgently to ophthalmology stop contact lens wear don't prescribe steroid eye drops treated with frequent topical antibiotics
38
when do 6th nerve palsies tend to occur
tend to be acquired later in life due to other conditions that can damage the nerve such as vascular factors reducing blood supply to the nerves (microvascular palsy) - these can resolve spontaneously direct pressure on the nerve such as from a tumour or raised intracranial pressure can also cause a lateral rectus palsy
39
features of a 6th nerve palsy
double vision (horizontal) inability to abduct the eye convergent squint
40
what does a third nerve palsy that includes a dilated pupil indicate
that there is mass effect on the nerve ie. an aneurysm or other SOL- neuroimaging required urgently this is also often associated with pain can also have vascular causes - less urgent
41
signs of a third nerve palsy
horizontal and vertical diplopia eye is down and out pupil may be dilated ptosis
42
management of an orbital floor fracture
urgent maxillofacial surgery broad spectrum antibiotic advise patient not to blow their nose
43
signs of an orbital floor fracture
double vision on upward gaze infra-orbital parasthesia
44
4th nerve palsy presentation
affected eye turns up and out in the forward position when looking laterally to affected side eye up more 4th nerve innervates superior oblique which moves eye down and in
45
what main condition other than a CN palsy can cause diplopia
myasthenia gravis - fatiguing of oculomotor muscles may present with diplopia and ptosis
46
DVLA double vision
patient must stop driving immediately and inform the DVLA Patients can return to driving after a period of adaptation or if the double vision has resolved. Patients can hold a Group 1 license (cars/personal vehicles) if their double vision is controlled with prisms or if they occlude (patch) one eye. The other eye however must have sufficient vision (6/12) and adequate visual field. Drivers of HGV eg lorries, buses (who require a Group 2 license) cannot drive with persistent diplopia (even after period of adaptation) or patched.
47
management options for diplopia
All patients should be referred to an orthoptist options: - patching eye - temporary fresnel prism, can be fitted and the power adjusted as the palsy resolves - if long-lasting then permanent prisms can be fitted to glasses - surgical intervention can be considered to realign the eyes
48
what complication of otitis can cause diplopia
a cavernous sinus thrombosis - headaches and diplopia needs to be urgently excluded
49
what is anisocoria
unequal pupil size
50
what is leukocoria causes in children
white pupil - red reflex lost - opacity in the optical media of the eye Congenital cataract Retinoblastoma Coat's disease Intraocular infection
51
what cause of leukocoria needs to be excluded urgently in children what does the retina look like
retinoblastoma raised white mass on the retina
52
what dilating drops are used in children
Cyclopentolate
53
what is Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
proliferative retinopathy affecting premature infants of very low birth weight, who have often been exposed to high ambient oxygen concentrations
54
screening for retinopathy of prematurity
Babies born at or before 31 weeks gestational age, or weighing 1500 g or less, should be screened for ROP at around 4–7 weeks postnatally. Only about 8% of babies screened actually require treatment.
55
treatment for retinopathy of prematurity
Laser photocoagulation is the treatment of choice, and it is successful in around 80% of cases if left untreated can progress to sight threatening complications such as vitreous haemorrhage and retinal detachment
56
what is retinoblastoma types management spread
intraocular malignancy of childhood <3 years - malignant transformation of primitive retinal cells before differentiation heritable (40% cases, gene on chromosome 13) or non-heritable (60% of cases, unilateral)\ complex treatment depending on how advanced and on vision: combination of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, brachytherapy and enucleation (removing the eyeball) metastasis can occur especially if optic nerve invasion, massive choroidal invasion, anterior chamber involvement and orbital spread
57
congenital cataracts
present with leukocoria in children (3 in 10000 live births) 2/3 bilateral and more likely to be caused by genetic mutation, chromosomal abnormalities, metabolic disorders and intrauterine infections unilateral more likely to be sporadic
58
surgery in congenital cataracts
complex surgeries carried out depending on timing, density and unilateral/bilateral bilateral dense cataracts - operate at 4-6 weeks to prevent amblyopia bilateral partial - may not require surgery but done later if so unilateral dense cataract urgent surgery usually within days and aggressive anti-amblyopia therapy (often poor result)
59
production and flow of aqueous humour
produced by the ciliary body flows from the ciliary body, around the lens and under the iris, through the anterior chamber, through the trabecular meshwork and into the canal of Schlemm
60
visual changes in glaucoma
peripheral vision impaired
61
what medications can precipitate an acute angle closure glaucoma
Adrenergic medications such as noradrenalin Anticholinergic medications such as oxybutynin and solifenacin Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline
62
pathophysiology in diabetic retinopathy
Hyperglycaemia damages small blood vessels - increased permeability leads to blot haemorrhages and hard exudates Micro aneurysms Venous beading Damage to nerve fibres - cotton wool spots Intraretinal microvascular abnormalities Neovascularisation - can cause diabetic macular oedema
63
types of diabetic retinopathy
proliferative retinopathy (neovascularisation) non-proliferative retinopathy maculopathy (macular oedema and ischaemic maculopathy)
64
complications of diabetic retinopathy
Retinal detachment Vitreous haemorrhage (bleeding in to the vitreous humour) Rebeosis iridis (new blood vessel formation in the iris) Optic neuropathy Cataracts
65
management of diabetic retinopathy
Laser photocoagulation Anti-VEGF medications Vitreoretinal surgery (keyhole surgery on the eye) may be required in severe disease
66
what is a cataract what are the symptoms
a cataract is where the lens becomes progressively opacified Very slow reduction in vision Progressive blurring of vision Change of colour of vision with colours becoming more brown or yellow “Starbursts” can appear around lights, particularly at night time loss of red reflex O/E
67
symptoms of vitreous haemorrhage
Painless Spots of vision loss Floaters Flashing lights
68
retinal detachment - symptoms - management
Peripheral vision loss - often sudden and like a shadow coming across the vision Blurred or distorted vision Flashes and floaters Ophthalmological emergency - needs urgent assessment if suspected Management of retinal detachment aims to reattach the retina and reduce any traction or pressure that may cause it to detach again. needs to also be done to any tears to prevent detachment
69
retinal vein occlusion presentation treatment
thrombus forms in the retinal veins and blocks the drainage of blood from the retina - build up leads to oedema and retinal haemorrhages which damage the retina and cause loss of vision presents; sudden painless loss of vision treatment; laser coagulation, intravitreal steroids, antiVEGF therapies
70
subconjunctival haemorrhage
small blood vessel rupture within the conjunctiva causing bleeding between the conjunctiva and sclera causes bright red bleeding across the eye can be caused by trauma or straining spontaneously resolve - check about anticoagulants
71
what is amblyopia what are the main causes can it be treated
reduced visual acuity due to a problem focusing in early childhood most commonly due to a strabismus (lazy eye) - treated with patch or dilating drops of good eye for 4-6 hrs a day other causes include refractive error and congenital cataracts can only be treated if detected early enough when the neurological plasticity is still present
72
what condition is giant cell arteritis strongly associated with
polymyalgia rheumatica
73
management of suspected GCA
start oral prednisolone 40-60mg a day refer urgently to ophthalmology for temporal artery biopsy if visual loss IV methylprednisolone
74
what is typically the defect causing fluid in a chronic open angle glaucoma
defect in the trabecular meshwork which slows down the flow of aqueous humour
75
papilloedema on fundoscopy
venous engorgement, blurring of optic disc margin, Loss of optic cup and loss of venous pulsation
76
differentiating between scleritis and episcleritis
scleritis is painful whereas episcleritis is not
77
Horners syndorme
miosis + ptosis + enophthalmos +/- anhydrosis (loss of sweating on one side)
78
orbital cellulitis needs... periorbital cellulitis
IV antibiotics, admission and regular observations oral antibiotics usually sufficient
79
screening in those with a FHx of glaucoma
annual screening from age 40
80
how can the orbit be decompressed
lateral canthotomy
81
management of anterior uveitis
urgent ophthalmologist review pupil dilatation steroid eye drops
82
proliferative diabetic retinopathy should be
referred urgently to hospital