Oncology drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What do we give to ER+ breast ca in post-menopausal women?

A

Aromatase inhibitors

  • this is because more oestrogen is produced in peripheral adipose tissue in post-menopausal women
  • MoA: they block the conversion of androgens to oestrogen in subcuteneous fat of post-menopausal women

Examples: Letrozole, Anastrazole, Exemesane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What hormonal therapy to use in pre-menopausal women that have ER+ breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen

MoA: mixed agonist and antagonist of oestrogen and oestrogen receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What hormonal therapies are used in the treatment of prostate cancer?

A
  • gonadothropin-releasing hormone agonists → Goserelin
  • androgen receptor blockers → Flutamide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Side effects of radiotherapy

A

Side effects depend on: site and radiosensitivity of normal tissue

  • damage to skin → erythema
  • gut → nausea, mucosal ulceration, diarrhoea
  • testes → sterility
  • bone marrow → leukopenia, anaemia

General SEs: loss of energy, lethargy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Interferons

MoA

example of drug

A

Interferons

MoA: anti-proliferative activity, stimulation of humoral and cell-mediated immune response to the tumour

Example: Interferon-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Interleukins

  • MoA
  • example
  • use
A

Interleukins

MoA: coordinate cellular activity in many organs

Example: Interleukin 2

Use: Renal Cell Carcinoma, Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

  • 3 examples
  • general MoA
A

Examples: Imatinib, Sunitinib, Sorafenib

MoA: have different effects on cell growth, metabolism and differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Examples (2) of Anti-Growth Factor agents

A
  • Bevcizumab
  • Cetuximab

*these are added to chemotherapy to improve response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anti CD20

  • example
  • MoA
A

Rituximab

MoA: inhibits CD20 on B-cells (normally it plays the role in the differentiation of B cells into plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of drug Alemtuzumab is?

A

Alemtuzumab is CD52 inhibitor

(CD52 is expressed on T and B lymphocytes and monocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What drugs are used to reduce the duration of neutropenia following chemotherapy?

A

Haemeapoietic Growth Factors

  • EPO
  • G-CSF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What Myeloablative therapy is?

A

Myeloablative therapy uses: chemotherapy, radiotherapy to clear bone marrow from both malignant but also normal cells

  • transplantation of bone marrow needed to replace bone marrow (otherwise death occurs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Types of bone marrow transplantation (+explain)

A
  • Allogenic → taken from another human being (requires immunosupressants)
  • autologous stem cells
  • synergic stem cell → taken from a twin
  • stem cells taken from umbilical cord blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drugs used for prophylaxis of tumour lysis syndrome

A
  • allopurinol
  • rasburicase
  • high fluid load (prior and post chemo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities seen in tumour lysis syndrome

A
  • high phosphate
  • high potassium
  • low calcium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cyclophosphamide

MoA

SEs

A

Cyclophosphamide

MoA: Alkylating agent - causes cross-linking in DNA

SEs:

  • Haemorrhagic cystitis
  • myelosuppression
  • transitional cell carcinoma
17
Q

Bleomycin

MoA

SE

A

Bleomycin

MoA: Degrades preformed DNA

SE: lung fibrosis

18
Q

Doxorubicin

MoA

SE

A

Doxorubicin

MoA: Stabilizes DNA-topoisomerase II complex inhibits DNA & RNA synthesis

SE: cardiomyopathy

19
Q

Methotrexate

MoA

SEs

A
20
Q

Fluorouracil

MoA

SEs

A
21
Q

6-mercaptopurine

MoA

SEs

A
22
Q

Cytarabine

MoA

SEs

A
23
Q

Vincristine and Vinblastin

MoA

SEs

A

Vincristine and Vinblastin

MoA: inhibit formation of microtubules

SEs:

Vincristine: Peripheral neuropathy (reversible), paralytic ileus

Vinblastine: myelosuppression

24
Q

Docetaxel

MoA

SE

A

Docetaxel

MoA: Prevents microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, decreasing free tubulin

SE: neutropenia

25
Q

Irinotecan

MoA

SE

A

Irinotecan

MoA: Inhibits topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA

SE: myelosupression

26
Q

Cisplatin

MoA

SEs

A

Cisplatin

MoA: Causes cross-linking in DNA

SEs:

  • Ototoxicity
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • hypomagnesaemia
27
Q

Hydroxyurea/ hydroxycarbamide

MoA

SE

A

MoA: Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis

SE: myelosuppression