ONCOLOGY - Lymphoma, Leukaemia, Multiple Myeloma Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Lymphoma is the malignant proliferation of peripheral lymphoid tissue which can cause secondary infiltration of other tissues, including the bone marrow

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2
Q

What are the anatomical classifications of lymphoma?

A

Multicentric lymphoma
Alimentary lymphoma
Mediastinal lymphoma
Cutaneous lymphoma
Extranodal lymphoma

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3
Q

List the anatomical classifications of lymphoma in order of frequency in dogs

A

Multicentric lymphoma
Gastrointestinal lymphoma
Medistinal lymphoma
Cutaneous lymphoma

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4
Q

List the anatomical classifications of lymphoma in order of frequency in cats

A

Gastrointestinal lymphoma
Extranodal lymphoma
Multicentric lymphoma
Mediastinal lymphoma

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5
Q

What are the risk factors for lymphoma?

A

Genetics
Age
Neutered females
Environment
FeLV in cats

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6
Q

Which dog breed is predisposed to B cell lymphoma?

A

Cocker Spaniel

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7
Q

Which dog breed is predisposed to T cell lymphoma?

A

Boxer

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8
Q

Which environmental factors can increase the risk of lymphoma?

A

Passive smoking (inhaling second-hand smoke) can increase the risk of lymphoma

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9
Q

What is the clinical approach to lymphoma?

A
  1. Assess history and clinical signs
  2. Confirm diagnosis
  3. Clinical staging and identify any concurrent disease
  4. Treatment
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10
Q

What are the general clinical signs of lymphoma?

A

Asymptomatic with lymphadenomegaly
Lymphadenomegaly
Lethargy
Inappetence
Weight loss
Chronic diarrhoea
Pyrexia
Paraneoplastic syndrome

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11
Q

Which paraneoplastic syndromes can be seen with lymphoma?

A

Hypercalcaemia
Hyperviscosity syndrome

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12
Q

Which cell lineage for lymphoma is most likely to cause hypercalcaemia?

A

T cell lymphoma

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13
Q

Which cell lineage for lymphoma is most likely to cause hyperviscosity syndrome?

A

B cell lymphoma

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14
Q

What is the key clinical sign of multicentric lymphoma?

A

Non-painful lymphadenomegaly of the peripheral lymph nodes

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15
Q

What are the peripheral lymph nodes?

A

Submandibular lymph nodes
Prescapular lymph nodes
Axillary lymph nodes
Popliteal lymph nodes
Inguinal lymph nodes

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16
Q

Which cell lineage is most commonly associated with multicentric lymphoma?

A

B cell lymphoma

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17
Q

What is the typical signalement for alimentary lymphoma?

A

Older, FeLV negative cats

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18
Q

What are the clinical signs of alimentary lymphoma?

A

Chronic vomiting
Chronic diarrhoea
Anorexia
Weight loss
Palpable abdominal mass or thickened loops of intestine

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19
Q

Which diagnostic test should be done if you suspect alimentary lymphoma?

A

Ultrasound

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20
Q

What are some of the key features of alimentary lymphoma on ultrasound?

A

Gastrointestinal mass
Loss of layering of the gastrointestinal wall
Gastrointestinal lymphadenomegaly
Gastrointestinal hypomotility

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21
Q

What are the features high grade alimentary lymphoma?

A

High grade alimentary lymphoma tends to form a gastrointestinal mass and is composed of large, immature, undifferentiated lymphoblasts

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22
Q

What are the features low grade alimentary lymphoma?

A

Low grade alimentary lymphoma tends to have diffuse infiltration of the gastrointestinal tract and is composed of small, more differentiated lymphocytes

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23
Q

What is the typical signalement for mediastinal lymphoma?

A

Young, FeLV positive cats

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24
Q

What are the clinical signs of mediastinal lymphoma?

A

Cough
Dyspnoea
Muffled heart and lung sounds on auscultation

Mediastinal lymphoma can cause compression and effusion of thoracic structures

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25
What are the key features of mediastinal lymphoma on radiography?
Soft tissue/fluid opacity mass in the mediastinum Dorsal displacement of the trachea Lymphadenomegaly of the tracheobronchial lymph nodes
26
What are the clinical signs of cutaneous lymphoma?
Pruritis Erythema Ulceration Nodules Plaques
27
What is primary cutaneous lymphoma?
Primary cutaneous lymphoma is when the lymphoma originates in the skin and is always T cell mediated
28
What is secondary cutaneous lymphoma?
Secondary cutaenous lymphoma is where the lymphoma has metastasised to the skin and can be B or T cell mediated
29
What is extranodal lymphoma?
Extranodal lymphoma is lymphoma which originates outside of the lymphoid tissue
30
Which form of extranodal lymphoma has the best prognosis?
Nasal extranodal lymphoma
31
How do you diagnose lymphoma?
History and clinical signs Fine needle aspirate (FNA) and cytology Biopsy and histopathology
32
When is biopsy and histopathology indicated in the diagnosis of lymphoma?
A biopsy and histopathology is indicated if fine needle aspirate cannot confirm lymphoma or to provide a more precise classification of the lymphoma
33
How should you carry out a biopsy for lymphoma?
If you suspect lymphoma, remove the whole lymph node to examine the architecture
34
How do you approach histological diagnosis of lymphoma from a lymph node?
1. Determine if the lymphocyte infiltration is diffuse or nodular 2. Determine if the lymphocyte size is large, intermediate or small 3. Determine if the lymphoma is high or low grade 4. Determine if the lymphocytes are B cell or T cell in lineage
35
What are the features of high grade lymphoma on histology?
Large, immature, undifferentiated lymphoblasts
36
What are the features of low grade lymphoma on histology?
Small, mature, differentiated lymphocytes
37
How can you determine if a lymphoma has a B cell or T cell lineage?
Immunohistochemistry/immunocytochemistry Flow cytometry *(for liquid samples)* PCR for antigen receptors rearrangement (PARR)
38
What is immunohistochemistry?
Immunohistochemistry is a technique which used antigen-antiobody interactions to detect specific markers present on B cells and T cells
39
Which marker is used to identify B cell lymphoma?
CD79a
40
Which marker is used to identify T cell lymphoma?
CD3
41
What is flow cytometry?
In flow cytometry, cells are suspended in a liquid with flueorescent markers added to label specific markers. The sample will flow through the flow cytometer and as the cells flow through, they will pass lasers which will cause the marked cells to emit fluorescence
42
What is PCR for antigen receptors rearrangement (PARR)?
PCR for antigen receptors rearrangement (PARR) is a clonality assay which helps to distinguish clonal lymphocytes from polyclonal lymphocytes. Neoplastic lymphocyte antibodies are all the same and thus detect the same antigens, however inflammatory lymphocytes are polyclonal and each antibody differs and detects a different antigen. Markers on B cells and T cells have gene segments which have a unique rearrangement and PCR primers can be used to amplify these gene segments and determine whether it is B or T cell lymphoma
43
What is one of the main benefits of PCR for antigen receptors rearrangement (PARR)?
PCR for antigen receptors rearrangement (PARR) can be used to confirm a diagnosis of lymphoma and determine cell lineage with a very small sample
44
Which serum biomarkers can be indicative of lymphoma?
Thymidine kinase Lactate dehydrogenase | Remember these are not specific or diagnostic
45
What is thymidine kinase?
Thymidine kinase is a DNA salvage pathway enzyme involved in regenerating thymidine for DNA synthesis and DNA damage, that increases in response to lymphoma and decreases in response to lymphoma treatment
46
What can serum thymidine kinase levels be used for?
Serum thymidine kinase levels can be used to monitor treatment progression for lymphoma and the pretreatment values of thymidine kinase are prognostic, with increased levels associated with a worse prognosis
47
What is lactate dehydrogenase?
Lactate dehydrogenase is an enzyme which catalyses the conversion of pyruvate to lactate and increases in response to lymphoma and decreases in response to lymphoma treatment
48
What can lactate dehydrogenase kinase levels be used for?
Lactate dehydrogenase can be used to monitor treatment progression for lymphoma
49
What are the clinical stages of lymphoma?
Clinical stage I: Single lymph node or lymphoid tissue in a single organ Clinical stage II: Several lymph nodes in a regional area Clinical stage III: Generalised lymph node involvement Clinical stage IV: Liver and spleen involvement Clinical stage V: Bone marrow and/or extranodal tissue Each stage can be subclassified as a) there are no clinical signs and b) there are clinical signs
50
How do you determine the clinical stage of lymphoma?
History and clinical signs Haematology and biochemistry Urinalysis Diagnostic imaging Bone marrow biopsy
51
What can haematology be used to determine when clinically staging lymphoma?
Haematology assesses the level of haematopoietic cells in the blood which can be indicative of bone marrow involvement and provide baseline data prior to chemotherapy
52
What can biochemistry be used to determine when clinically staging lymphoma?
Biochemistry assesses organ function and thus can indicate the degree of other organ involvement, can indicate concurrent disease and paraneoplastic syndromes, and provides baseline data prior to chemotherapy
53
What can urinalysis be used to determine when clinically staging lymphoma?
Urinalysis can be used to provide baseline data prior to chemotherapy
54
What can diagnostic imaging be used to determine when clinically staging lymphoma?
Diagnostic imaging can be used to find enlarged lymph nodes and determine if there has been any metastasis
55
What can a bone marrow biopsy be used to determine when clinically staging lymphoma?
A bone marrow biopsy can be used to determine if the lymphoma has infiltrated the bone marrow | Indicated if there are cytopenias on haematology
56
Why is it so important to identify any concurrent disease when clinically staging lymphoma?
Affects prognosis Affects treatment decisions Affects choices of chemotherapy drugs
57
What are the potential responses to lymphoma treatment?
Complete remission (CR) Partial remission (PR) Progressive disease (PD) Stable disease (SD)
58
What is complete remission (CR)?
Complete remission (CR) is where there is no gross disease visible
59
What is partial remission (PR)?
Partial remission (PR) is where there has been over a 30% decrease in the size of gross disease
60
What is progressive disease (PD)?
Progressive disease (PD) is where there has been over a 20% increase in the size of gross disease
61
What is stable disease (SD)?
Stable disease (SD) is where there has been either no change in gross disease, or less change than in partial remission or progressive disease
62
How do you approach lymphoma treatment?
1. Stabilise the paraneoplastic syndromes 2. Treat the lymphoma
63
Why is it so important to stabilise paraneoplastic hypercalcaemia?
It is so important to stabilise paraneoplastic hypercalcaemia as hypercalcaemia can cause progressive, irreversible renal damage
64
What are the treatment options for lymphoma?
Palliative steroids Chemotherapy
65
What is the prognosis for lymphoma with no treatment?
1 to 2 months
66
What is the prognosis for lymphoma with palliative steroids?
2 to 3 months
67
What is the prognosis for lymphoma in dogs with chemotherapy?
In dogs, lymphoma has an 80 - 90% rate of complete or partial remission, with 6 to 9 months to live with the COP protocol and 10 to 12 months to live with the CHOP protocol
68
What is the prognosis for lymphoma in cats with chemotherapy?
In cats, lymphoma has a 50 - 70% rate of complete or partial remission, with 6 to 8 months to liver with high grade lymphoma and 17 to 23 months to live with low grade lymphoma
69
Which factors contribute to a good prognosis for lymphoma?
Low clinical stage Low histological grade Clinical substage a *(no clinical signs)* B cell mediated *(in dogs)* Use of doxorubicin in cat chemotherapy protocol
70
Which factors contribute to a poor prognosis for lymphoma?
High clinical stage High histological grade Clinical substage b *(clinical signs)* T cell mediated *(in dogs)* Central anatomical locations FeLV positive *(in cats)* Low body weight *(in cats)* Prior steroid use
71
Why does prior steroid use contribute to a poor prognosis for lymphoma?
Prior steroid use can contribute to the development of multidrug resistance of lymphoma to steroids
72
What is leukaemia?
Leukaemia is the malignant poliferation of haematopoietic tissue originating in the bone marrow, which can cause secondary infiltation of the blood and other tissues
73
What are the classifications of leukaemia?
Lymphoid leukaemia Myeloid leukaemia | Lymphoid leukaemia is more common
74
Describe the pathogenesis of leukaemia
Leukaemia is the proliferation of haematopoietic neoplastic cells within the bone marrow resulting in myelophthisis, cytopenias, neoplastic cells in the bloodstream and secondary infiltration of other organs and tissues such as the lymph nodes, spleen and liver resulting in lymphadenomegaly, splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. Leukaemia can also result in extramedullary haematopoiesis
75
What is myelophthisis?
Myelophthisis is the displacement of other haematopoietic cell lines in the bone marrow due to leukaemia, resulting in cytopenias
76
What can be a key sign of neoplastic cells within the bloodstream?
A large 'buffy coat' on PCV can be a key sign of neoplastic cells within the bloodstream and leukaemia
77
What is acute leukaemia?
Acute leukaemia is where there is neoplastic transformation of the haematopoietic cells early in the cell lineage *(i.e. the -blast cells)*
78
What are the features of acute leukaemia?
Generally systemically unwell Mild lymphadenomegaly Splenomegaly Hepatomegaly Clinical signs of cytopenias Leukocytosis and cytopenias on haematology Unlikely to have paraneoplastic syndromes Increased immature blast cells on bone marrow biopsy
79
What is chronic leukaemia?
Chronic leukaemia is where there is neoplastic transformation of the haematopoietic cells later in the cell lineage *(i.e. mature, differentiated cells)*
80
What are the features of chronic leukaemia?
Generally systemically well May have mild lymphadenomegaly May have splenomegaly May have hepatomegaly Leukocytosis and cytopenias on haematology Paraneoplastic syndromes Increased mature, well differentiated cells on bone marrow biopsy
81
How do you diagnose leukaemia?
History and clinical signs Haematology and biochemistry Bone marrow biopsy Flow cytometry
82
How do you treat leukaemia?
Chemotherapy
83
What is the prognosis for acute leukaemia?
Very poor prognosis, often not treated and euthanised
84
What is the prognosis for chronic leukaemia?
Good prognosis
85
What is multiple myeloma?
Multiple myeloma is the neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells originating in the bone marrow, which can cause secondary infiltration of the blood and other tissues
86
Describe the pathogenesis of multiple myeloma
Multiple myeloma is the proliferation of neoplastic plasma cells within the bone marrow resulting in myelophthisis, cytopenias, neoplastic cells in the bloodstream and secondary infiltration of the bones resulting in osteolytic lesions. Multiple myeloma also results in increased/abnormal production of immunoglobulins resulting in hyperglobulinaemia, hyperviscosity syndrome and immune dysfunction as the immunoglobulins are not fully functional
87
How do you diagnose multiple myeloma?
Haematology and biochemistry Radiography Bence Jones proteinuria Bone marrow biopsy *(more than 10% plasma cells)*
88
What is a key sign of multiple myeloma on haematology?
Hyperglobulinaemia
89
What should you do if there is a hyperproteinaemia on haematology?
Serum protein electrophoresis to determine if the immunoglobulins are clonal or polyclonal
90
What is a key sign of multiple myeloma on radiography?
'Punched out' lesions of the spinous processes and pelvis due to multiple myeloma metastasis
91
How do you treat multiple myeloma?
Stabilise paraneoplastic syndromes Treat any secondary infections Chemotherapy
92
Describe the pathogenesis of hyperviscosity syndrome
When there is excessive immunoglobulin production due to multiple myeloma, this causes the blood to become more viscous and results in reduced blood flow and tissue perfusion
93
What are the clinical consequences of hyperviscosity sydrome?
Cardiomyopathies Retinal lesions, detachment and blindness Seizures Azotaemia Coagulopathy
94
How do you treat hyperviscosity syndrome?
Plasmapheresis