Oral Path Flashcards

(214 cards)

1
Q

What is usually seen with affected hypertrophic filiform pappilae

A

Hairy tongue

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2
Q

cause of hairy tongue?

A

bad OH

extended use of antibiotics, corticosteroids, hydrogen perioxide, and smoking

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3
Q

Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following?

a. Epulis fissuratum.
b. Lingual varicosities.
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Median rhomboid glossitis.
e. Prominent fungiform papillae

A

SCC (?)

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4
Q

Loss of filliform papilla- vitamin____def

A

vit B def

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5
Q

fact: Bilateral swelling of parotid cannot be caused by: Anorexia

A

anorexia: loss of apetite

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6
Q

Ulcer on tongue repeated every 4 months

A

apthous ulcer

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7
Q

Bechets syndrome produces what type of mouth lesion: Apthous Ulcers , apthous stomatitis, recurrent. herpes

A

aphtous ulcers (mem)

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8
Q

Pathognomonic for measles?

A

Koplik’s spots

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9
Q

koplick spot?

A

Pathognomonic for measles

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10
Q

stages of syphilis is most infectious: primary and secondary, primary, secondary, tertiary,
primary secondary and tertiary

A

2ndary

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11
Q

Heck’s disease caused by what virus?

A

HPV 13 and 32

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12
Q

baby with streaks on palate
• bone nodulus
• Epstein pearls
• congenital epulus

A

epstein pearls

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13
Q

neonate with a bunch of nodules on alveolar ridge. What is it?
􀁸 Bohn’s nodule
􀁸 Eruption cyst
􀁸 Congenital cyst of newborn

A

Bohn’s nodule

- keratin-filled cysts of salivary gland origin on palate of newborn

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14
Q

Which syndrome has rash on cheeks, ulcers, kidney, etc?

A

lupus

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15
Q

a cavernous sinus infection would most likely come from, maxillary sinus, paranasal sinus,
frontal sinus, ant. Max. teeth

A

ant max teeth

mem

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16
Q

Why are you afraid of having infection in anterior triangle (i.e. upper lip)?

A

because there are valve-less veins that can send infection back to the brain

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17
Q

Which of the following causes Cavernous sinus thrombosis: A)Subcutaneous Abscess of
upper lip b)Subcutaneous abscess of lower anterior region

A

a) subcutaneous abscess of upper lip

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18
Q
Danger zone of Cavernous Sinus: Signs and symptoms. What is the first one?
blurred vision
periorbital edema
proptosis
ptosis
A

blurred vision (or headache)

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19
Q

Which space is not involved in ludwig’s angina? (sublingual, submandibular,
retropharyngeal, or submental)

A

retropharyngeal

DD OP 115

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20
Q

complication of lugwig’s angina

A

edema of glottis

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21
Q

Mandibular 2nd molar infection spreads to what space?

A

submandibular

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22
Q

Which muscle separates 2 potential infection spaces from a maxillary 2nd molar?
Buccinator or Masseter

A

buccinator

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23
Q

if you have an infection in the lateral pharyngeal space what muscle is involved?

A

Medial pterygoid

wiki, mem

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24
Q

You are extracting a mandibular 3rd molar and the distal root disappears into which space?

A

submandibular space

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25
Which disorder has loss (or hypoplasia) of zygomatic bone?
Treacher collins syndrome
26
Treacher collins syndrome
NOT developmental (mutation of 5q32 gene) hypoplasia of zygomatic bone malformed ear mandibular hypoplasia
27
Strawberry tongue seen in ____
scarlet fever
28
Fordyce granule is what? • salivary gland • sebaceous gland • sweat gland
ectopic sebaceous glands
29
QUESTION: Most probable reason for a Turner Tooth? | Syphilis or Trauma?
Trauma | DD OP 11
30
Ulcer that appears often on buccal vestibule that goes away without scarring after a week or so?
aphtous ulcer
31
A chancre due to Syphilis mostly resembles
aphtous ulcer
32
fact: What don’t u treat aphthous ulcers with – acyclovir
fact: What don’t u treat aphthous ulcers with – acyclovir
33
fact: Pemphigoid = D = DEEPER (subepithelial separation) than pemphigus S = SURFACE (epithelial separation)
fact: Pemphigoid = D = DEEPER (subepithelial (basement membrane) separation) than pemphigus S = SURFACE (epithelial separation)
34
Another name for chronic desquamative gingivitis?
Cicatricial pemphigoid
35
which conditions cause desquamative gingivitis:
``` •lichen planus • pemphigoid • pemphigus vulgaris • chronic ulcerative stomatitis • lupus erythematosus • erythema multiforme (KNOW ALL) ```
36
Child formed blisters with minor lip irritation? pemphigus, pemphioid, erythema multiform, epidermolysis bullosa
epidermolysis bullosa
37
Condyloma accuminatum is caused by which virus
hpv 6 and 11 | know subtypes
38
Which of the following does not have cauliflower like , pebbly appearance? Verrucous carcinoma, fibroma , condyloma accuminata, papilloma
condyloma accuminata,
39
``` Hiv patient with oropharyngeal candidiasis, what would u prescribe A. Acyclovir B. Nystatin C. AZT D. Chlorhexidine ```
nystatin | asda k
40
which oral medication would you give to tx vaginal candidiasis? Nystatin, griseofulvin, monistat, Diflucan
Diflucan (fluconazole): vaginal | Nystatin: oral rinse
41
Pt has multiple white patches that can be scraped off
candidiasis
42
Oral cytology smears are MOST appropriately used for the diagnosis of which of the following?
Pseudomembraneous candidiasis
43
What oral manifestation is seen in children with HIV?
candidiasis | DD Pediatric 49
44
systemic med for candida
Amphotericin B | mosby
45
Healthy 36 year old, red patch on palate, redness in middle of tongue: - kaposi sarcoma, - syphilis - median rhomboid glossitis - gonorrhea
median rhomboid glossitis | healthy = no kaposi or syphilis
46
Kid with herpes. What is the age of infection? | 2 yo, 4 yo, 6 yo, 8 yo, 10 yo
2 yo
47
ways to treat kid w/ herpetic gingivostomatitis EXCEPT a. antibiotics b. give numbing anesthetic before eating c. have pt rest and drink lots of water
antibiotics
48
fact: aphtous ulcers in non keratinized tissue – herpes in keratinized tissue
fact: aphtous ulcers in non keratinized tissue – herpes in keratinized tissue
49
Patient gets recurrent herpetic lesions very often with gingivostomatitis. What should be done?
``` prescribe ACYCLOVIR (if in early course of primary or recurrent herpes) Pallative care if not ```
50
Patient comes with recurrent herpetic stomatitis on the lips and history shows no signs of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. Why?
Most primary infections are subclinical
51
pt presents at 3 days with secondary herpes lesion? What the treatment of choice? Palative treatment Acyclovir
Palative treatment | acyclovir works best within 3 days you get lesion
52
MOA of acyclovir?
it inhibits viral DNA polymerase | mosby
53
``` Post herpetic neuralgia caused by: VZV HSV1 HSV2 CMV ```
VZV (chickenpox virus) HSV1 (waist up herpes) HSV2 (waist down herpes)
54
What does histoplasmosis oral lesion look like?
recurrent herpes | painful ulcer with irregular borders, similar to cancer
55
Syphilis Chancre resembles 1) Cancer 2) Herpes 3) Herpangina 4) Apthous Ulcer
aphtous ulcer
56
location where kaposi sarcoma is most likely to occur?
hard palate
57
A patient has a denture and a firm, swelling under the buccal flange midway between incisors and molars. What is it?
traumatic neuroma
58
``` Pink growth on palatal between canine and 1st pre molar: Papilloma, pyogenic granuloma, peripheral ossifying, irritation fibroma ```
Pyogenic granuloma
59
``` Which lesion shows the most rapid change in size? • oncocytoma • pleomorphic adenoma • fibroma • pyogenic granuloma ```
pyogenic granuloma
60
Patient is female and pregnant and is said to have this enlargement and picture has it on the corner of her mouth (vermillion border) and she said it just developed; the picture had it shown as a boil and very red, said it bled, and was no painful
pyogenic granuloma
61
Where do u find giant cells? Hyperthyroidism, Hypothyroidism, Hyperparathyroid, Hypoparathyroid
hyperparathyroid | OP lecture
62
``` The causes of Verrucus xanthoma? VZV HSV1 HSV2 HPV CMV ```
HPV
63
The most common between five? 1-Papilloma 2-Rhabdomyoma 3-Leiomyoma 4-Lymphangioma 5-Neurofibroma
papilloma
64
Cauliflower looking lesion
papilloma
65
Epulis fissuratum is most similar cellularly to: fibroma or granulomar cell tumor
fibroma | both fibroma and epulis fissuratum share trauma as etiology
66
``` In most of the cases, localized fibromas are often: Dysplasias, metaplasia, anaplasia, hyperplasia ```
heperplasia
67
``` Which of the following does not have cauliflower like , pebbly appearance: Verrucous carcinoma , fibroma, condyloma accuminata, papilloma ```
fibroma
68
Congential epulis histological similar to: hemangioma, lymphangioma, granular cell myoblastoma
granular cell myoblastoma | (Lecture: Congenital Epulis microscopically shows a benign proliferation of cells having granular cytoplasm
69
If you have leukoplakia for biopsy, do you incise or excise for biopsy?
incise | the white patch is going to be very big, and excision is not indicated for biopsy
70
In smoker’s soft palate, theres red points, wut could it be? erythroplakia, initial stages of SCC, nicotinic stomatitis
erythroplakia | nicotinic stomatitis is in hard palate
71
most rate of SCC is in what race?
black men
72
Lesion that resembles SCC…16wks and then disappers a. papilloma b. keratoacanthoma c. papillary hyperplasia
keratoacanthoma | mem
73
Which of the following has the best survival rate? a. squamous cell carcinoma b. adenocarcinoma c. osteosarcoma
adenocarcinoma
74
#1 risk factor for oral cancer
tobacco
75
Most likely site for SCC?
ventrolateral tongue
76
Most common malignancy in the oral cavity? a. metastatic ca b. basal cell ca c. epidermoid ca d. mucoepidermoid ca e. adenoid cystic ca
c. epidermoid ca (aka SCC) | - BCC is most common type of skin cancer
77
lesion on buccal mucosa. stretch and it disappears
Leukoedema
78
A 6 years old patient has acute lymphatic leukemia. Her deciduous molar has a large carious lesion and furcation lucency. How will you treat this person? a. pulpotomy b. pulpectomy c. extraction d. nothing
ext
79
An 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis? a. leukemia b. dentigerous cyst c. ossifying fibroma d. osetosarcoma e. hyperparathyroidism
osteosarcoma
80
Best prognosis? Verrucous carcinoma in vestibule, verrucous carcinoma floor of mouth, SCC floor of mouth, SCC in other areas
Verrucous carcinoma in vestibule
81
virus responsible for Verricus leukoplakia
HPV 16 and 18
82
Most common salivary gland neoplasm
pleomorphic adenoma
83
Most common intraoral salivary gland malignancy
mucoepidermoic carcinoma
84
Perineural invasion is seen in:_____
adenoid cystic carcinoma | Lec
85
Histologically, you can see swiss cheese pattern in ______
Adenoid cyctic carcinoma
86
Histologically, the center of this tumor islands is composed of loosely arranged polyhedral epithelial cells that resemble STELLATE RETICULUM
Ameloblastoma
87
What is the most definite way to distinguish ameloblastoma from OK? a. smear cytology b. reactive light microscopy c. reflective microscopy
reactive light microscopy
88
what can lead to ameloblastoma?
Dentigerous cyst
89
Most common odontogenic tumor
Dentigerous cyst
90
Compound vs complex odontoma
Compound: anterior jaw (The compound odontoma presents as a collection of small malformed teeth surrounded by a narrow radiolucent rim, often overlying an impacted tooth) Complex: posterior jaw (The complex odontoma presents as a calcified mass that, if fully formed, has the density of tooth structure)
91
A 16 year old boy. Xray showed maxillary anterior tooth with a radiolucency with “SPECKS” in it (yes that’s the word that was used).
AOT (adenomatoid odontogenic tumor) | lec
92
amelogenesis imperfecta: AD AR x-linked
AD
93
All of the following are congenital except… a. dentinal dysplasia b. amelogenesis imperfecta c. regional odontodysplasia d. ectodermal dysplasia
regional odontodysplasia
94
Ghost teeth
``` regional odontodysplasia (DD) ```
95
``` At what stage does enamel hypoplasia occur? initiation bud cap bell ```
bell stage
96
What is seen with Osteogenesis Imperfecta a. DI b. AI c. hypercementosis d. cleidocranial dysplasia
Dentinogenesis imperfecta
97
No Pulp - DI - AI - Dentin dysplasia
DI (no pulp) Dentin dysplasia type I (obliterated pulp) Dentin dysplasia type II (enlarged pulp)
98
``` all of the following are differential for Dentinogensis imperfecta except? ectodermal dysplasia, amelogenesis imperfecta, enamel dysplasia, dentinal dysplasia ```
ectodermal dysplasia
99
What is this condition? Clinically the dental crowns appear normal while radiographically, the teeth are characterized by pulpal obliteration and short blunted roots. The teeth are generally mobile, frequently abscess and can be lost prematurely
Dentinal dysplasia
100
what condition has Short roots?
Dentin dysplasia
101
Some teeth appear to be clinically normal, but exhibit (1 ) globular dentin, (2) very early pulpal obliteration, (3) defective root formation, (4) periapical granulomas and cysts, and (5) premature exfoliation. The condition is known as which of the following? A. Shell teeth B. Dentin dysplasia C. Regional odontodysplasia D. Amelogenesis imperfect E.Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Dentin dysplasia
102
Definition of Ectodermal dysplasia
Abnormality of 2 or more ectodermal structures: Hair loss, thick nails, light skin, no sweat glands, missing teeth
103
``` Radiographs of a patient's teeth reveal that the crowns are bulbous; the pulps, obliterated; and the roots, shortened. These findings are associated with which of the following? Porphyria Pierre Robin syndrome Amelogenesis imperfecta Osteogenesis imperfecta Erythroblastosis fetalis ```
OI
104
Ground glass appearance
Fibrous dysplasia and hyperparathyroidism
105
``` Which of the following is frequently accompanied by melanin pigmentation (cafe-aulait spots)? A. Osteomalacia B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia ```
Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
106
Radiographs of an asymptomatic, 20-year-old patient reveal a sharply outlined radiolucent lesion in the mandibular first molar area. This 2 cm lesion scallops between the roots of vital teeth. The most probable diagnosis is A. radicular cyst. B. dentigerous cyst C. traumatic bone cyst. D. odontoma
traumatic bone cyst
107
what's tx for traumatic bone cyst?
nothing (spontaneous healing)
108
what happens in pagets disease?
increase in alkaline phosphatase
109
``` Which of the following has the potential for undergoing spontaneous malignant transformation? A. Osteomalacia B. Albright's syndrome C. Paget's disease of bone D. Osteogenesis imperfecta E. von Recklinghausen disease of bone ```
paget's
110
floating teeth in air
Langerhans x
111
what's Hand-Schuller-Christian triad?
o Diabetes insipidus o Exophthalmos o Bone lesions (Langerhans dis)
112
A patient has a swelling under the upper lip that is by her lateral incisor and raises the ala of the nose from the outside. What is it?
nasolabial cyst
113
Lining of Nasolabial cyst
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial lining
114
``` Patient (young child) w/ nodules on right side of tongue that are fluid filled the rest of the mouth is WNL no other systemic signs a. Neurofibromatosis b. Lymphangioma c. Granular cell tumor ```
lymphangioma
115
which disease has multiple OKC’s?
nevoid basal cell carcinoma (aka gorlin syndrome)
116
where do you see bifid rib?
Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome
117
where do you see calcified falx cerebri?
Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome (aka Gorlin syndrome)
118
Which condition presents w/ many osteomas?
Gardner's syndrome
119
What do Gardners and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have in common?
GI Polyps
120
best diagnostic eval for TMJ disc? MRI, CT, PA radiograph
MRI
121
Football player with mouthguard, crepitation of left TMJ, trigger zone tenderness L temporalis, stiffness upon wakening:
myofacial pain syndrome
122
symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following a. impacted mandibular third molars b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve e.deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the mouth
e.deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the mouth.
123
TMJ pain are mostly related to: | 1- VII, 2-V3, 3-V2, 4-V111
V3
124
What branch off facial nerve gets damaged the most during TMJ surgey?
temporal
125
target lesion
Erythema multiforme
126
Steven Johnson syndrome is associated with?
Erythema multiforme
127
immunofluoresence used for dx of
pemphigus and pemphigoid v. | lec, mem
128
Nikosky sign?
Pemphigus vulgaris and | Mucous membrane pemphigoid
129
Widening of PDL and loss of ramus of mandible
Scleroderma
130
CREST syndrome is associated with what disease?
Systemic sclorosis
131
other name for geographic tongue?
erythema migrans
132
Painless ulcer, upper lip, it grew bigger after 2 weeks
Basal cell carcinoma
133
what kind of cell death is Aspirin burn?
coagulative necrosis
134
most common site for mucocele?
lower lip
135
how treat ranula? | Excisional, incisional, or aspiration
excise (all of it)
136
``` ranula is due to: sialolith mucus plug trauma fibrous plug ```
mucus plug | mosby
137
``` Sialolithiasis is found where? Parotid Small glands Submand Subling ```
submand gland (wharton's duct plug) (lec)
138
Sialography shows: Sausage-links appearance of ductal system what's the condition?
sialolithiasis
139
which can become ameloblastomic ?? dentigerous cyst, lymphedema, epidermoid
dentigerous cyst | mosby
140
Cause of Parulis?
incomplete root canal
141
What does tuberculosis lesion in the oral cavity look like?
large ulcer
142
Hemangioma excised from tongue. Which is it? | Choristoma, hamartoma, teratoma
Ans: Hamartoma wiki: a hamartoma is an excess of normal tissue in a normal situation (e.g., a birthmark on the skin and hemangioma), while a choristoma is an excess of tissue in an abnormal location (e.g., pancreatic tissue in the duodenum). A teratoma is a tumor with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer
143
Common cause of "plasma cell gingivitis"
cinnamon flavors in dentrifice
144
What do you see intraorally in patients with Crohn's disease?
Granulomatous gingivitis
145
Which would be located in the floor of the mouth and be “doughy”? A Ranula B. Dermoid cyst C Lymphoepithelial cyst
Dermoid cyst | lec JT
146
Most common non-odontogenic developmental cyst of the jaws?
``` Nasopalatine cyst (or incisive canal cyst) (lec) ```
147
How do you treat nasopalatine cyst?
enucleation | book
148
leukoplakia that you cannot wipe off and does not disappear when stretched?
white sponge nevus
149
Bacteria causing Maxillary sinusitis
Strep pneumoniae | book
150
what age group does trigeminal neuralgia affects?
50+
151
Tx for trigeminal neuralgia
Carbamazapine | anti-convulsants drugs such as carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, gabapentin
152
what can actinic chelitis progress to?
SCC | mosby
153
Treatment for actinic cheilitis?
5-fluorouracil | book
154
``` Which of the following lesions has the greatest malignant potential? A. Leukoedema B. Lichen planus C. Actinic cheilitis D. White sponge nevus ```
actinic cheilitis | book
155
All of the following cause xerostomia except? a. caries, b. candidiasis c. dental attrition
attrition
156
Histologically, the loss of the rete peg often is a sign of? a. pemphigus b. lichen planus c. pemphigoid d. syphills
lichen planus | book
157
How does Lichen Planus happen?
T-lymphocytes target (destroy) basal keratinocytes | mosby
158
Most common intra-oral location of lichen planus?
buccal mucosa
159
Lichen planus: - Male - Female - Equal
Female (it's an immune problem; T-lymphocytes target basal keratinocytes) (mosby)
160
Tx for Erosive lichen planus? - antifungal - antiviral - corticosteroid
Topical corticosteroids (ex: fluocinonide, betamethasone, or clobetasol gel) (book)
161
Which of the following reactive lesions of the gingival tissue reveals bone formation microscopically?
Peripheral ossifying fibroma | lec
162
bumps on the gums
Pyogenic granuloma Peripheral giant cell granuloma Peripheral ossifying fibroma
163
■ Conditions associated with multiple supernumerary teeth:
■ Gardener’s syndrome ■ Down’s syndrome ■ Cleidocranial dysplasia ■ Sturge–Weber syndrome (FA)
164
Which structures in a baby allow the head to deform in the birth canal?
Fontanelles | At birth, the bones are widely separated by loose connective tissues at the fontanelles mosby
165
when do Fontanelles close?
The posterior fontanelles ossify within 2 or 3 months after birth. The anterior fontanelle is generally the last to close between 18–24 months. (wiki)
166
café au lait spots is associated with what syndrome?
Neurofibromatosis
167
An adult patient presents with multiple, soft nodules and with macular pigmentation of the skin. Which of the following BEST represents this condition? lipomatosis b. neurofibromatosis c. metastatic malignant melanoma d. polyostotic fibrous dysplasia e. bifid rib-basal cell carcinoma syndrome
neurofibromatosis
168
what condition has lisch nodule on the iris?
Neurofibromatosis | FA
169
ghost cells
Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst (Gorlin cyst) (book) Ghost teeth: regional odontodysplasia
170
Patient had portid surgery now sweats before he eats only on one side this is due to what
Frey syndrome
171
How does Actinomycosis of jaw present?
lumpy jaw
172
other name for dens in dente? - Dens invaginatus - Dens evaginatus
dens INvaginatus
173
Talon cusp is accociated with: - Dens invaginatus - Dens evaginatus
dens Evaginatus | mosby
174
Which one resembles Epilus Fissuratum?
Fibroma | epulis fissuratum is caused by ill-fitting denture
175
Keratoacanthoma closely resembles ____
SCC | lec JT
176
Where can you see Keratoacanthoma? - palate - buccal mucosa - floor of mouth - upper lip
upper lip Keratoacanthoma lesions are usually happen at the sun-exposed skin. (book)
177
Warthin tumor most common in what gland?
parotid | dont get it mixed up with wharton's duct; submand duct
178
Other name for Stafne defect?
Static bone defect and Salivary inclusion defect (know both)
179
What happens in Sjogrens?
autoimmune destroys glands
180
QUESTION: Sjogrens Synd associated with all EXCEPT: - herpes - Keratoconjunctivitis - SLE - Rheumatoid arthritis
Keratoconjunctivitis Keratoconjunctivitis: dryness of the eyes -Sjogrens usually comes with other autoimmune disease, like SLE or rheumatoid arthritis. (lec JT)
181
``` What is most common with Sjogrens? Lymphoma Pleomorphic adenoma increased sweating osteoarthritis ```
Lymphoma Mosby: Patients are at risk for development of lymphoma.
182
``` Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome? A. Suppurative arthritis. B. Rheumatoid arthritis. C. Degenerative arthrosis. D. Psoriatic arthritis. E. Lupus arthritis. ```
Rheumatoid arthritis | lec JT
183
xerostomia is present in all of the following except? Sjogrens syndrome, Vit C. Defenciency
Vitamin C def (lec JT) Vitamin C def => Scurvy
184
Lab tests for Sjogren syndrome?
SS-A (Sjogren syndrome A) SS-B (Sjogren syndrome B), RF (Rheumatoid factor), ANA (antinuclear antibodies) (mosby)
185
Diff btwn primary and secondary Sjogren?
Primary Sjögren’s syndrome consists of keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes) and xerostomia (dry mouth). Secondary Sjögren’s syndrome consists of dry eyes and mouth plus another autoimmune disease, usually Rheumatoid arthritis (mosby)
186
Tx for Sarcoidosis? - corticosteroids - antibiotics - antivirals
corticosteroids | mosby
187
Sarcoidosis primarly affects which organ?
lungs
188
FACT: Sarcoidosis is granulomatous disease
FACT: Sarcoidosis is granulomatous disease
189
onion skin pattern in radiograph is associated with
2 syndroms: 1. Proliferative Periostitis (Garre’s) 2. Ewing’s sarcoma
190
intra oral melanin pigmentation is associated with______
Peut-jeghers syndrome
191
PDL widening is associated with
2 syndromes: 1. Scleroderma 2. Osteosarcoma (lec JT)
192
sunburst appearance in radiograph is associated with ______
osteosarcoma | osteosarcoma: sunburst and widening PDL
193
in what condition do you see "punched out" lesions?
Multiple Myeloma | lec JT
194
first sign of multiple myeloma
bone pain
195
saw tooth appearance of rete pegs
pathognomonic for Lichen Planus | DD
196
disease associated with low caries rate
``` down syndrome (FA) Trisomy 21 = down syndrome ```
197
What is hypertelorism
wide-set eyes
198
what is Teratogen?
substances that may cause birth defects via a toxic effect on an embryo (wiki) ex: chemotherapy drugs like Methotrexate
199
what's synchondrosis? is it cartilage or bone? which goes under closure the latest?
like epiphysial plates but for skull (ex: spheno-ethmoid) it is CARTILAGE latest: SPHENO-OCCIPITAL mosby
200
when does the mand symphysis fuse?
6-9 months
201
what is synostosis?
abnormal fusion of 2 bones | wiki
202
what is craniosynostosis? | what condition causes craniosynostosis?
early closure of crainial suture (wiki) | disease: Crouzon syndrome (wiki)
203
what do Hurler and Hunter's syndromes have in common?
they both have mucopolysaccharidosis (buildup of GAGs, long unbranched polysaccharide) wiki
204
what syndrome causes hyperkeratosis of hand and feet?
papillon-lefevre syndrome | also causes perio
205
what condition has glossoptosis?
Pierre-Robin syndrome glossoptosis = downward displacement of tongue FA
206
what syndrome has the Triad of glossoptosis, retrognathia, and cleft palate?
Pierre-robin syndrome | wiki
207
what syndrome has port-wine stain?
Sturge-Weber syndrome | wiki
208
symptoms of Thyrotoxic shock?
Fever diaphoresis (sweating, bc of fever) Tachycardia (wiki)
209
symptoms of hypothyroidism
weight gain | feeling cold
210
symptoms of hyperthyroidism
weight loss | feeling hot
211
increase in alkaline phosphatase is associated with: - hyperthy - hypothy - hyperparathy - hypoparathy
hyperparathy | wiki
212
decrease in alkaline phosphatase is associated with what syndrome?
hypophosphatasia | wiki
213
Central Giant Cell Granuloma is seen with pts with which condition?
hyperparathyroidism | lec
214
What is the normal %fat intake per day
30% | online