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Random 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What drug is used to treat ADHD (1st line med Rx)?

What else is it used for?

Side effect

Class

A

Methylphenidate

Treatment of: ADHD and narcolepsy

Side effects: stunted growth (important for children as restricts growth potential; perhaps due to methylphenidate reducing effect on appetite), insomnia, weight loss, anxiety, nausea and vomiting, cardiotoxicity – baseline ECG

Class: CNS stimulant -> blocks dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake by neurones (more available at the synapses)

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2
Q

1st line medical treatment for head lice/Pediculus Capitis

A

apart from wet combing, 1st line drug

  • malathion (liquid to wash off with soap and water) - insecticide
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3
Q

Adrenaline doses in anaphylaxis:

  • <6months - 6 years
  • 6 - 12 years
  • adult and child >12 years
A

<6 months - 6 years

150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)

6-12 years

300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000)

Adult and child > 12 years

500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000)

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4
Q

Drugs abbreviations. What do they mean?

  • a.c.
  • b.d.
A
  • a. c. = ante cibum (before food)
  • b. d. = bis die (twice daily)
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5
Q

Drugs abbreviations. What do they mean?

  • o.d.
  • o.m.
A

​​

  • o. d. = omni die (every day)
  • o. m. = omni mane (every morning)
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6
Q

Drug abbreviations. What do they mean?

  • o.n.
  • p.c.
A
  • o. n. = omni nocte (every night)
  • p. c. = post cibum (after food)
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7
Q

Drug abbreviations. What do they mean?

  • p.r.n.
  • q.d.s
A

​​

  • p. r. n. = pro re nata (when required)
  • q. d. s. = quater die sumendum (to be taken four times daily)
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8
Q
A
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9
Q

1st line (medication) management of Eczema

  • classes and names of the drugs
A
  • Emollient – e.g hydromol, Aveeno, soft white paraffin, dermol, E45 (don’t tend to use aqueous cream as causes stinging), zerobase, ultrabase (many options)
  • Topical Steroid – start with a mild or moderate potency steroid (not on face) e.g hydrocortisone 1% (mild) or clobetasone butyrate (eumovate) (moderate potency)
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10
Q

Medication and advice in a child with chickenpox

A
  • Topical calamine lotion to relieve the itch
  • Paracetamol for temperature control if needed (avoid NSAID in chicken-pox)
  • Anti-histamine (Chlorphenamine) for itch – please note this is an unlicensed use in children under 1
  • Infection control advice – chicken pox is contagious 1-2 days before the rash appears and until all the blisters have formed scabs (which usually takes between 5-10days) – should stay away from nursery / other immunocompromised individuals.
  • Give mum advice as she is pregnant – if mum is not known to have had chickenpox before she will need an urgent blood test to see if she is immune and then ongoing treatment depending on the result
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11
Q

Threadworms/ pinworms infection

Presentation

Transmission route

What may support diagnosis?

Medication used

A

Presentation: itchiness in the perianal area, seeing ‘white stuff’ in the faeces or around the anus; vulvar symptoms are possible in girls

Transmission: swallowing the eggs

Dx support: Sellotape application to peri-anal area -> send off to lab for microscopy

Medication: Mebendazole (antihelmintic) single doe for a child and family + hygiene advice

*repeat dose if needed

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12
Q

What antibiotic would you use as a 1st line for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection in children?

A

Erythromycin

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13
Q

Are SSRIs safe in the pregnancy?

A

Yes. They are not teratogenic

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14
Q

Can we use NSAIDs in chicken pox?

A

Ibuprofen should be avoided in chicken pox as there is an associated risk between use of NSAIDs and the development of necrotising fasciitis

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15
Q

1st line meds used for chronic constipation in paediatrics

*what may be required beforehand?

A

Stool softener laxatives e.g. Movicol or Lactulose

may require glycerine suppositories to help soften the rectal stool initially.

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16
Q
A
17
Q

Diclofenac

  • class
  • trade name
  • medical uses
  • MoA
  • when it is not recommended to be taken
A

Diclofenac

Class: NSAIDs

Trade name: Voltaren (oral or topical)

Uses: to treat pain (including dysmenorrhoea) , inflammatory disorders

MoA: inhibits COX-1 and COX2 -> decreases the production of prostaglandin

Not recommended: 3rd trimester of pregnancy, active stomach and peptic ulcer, IBDs

18
Q

Medical treatment for Von Willebrand disease

A
  • Tranexamic acid -> anti-fibrinolytic
  • Desmopressin -> release von Willebrand from endothelium
  • factor VIII concentrate
19
Q

Therapies for Clostridium Difficle infection

A
  • first-line therapy is oral metronidazole for 10-14 days
  • if severe or not responding to metronidazole then oral vancomycin may be used
  • for life-threatening infections a combination of oral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole should be used
20
Q

Contraindications for use of b-blockers

A
  • uncontrolled heart failure
  • asthma
  • sick sinus syndrome
  • concurrent verapamil use: may precipitate severe bradycardia
21
Q

Which anaesthetic agent is used for the introduction of anaesthesia?

A

Sodium thiopentone

  • Extremely rapid onset of action making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence of induction
  • Marked myocardial depression may occur
  • Metabolites build up quickly
  • Unsuitable for maintenance infusion
  • Little analgesic effects
22
Q

Which anaesthetic agent has anti-emetic properties?

A

Propofol

  • Rapid onset of anaesthesia
  • Pain on IV injection
  • Rapidly metabolised with little accumulation of metabolites
  • Proven antiemetic properties
  • Moderate myocardial depression
  • Widely used especially for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anaesthesia and for daycase surgery
23
Q

Ketamine

  • what is it used for
  • properties
  • features and side effects
A
  • May be used for induction of anaesthesia
  • Has moderate to strong analgesic properties
  • Produces little myocardial depression making it a suitable agent for anaesthesia in those who are haemodynamically unstable
  • May induce state of dissociative anaesthesia resulting in nightmares
24
Q

Etomidate, why to use, why not to use - features

A
  • Has favorable cardiac safety profile with very little haemodynamic instability
  • No analgesic properties
  • Unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged (and even brief) use may result in adrenal suppression
  • Post operative vomiting is common
25
Q

Drugs (x4) to induce uterine contractions

A
  • Syntocinon = oxytocin (to induce labour, to cause uterine contractions)
  • Ergometrine -> to cause uterine contractions and to treat heavy vaginal bleed after labour
  • Carboprost -> a prostaglandin analogue with oxytocic properties (to introduce contractions, cause abortion in early pregnancy or for PPH)
  • Misoprostol -> for abortion, labour induction or PPH (causes myometrial contractions)
26
Q

AKI

  • What medication do we need to stop?
  • What medication can we keep e.g. at a ‘cardioprotective’ dose?
A

Need to stop at AKI

(increase damage to the kidney)

  • NSAIDs
  • Aminoglycosides
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
  • Diuretics

Potentially stop

(as may build up to toxic levels)

  • Metformin
  • Lithium
  • Digoxin
27
Q

Drug (and route) used to stabilise a cardiac membrane

A

Calcium gluconate (IV)

28
Q

Treatments for hyperkalaemia

  • to stabilise cardiac membrane
  • for short-term K+ shift from extracellular to intracellular space
  • to remove potassium from the body
A

Stabilisation of the cardiac membrane • Short-term shift in potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment • Removal of potassium from the body • Intravenous calcium gluconate • Combined insulin/dextrose infusion
• Nebulised salbutamol • Calcium resonium (orally or enema)
• Loop diuretics
• Dialysis

29
Q

Side effects of cisplatin

A

Ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia

30
Q

Side effects of Vincristine

A

Vincristine: Peripheral neuropathy (reversible) , paralytic ileus

31
Q

Side effects of Fluorouracil (5-FU)

A

Myelosuppression, mucositis, dermatitis

32
Q

Side effects of Methotrexate

A

Myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, lung fibrosis

33
Q

Side effect of Doxorubicin

A

Cardiomyopathy

34
Q
A

Pharmacology (11 decks)

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