P1: Long Exam 1 Flashcards by Gay Amor Tipolo Gacang

The normal straw color of urine is largely due to the presence of

urochrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Emptying the bladder or urine voiding is otherwise known as

micturition

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which set of parts involved in urine formation is correctly sequenced?

A. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, renal pelvis, collecting ducts, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
B. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, renal pelvis, loop of Henle, collecting ducts, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
C. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, collecting ducts, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
D. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, collecting ducts, loop of Henle, renal pyramid, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra

C. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, collecting ducts, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The procedure of wet urinalysis starts with the

sample identification

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Amino acid disorders are characterized by the passage of urine with

characteristic odors

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

characteristic odors

hematuria

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

One of the following is characterized by a turbid urine due to leakage of lymph:
A. pyuria
C. bacteruria
B. chyluria
D. cylindruria

B. chyluria

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Brick dust refers to which of the following crystals?

amorphous urates

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Gross examination of urine samples involve all of the following except

A. assessment of odor
C. pH and specific gravity testing
B. reporting of urine color
D. measurement of urine volume

C. pH and specific gravity testing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The clearing of turbidity due to the addition of a dilute acid confirms the presence of

amorphous phosphates

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The presence of casts in the urine is called

cylindruria

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The purpose of collecting timed urine samples is for obtaining
A. more yield, thus, increased sample volume
B. higher concentration of a particular substance tested
C. more urinary sediments such as cells, crystals and casts
D. ensure high degree of accuracy and precision of chemical tests

B. higher concentration of a particular substance tested

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Any transient increase in urinary volume is termed

diuresis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The most commonly encountered abnormal color of urine is

red-brown

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The TS (Total Solids) meter or refractometer is used to measure

specific gravity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The presence of many mucus threads in the urine indicates

renal inflammatory episode

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

PKU or phenylketonuria is a disease characterized by the voiding of a

mousy-smelling urine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A reagent strip is sometimes referred to as the

dipstick

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Regarded as the routine or basic urinalysis is the
A. wet urinalysis
C. reagent strip urinalysis
B. special cytologic urinalysis
D. chemical urinalysis

A. wet urinalysis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Macroscopic examination of urine includes the following except
A. appearance
C. chemical testing using multistix
B. specific gravity determination
D. sediment examination

C. chemical testing using multistix

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the event that only one urine specimen is obtained, which correct sequence should be followed in wet urinalysis?

bacteriologic examination 3. examination for crystals and casts
check for contamination 4. glucose testing

A. 1-2-3-4
B. 2-1-4-3
C. 1-2-4-3
D. 2-1-3-4

B. 2-1-4-3

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The patient’s degree of hydration and urine concentration can be estimated by examining

urine color

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Small cloudy patches in normal urine due to the presence of mucus is called

nubecula

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which pigment causes the production of yellow foam ?

bilirubin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Presence of intact red blood cells is called

hematuria

Homogentisic acid forms brown-black urine upon long standing -- a condition known as

alkaptonuria

Which of these urinary constituents can be cleared through acidification? A. amorphous urates B. amorphous phosphates C. pus cells D. bacteria

B. amorphous phosphates

The dye Oil Red O is used to demonstrate the presence of

lipiduria

Excretion by an adult of more than 500 mL. of urine with a specific gravity of 1.018 at night is known as

nocturia

Which of the following statements is not true? A. High volumes of urine result in a low specific gravity. B. The aromatic odor of freshly voided urine is of undetermined source. C. Cloudy urine is not common and not necessarily pathologic. D. Aside from urochrome, there are other pigments that give normal urine a yellow color.

D. Aside from urochrome, there are other pigments that give normal urine a yellow color.

A urine sample with a specific gravity of 1.010 is described as

isosthenuric

Which parameter cannot be measured using reagent strip technology?

osmolality

Sound wave frequency and falling drop method are performed to assess the urine

specific gravity

The state of hydration of the patient can be assessed by all of the following except A. urine osmolality B. urine volume and color C. urine specific gravity D. urine pH

D. urine pH

The presence of high amounts of indican will give a urine sample a

blue-green color

The average adult on a normal diet produces a 24-hour urine with a pH of about

6.0

At night, during the mild respiratory acidosis of sleep, a more acidic urine is formed. The acidity is largely due to the buildup of

carbon dioxide

A diet high in meat and cranberries will

lower urinary pH

The ill effects of salicylic acid poisoning would be aggravated by which of the following: A. diet rich in meat B. intake of sodium bicarbonate C. diet high in citrus fruits D. prohibition of acid phosphate ingestion

A. diet rich in meat

In the tubular cells, the passing filtrate acquire hydrogen ions in exchange for

sodium ions

Which pair of dipstick and its number of chemical parameters is incorrect? A. Multistix 10 SG - 10 B. Uristix -2 C. Diastix – 2 D. Chemstrip G – 1

C. Diastix – 2

The Uristix reagent strip can detect

glucose and protein only

The titratable acidity of a 24-hour urine collected in ice utilizes as titrant the

0.1N NaOH

Bacterial growth in urine specimen is characterized by all of the following except A. clouding that cannot be cleared by acidification B. clouding that can be removed by paper filtration C. marked alkaline shift to a pH > 8.0 D. marked unsuitability as sample for bacterial culture

B. clouding that can be removed by paper filtration

The most accurate means of determining the pH of urine samples is the A. blue and red litmus paper method B. pH meter with a glass electrode C. titratable acidity testing using a 24-hour urine sample (in ice) D. reagent strip using bromthymol blue and methyl red

B. pH meter with a glass electrode

The protein uromucoid is secreted by the cells in the distal tubular cells and ascending loop of Henle. It is highly associated with cast formation. It is also referred to as the

Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein

The presence of Bence Jones protein the urine is suggestive of

Multiple myeloma

A hazy urine with high protein content collected after a heavy exercise is an example of

Functional proteinuria

To detect the kinds of protein in the urine, what is needed is

Electrophoresis

The catabolic products derived from lipids which can become potentially toxic are the

ketone bodies

When lipid is lost in the urine, many granular casts, fatty casts and oval fat bodies are found in the urine sediment. Oval fat bodies are actually

fat-laden renal tubular epithelial cells

Tubular pattern proteinuria is seen in all of the following conditions except A. Fanconi’s syndrome B. Pyelonephritis C. Wilson’s disease D. Nephrotic syndrome

D. Nephrotic syndrome

The tubular pattern proteinuria cannot be easily detected using reagent strip methods due to the type of protein involved – the low molecular weight proteins such as alpha-1-microglobulin, light-chain immunoglobulins and lysozymes. On the other hand, glomerular pattern proteinuria is detected because the protein involved is mainly

albumin

Type of proteinuria characterized by the excretion of 4 g. of protein /day is described as

heavy

Also referred to as orthostatic proteinuria is

postural proteinuria

Which substance may affect urinary pH testing?

protein

Which statement regarding protein testing is not true? A. Reagent strips are not sensitive in measuring globulins but sensitive to albumin. B. Both albumin and globulins can be precipitated using SSA and TCA. C. Reagent strips can be used in assessing the degree of proteinuria. D. Both reagent strips and SSA and TCA methods are for urine protein screening

C. Reagent strips can be used in assessing the degree of proteinuria.

What substance in the urine is tested using the Kjeldahl method and Biuret reaction?

protein

Bence Jones protein is best detected in urine via

Protein electrophoresis

Which blood glucose level exceeds the renal threshold for glucose leading to glucosuria? A. 100 mg/dL B. 157 mg/dL C. 130 mg/dL D. 220 mg/dL

D. 220 mg/dL

Urine glucose testing serves to check endocrine function to diagnose the disease

Diabetes mellitus

The common thing about using reagent strips for glucose testing such as Clinistix, Multistix and Chemstrip is the

double sequential enzyme reaction

The copper reduction tablet test for glucose is the

Clinitest

What enzyme will oxidize glucose into gluconic acid and hydrogen peroxide?

glucose oxidase

The range of drops required of the urine sample in the glucose testing using Clinitest is

2 to 5

O-toluidine is the chromogen used in which reagent strip for glucose?

Clinistix

All of the following are reducing sugars except A. glucose B. fructose C. galactose D. sucrose

D. sucrose

If a pass through phenomenon happens in the glucose test using Clinitest, one should do A. retesting using lesser amount of urine sample B. recollection of urine sample and retesting glucose C. confirm the result using Benedict’s method D. no additional testing and results obtained can be reported

A. retesting using lesser amount of urine sample

In galactokinase deficiency, galactose cannot be converted to glucose. From what sugar was the galactose that appears in the urine derived?

lactose

Which of the following tests is the most specific for urinary glucose testing? A. Clinitest B. Clinistix C. Benedict’s test D. Copper reduction test

B. Clinistix

What compound of copper is colored red?

Cu2O

What method is best to measure the individual reducing sugars in urine?

Thin layer chromatography

What organic substances are products of incomplete lipid metabolism?

ketone bodies

The most abundant among these organic substances in the urine is

urea

The most abundant among these inorganic urine constituents is

chloride

Ketonuria may be seen in all of the following conditions except A. fasting B. type I diabetes mellitus C. excessive exercise D. carbohydrate-rich diet

D. carbohydrate-rich diet

Sodium nitroferricyanide reaction (Acetest) is specific for urinary

diacetate

Rothera’s wet method can detect all of the following except A. acetoacetic acid B. beta-hydroxybutyrate C. acetone D. ketone bodies

B. beta-hydroxybutyrate

The main ingredient of the Gerhardt’s test for the detection of urine diacetic acid is

ferric chloride

Which of the following substances is an oxidizing agent? A. ascorbic acid B. glutathione C. hydrogen peroxide D. uric acid

C. hydrogen peroxide

If delay in testing for ketone bodies cannot be prevented, the urine sample should be

refrigerated at 2-10 degrees Celsius

The Multistix reagent pad for blood uses of the chromogen tetramethylbenzidine which, in the presence of blood, causes a color change from

yellow to green

What red-brown pigment in the urine is produced after rhabdomyolysis?

myoglobin

Which of the following is not a breakdown product of hemoglobin? A. bilirubin C. hemosiderin B. amino acids D. haptoglobin

D. haptoglobin

The Diazo (p-nitrobenzenediazonium p-toluene sulfonate) tablet test is for the detection of urine

bilirubin

Ehrlich’s aldehyde reaction is the formation of reddish-brown color due to

urobilinogen

Bilirubin can be detected using all of the following methods except A. Ictotest C. Diazo reagent strip B. Yellow foam test D. Blondheim method

D. Blondheim method

Schwartz-Watson test differentiates between the presence of urobilinogen and

porphobilinogen

Inverse Ehrlich’s reaction is also known as

Hoesch’s test

A positive nitrite test indicates _________, while a positive leukocyte esterase test indicates ________

bacteriuria, pyuria

C-Stix reagent strips are impregnated with buffered phosphomolybdates to detect

ascorbic acid

The 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA) is a byproduct of metabolism of

serotonin

If serotonin is derived from the amino acid tryptophan, melanin is derived from which amino acid?

tyrosine

Defects in the synthesis of heme moiety of hemoglobin would cause

porphyrias

What apparatus is required to detect the lavender to violet fluorescence of porphyrins after acidification of urine sample and addition of glacial acetic acid:ethyl acetate mixture?

Wood’s lamp

Which of the following has a peroxidase-like activity? A. hexokinase C. heme B. myoglobin D. hydrogen peroxide

C. heme

The most abundant among the ketone bodies which accounts 78% of the total in urine is A. acetone C. acetoacetic acid B. beta-hydroxybutyric acid D. urea

B. beta-hydroxybutyric acid

Which pathologic condition would cause a positive Acetest? A. diabetes mellitus C. diabetes insipidus B. nephrotic syndrome D. high fat diet

D. high fat diet

Which chemical parameter is not found in Multistix 10 SG? A. Urobilinogen C. Nitrite B. Ascorbic acid D. Leukocyte esterase

B. Ascorbic acid

P1: Long Exam 1 Flashcards

(100 cards)