Opthamology Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

painless causes of loss of vision

A

central retinal vein or artery occlusion
retinal detachment
vitreous haemorrhage
ischaemic optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is ischaemic optic neuropathy caused by

A

arteritis eg temporal arteritis or atherosclerosis eg hypertensive, diabetic may be older patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is ischaemic optic neuropathy caused by

A

occlusion of the short posterior ciliary artery, causing damage to the optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

retinitis pigmentosa

A

night blindness and tunnel vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

horners syndrome features

A

ptosis
anhydrosis
miosis (small pupil)
enopthalmos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does the pupil differ in a third nerve palsy from horners syndrome

A

in horners syndrome the pupil is constricted miosis but in CNIII palsy there is pupil dilatation as CNIII cannot cause constriction so have dilated pupil and mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what conditions can make glaucoma more likely to come on

A

WHEN THE PUPIL IS DILATED

this could be while watching television or in dim light when the light from the screen flares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the risk factors for macular degeneration

A

age, smoking, family history, Caucasians, high sunlight, female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the normal range of intraocular pressure

A

10-21mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Blepharitis is more common in those with which condition

A

rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is more common anterior or posterior blepharitis

A

posterior due to meiobionan gland dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatement of blepharitis

A

softening of lid margin using hot compresses 2 times a day

mechanical removal of the debris from the lid margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what symptoms does blepharitis cause

A

dry eyes, red eyes, red eyelid margin, symptoms usually bilateral, grittiness and discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

why are the eyes dry in blepharitis

A

meibomian glands secrete oil on to the surface of the eye to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, any problem affecting meibomian glands can hence dry the eyes leading to irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why does hutchinsons sign a strong risk factor for ocular involvement

A

it indicates nasociliary involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do follicles suggest

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what do papillae suggest

A

bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is episcleritis associated with

A

gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

infective ulcers tned to be found where in the cornea

A

central

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

autoimmune ulcers tend to be found where in the cornea

A

in the periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the most common organisms in acute bacterial conjuncitivits

A

staph aureus, strep pneumonia, h, influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the dura mater

A

tough outer protective layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the sensory supply to the dura mater

A

CN V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is enclosed by the dura mater

A

the dural venous sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is in the arachnoid mater
arachnoid granulations
26
what is the subarachnoid space
circulating CSF and blood vessels
27
pia mater function
adheres to brain (and vessels and nerves entering or leaving)
28
where is the subarachnoid space
between the arachnoid and pia mater
29
what is the nerve supply to the dura mater
CN V
30
where does the subarachnoid space close/end
S2
31
where is the third ventricle located
in the midline within the diencephalon
32
where is the 4th ventricle located
between the cerebellum and the pons
33
what happens when the trochlear nerve is damaged
inferior oblique is unopposed eye cannot move inferomedially | diplopia when looking down
34
how is abducent nerve susceptible to damage
from stretching
35
where does the ophthalmic artery travel through
the optic canal
36
what type of fibres are contained in the long ciliary nerve
sympathetic and somatic sensory
37
what does the long ciliary nerve form part of
the afferent limb of the blink (corneal) reflex
38
what do the ciliary nerves supply
autonomic axons to control the diameter of the iris and pupil and the refractive shape of the lens
39
what do the long ciliary nerves form part of
the first part of the afferent limb of the blink(corneal) reflex)
40
what is contained in the short ciliary nerve
sympathetic, parasympathetic and somatic sensory
41
what kind of diplopia would damage to the suspensory ligament cause
vertical diplopia
42
what does a fracture in the zygoma/maxilla potentially cause
damage to the infraorbital branch of V2 resulting in a potentially large area of altered sensation of the lower eyelid, skin over maxilla, ala of external nose and upper lip
43
what is the infraorbital nerve a branch of
V2
44
what is the angle of the mandible supplied by
C2,3 spinal nerves
45
what is the sensory supply to the ear lobe
C2,3
46
what is the sensory supply to the tragus
V3
47
what supplies most of the tympanic membrane externally
CN V3
48
what supplies the inferior part of the tympanic membrane
CNX
49
what is the sensory supply to the Eustachian tube
CN IX
50
what drains into the superior meatus
posterior ethmoidal cells
51
what is the oculocardiac reflex and what nerves are involved
reflex bradycardia in response to tension on the extraocular muscles or pressure on the eye CNS connections between CNV1 or CNX
52
what nerves are involved in coordinating the vestibulocular reflex
CNIII, IV, VI and VIII, 3,4,6,8
53
what type of muscels is in the levator palpebrae superiooris
skeletal and smooth muscle
54
how do sympathetic fibres reach the levator palpebrae superioris
superior cervical sympathetic ganglion, internal carotid nerve, internal carotid plexus, axons carried on the ophthalmic artery and on its branches to the orbital structures
55
what causes the pupil to dialte
sympathetics, in dim light and fight or flight or non physiologically with mydriatic pupil
56
where is the insertion of the dilator pupillae fibres
around the internal circumference of the iris
57
where is the origin of the radially arranged dilator pupillae fibres
all around the external circumference of the iris
58
what is a pinpoint pupil
a fixed pupil with no response to light
59
what do parasympathetics do to the pupil
cause pupil constriction
60
what is a non physiologically constricted pupil
miotic pupil
61
what is a miotic pupil a component of
horners syndrome
62
what is a fixed dilated (blown( pupil a sign of
a serios pathological sign eg of CNIII pathology | as it is inhibiting the pupillary constricting action of parasympathetic axons in the ciliary nerve
63
where are the sphincter pupillae fibres
an encircling arrangement of the sphincter pupillae fibres all around the internal circumference of the iris
64
where is the pretectal nucleus
in the midbrain
65
where are the cell bodies of the parasympathetic axons located
in the edinger westphal nucleus
66
explain the pupillary light reflex
the first neurones pass via the retinal ganglion cells to cross in the optic chiasm to the pretectal nucleus in the midbrain then synapse with edinger westphal nucleus where the cell bodies of the parasympathetic axons are located and then pass from EW nucleus VIA CNIII then its INFERIOR DIVISION to synapse in the ciliary ganglion, then course in the short ciliary nerve to the sphincter pupillae muscles
67
explain the shape of the lens in far away vision
the ciliary muscle is RELAXED in far vision ligament TIGHTENS lens FLATTENS to focus on distant objects
68
why does the lens become spherical
due to contraction of the ciliary muscles (CN III)
69
what can lysozyme do
an enzyme that can hydrolyse bacterial cell walls
70
what is the afferent limb for the formation of reflex tears
CN VI
71
what type of cartilage is in the ear
elastic cartilage
72
what 3 parts does the accommodation reflex test
bilateral pupillary constriction in response to CNS III bilateral convergence-medial rotation of both eyes bilateral relaxation of the lens-lens become spherical due to contraction of the ciliary muscles
73
what way do you pull the ear canal in adults
posteriosuperiorly
74
what is the angle in glaucoma
iridiocorneal angle
75
what do the tarsal glands secrete
lipid
76
which bone are the optic canal and the superior orbital fissure located in
the sphenoid bone
77
where is CN II formed
at the optic disc
78
what is at greatest density at the macula
cones
79
what is the fovea
centre of the macula, depression 1.5mm diameter, area of most acute vision
80
what causes the damage in giant cell arteritis to vision
anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy
81
what are the symptoms of dacrocystitis
inflammation of the lacrimal sac | swelling and erythema at the inner canthus of the eye
82
what is the canthus of the eye
either corner of the eye where the upper and lower eyelids meet
83
what is dacrocysitits
inflammation of the lacrimal sac
84
how is dacrocystitis treated
systemic antibiotics, IV antibiotics are indicated if there is associated periorbital cellultis
85
at what age is a childs visual acuity the same as that of an adult
2 years
86
what is a feature of keratitis
corneal ulcers