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Other terms and concepts Flashcards

1
Q

What is contained in the pleural cavity?

A

the LUNGS

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2
Q

What does the mediastinum contain?

A

between and outside the lungs containing the heart, aorta, trachea, esophagus, thymus gland, bronchial tubes and lymph nodes

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3
Q

Where is the peritoneum?

A

surrounds the abdominal cavity

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4
Q

What is the supine position?

A

lying on back

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5
Q

What is the prone position?

A

lying on belly

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6
Q

Define a hiatal hernia

A

when stomach protrudes into the mediastinum to the esophageal opening in diaphragm

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7
Q

define an inguinal hernia

A

when intestine protrudes down to the groin

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8
Q

differentiate a cystocele and rectocele

A

cystocele is when the bladder protrudes toward the vagina, and a rectocele is when the rectum protrudes toward the vagina

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9
Q

What is a common hernia occurring in infants?

A

omphalocele, when the insetting protrudes to the abdominal wall near the navel

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10
Q

Name the 3 different types of GRANULOCYTES

A

eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils

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11
Q

Where are eosinophils seen?

A

they are present in most allergic reactions

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12
Q

Where are basophils seen?

A

they are present in the healing process of inflammation

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13
Q

Describe neutrophils

A

most numerous and most important, they engulf and digest bacteria for fighting diseases.

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14
Q

Name the 2 different types of MONONUCLEAR leukocytes

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

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15
Q

What are the lymphocytes job?

A

create antibodies

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16
Q

What is the monocytes job?

A

to clean up after neutrophils, then they leave the blood to go to the tissues and become macrophages

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17
Q

Define adenoids.

A

Small masses of lymphatic tissue in pharynx near nose and nasal passage. Literally means “resembling glands”, as they are neither eco nor endo glands

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18
Q

When do blood antibodies become a problem with mother and child?

A

In the RH condition. If mom is an RH- and the baby is RH+, it becomes a problem in the SECOND pregnancy.

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19
Q

What happens in the second pregnancy of an RH- mom having an RH+ baby?

A

baby develops hemolytic disease of newborn (HDN) or erythroblastosis retalis. If mom had an RH+ baby before, the mothers RH- antigens will be exposed to the first baby, creating sensitization. With the second baby however, these antigens will find the babies RBC’s and destroy them.

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20
Q

Define a congenital anomaly.

A

When a baby is born with an irregular structure/organ; can be hereditary or develop during pregnancy

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21
Q

How would you define a syndrome?

A

a group of signs/symptoms appearing together to produce a typical picture of disease.

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22
Q

What are the symptoms for Reye syndrome?

A

vomitting, swelling brain, hypoglycaemia, liver dysfunction, due to viral infection treated w. asprin

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23
Q

Describe what Marfan syndrome looks like?

A

it is an inherited connective tissue disorder where one has a tall, thin body; spidery fingers; elongated head and heart; vessel and ophthalmic abnormalities.

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24
Q

What is the hardest tissue in the human body?

A

enamel!

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25
Name the 3 salivary glands.
parotid, submandibular, sublingual
26
What are the secretions that the stomach secretes?
Pepsin - a digestive enzyme. Hydrochloric acid - to digest protein and kill bacteria
27
Which part of the small intestine receives bile?
Duodenum
28
What is bilirubin and how does it relate to jaundice?
Bilirubin is a bile pigment that is produced by the destruction of RBC; it travels to the liver where it gets converted a water-soluble product. If the bile duct is blocker or there is liver damage, then bilirubin stays in bloodstream = jaundice
29
What is the path of bile?
Liver - hepatic duct - cystic duct - gallbladder - common bile duct - duodenum
30
What is an anastomosis?
any surgical connection between 2 parts; such as vessels, ducts or bowel segments
31
What would parenteral nutrition look like?
(para-, meaning part from); when an intravenous line brings nutrition directly into the bloodstream, 'apart from' the intestine (bypassing)
32
Define ascites.
an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen
33
what are the noises in your abdomen called when gas/fluid is moving?
borborygmi
34
Medical term for burping?
eructation
35
What is it called when one passing fresh, bloody stools from the rectum?
hematochezia
36
What is melena?
black, tarry stools; contains digested blood.
37
What does a stool guaiac test test for?
tested for blood int the feces
38
Define steatorrhea.
When there is fat in the feces
39
Another term for tooth decay?
dental caries
40
What is aphthous stomatitis?
inflammation of the mouth; containing small painful ulcers
41
define oral leukoplakia
white plaques or patches (precancerous lesions) on the mucosa of the mouth
42
What is another term for gingivitis?
periodontal disease
43
What happens when achalasia happens?
there is a failure of the lower esophageal sphincter muscle to relax.
44
What are esophageal varices?
swollen, varicose veins at the lower end of the esophagus (generally caused by liver disease)
45
What is another term for heart burn?
gastroesophageal reflex disease (GERD)
46
What are anal fistulas? What can cause them?
abnormal, tube-like passage near the anus. Usually caused buy a break/fissure, or an abscess
47
What are the two types of colonic polyps?
1. pedunculated - have a stalk | 2. sessile - attached right to mucosa membrane
48
What is involved in inflammatory bowel disease?
Crohn's disease (chronic inflammation of intestinal tract), and ulcerative colitis
49
Define diverticulosis.
abnormal outpouchings (diverticula) in the intestinal wall of colon. Can cause diverticulitis if feral matter becomes trapped in the diverticula
50
What is dysentery?
painful inflammation of the intestines commonly caused by bacterial infection
51
Define hemorrhoids.
swollen, twisted, varicose veins in rectal region
52
What is the term used to describe a loss of peristalsis due to an abstraction in the intestines.
ileus
53
What is occurring when intussusception is going on?
telescoping of the intestines; when one segment of the bowel collapses into the opening on another
54
what is volvulus?
twisting of the intestine on itself.
55
term for gall stones (calculi) in gall bladder?
cholelithiasis
56
what is liver cirrhosis?
chronic degeneration of the liver
57
What is alpha feto-protein (AFP)?
a tumor marker that is elevated in the blood of patients who have hepatocellular carcinoma.
58
What are 3 examples of liver function tests?
1&2) Alanine and aspartate transaminase (ALT and AST) tests, as thee enzymes are elevated in the serum of patients with liver disease. 3) bilirubin test
59
What is lower gastrointestinal X-ray series called?
barium enema; barium goes in rectum
60
What are the 2 types of cholangiography's?
- percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography; contrast is injected into the biliary vessels - endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography; contrast is administered through catheter into esophagus through to bile ducts
61
What do computed tomography scans rely on for imaging?
tissue densities; can also use contrasts to image blood vessels
62
What is an HIDA scan?
- cholescintigraphy | - determines gall bladder function using nuclear medicine
63
What are the other terms used for a gastric bypass?
bariatric (bar/o = weight, iatr/o = treatment) surgery, or gastrojejunostomy
64
Name the 2 materials the kidneys secrete and their jobs.
1. renin - raises blood pressure | 2. erythropoietin - stimulates RBC production
65
Define colic.
intermittent spasms of pain caused by distention of an organ
66
What is a stricture?
an abnormal narrowing of an opening or passageway
67
How do you define interstitial nephritis. What can it be caused by?
the inflammation of connective tissue that lies between the renal tubules. Can be caused by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, like asprin
68
How do you define nephrotic syndrome? What are the main signs?
signs or symptoms caused by excessive protein loss in urine | edema and hypoalbuminemia are the main signs
69
What are the 2 types of hereditary polycystic kidney disease (PKD)?
- asymptomatic until middle aged; hematuria, ute's, nephrolithiasis and failure - seen in infants and children resulting in renal failure
70
What are ARF and CRF?
acute renal failure and chronic renal failure
71
How is chronic kidney disease (CKD) defined?
the levels of creatinine clearance and glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
72
Differentiate secondary and essential hypertension.
``` secondary = renal HT (caused by abnormal condition like glomerulonephritis) essential = no obvious underlying medical condition to cause HT ```
73
What is a Wilms tumor?
a malignant tumor of the kidney occurring in childhood
74
Differentiate Diabetes insipidus (DI) and mellitus (DM)?
``` insipidus = when antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is not secreted, or there is a resistance of the kidney to ADH mellitus = insulin is not secreted adequately or tissues are resistant to its effects ```
75
What is a KUB?
kidney, ureters, bladder; x-ray exam w/out contrast to examine
76
What is a retrograde pyelogram (RP)?
x-ray image of the renal pelvis and ureters after injection of contrast through a urinary catheter into the ureters from the bladder.
77
Differentiate hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
hemodialysis: arteriovenous fistula was made so that blood can be taken out of the body and nitrogenous wastes removed peritoneal: fluid injected into peritoneal cavity so that wastes diffuse into that and can be removed
78
What is the adnexa of the female reproductive system?
accessory structures of the uterus - fallopian tubes, ovaries and supporting ligaments
79
What are Bartholin glands
glands present at the vaginal opening that secrete mucus to lubricate
80
What are benign tumours in the uterus? How are they treated if they needed to be?
Fibroids, or leiomyota (leiomyomas). | Uterine artery embolisation (UAE) can be used to block blood supply to these fibroids
81
What are the 2 common types of ovarian cancer
serous - clear fluid mutinous - thick, pasty fluid cystic adenocarcinomas
82
T/F ; genes play a part in ovarian cancer.
True! The mutations of the genes BRCA1 and 2 (breast cancer 1 and 2) are at higher risk
83
3 common types of breast cancer
invasive ductal carcinoma, lobular and medullary carcinoma
84
2 tests for testing for breast cancer
stereostatic core needle biopsy with help of mammogram AND | to see if metastasize to lymph, do sentinel node biopsy (SNB)
85
What are some markers in breast cancer to check which treatment to use?
- Test for Estrogen receptors, and 2/3 of breast tumours are ER+ - Herceptin (HER2)
86
What are 2 very common treatments (drugs) for breast cancer?
tamoxifen - blocks ER reception | aromatase inhibitors - block ER producing enzyme
87
What is fibrocystic breast disease?
numerous small sacs of fluid surrounded by dense strands of fibrous tissue in the breast (benign)
88
What is it called when the placenta is separated prematurely?
abruptio placentae
89
Define placenta previa
implantation of the placenta over the cervical opening or in a lower region of the uterus (c-section birth)
90
What is preeclampsia?
abnormal condition associated with pregnancy, marked with high BP, proteinuria, edema and heachache. -can lead to eclampsia - very serious
91
What is erythroblastosis fetalis?
A hemolytic disease in the newborn bay caused by a blood group (Rh factor) incompatibility b/ween mom and fetus
92
What is the disease caused by deficiency of surfactant on the lungs in a newborn?
hyaline membrane disease
93
What is meconium aspiration syndrome?
when a newborn inhales the meconium produced by a fetus or newborn - the first intestinal discharge from the newborn
94
Pyloric stenosis is associated with ________?
down syndrome - it is a narrowing of the opening of the stomach to the duodenum
95
What is the procedure D & C ?
dilation and curettage - which is a widening of the cervix and scraping off the endometrial linen of the uterus to diagnose uterine disease or halt heavy uterine bleeding, as well as abortion
96
What is an exenteration?
the removal of internal organs within a cavity

Medical terminology course (8 decks)

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