Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions are associated with pulmonary hypoplasia

A
  • congenital diaphragmatic hernia
  • oligohydraminos
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2
Q

Why should you avoid hypotonic (0.45%) saline in paeds

A

risk of hyponatremic encephalopathy

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3
Q

monitoring for HUS

A

BP and urinalysis to look for renal involvement

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4
Q

IV fluid bolus in children

A

20ml/kg over less than 10 mins

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5
Q

Whirlpool sign

A

malrotation

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6
Q

treatment of malrotation

A

Ladd procedure

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7
Q

what can trigger an aplastic crisis in children with hereditary spherocytosis

A

parvovirus

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8
Q

paediatric HIV

A

Low risk babies, where mums viral load is < 50 copies per ml, should be given zidovudine for 4 weeks
High risk babies, where mums viral load is > 50 copies / ml, should be given zidovudine, lamivudine and nevirapine for 4 weeks

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9
Q

initial vs definitive management of hirschprungs

A

initial: bowel irrigation
definitive: anorectal pullthrough

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10
Q

neonatal hypoglycaemia treatment

A

asymptomatic
- encourage normal feeding (breast or bottle)
-monitor blood glucose
symptomatic or very low blood glucose
- vadmit to the neonatal unit
- intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose

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11
Q

partial seizures during sleep

A

benign rolandic epilepsy
centrotemporal spikes

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12
Q

features of PDA

A

left subclavicular thrill
continuous ‘machinery’ murmur
large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse
wide pulse pressure
heaving apex beat

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13
Q

which congential infection can cause PDA

A

rubella in first trimester

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14
Q

how to differentiate TGA and TOF

A

Cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting within the first days of life is TGA.
Cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting at 1-2 months of age is TOF

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15
Q

cystic fibrosis treatment

A

Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) c

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16
Q

impetigo treatment

A

localised non-bullous impetigo = hydrogen peroxide
widespread = fusidic acid 2%

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17
Q

how to differentiate caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma

A

Caput Succedaneum
successfully Crosses Sutures

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18
Q

moderate asthma attack

A

Oral prednisolone and salbutamol via a spacer: one puff every 30-60 seconds to a maximum of 10 puffs

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19
Q

acute epiglottis cause

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

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20
Q

VSD murmur

A

pansystolic murmur

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21
Q

bow legs in children

A

resolves by 4 years

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22
Q

umbilical hernias

A

Usually self-resolve, but if large or symptomatic perform elective repair at 2-3 years of age. If small and asymptomatic peform elective repair at 4-5 years of age.

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23
Q

dex dosage for croup

A

150mcg/kg PO

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24
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia cause

A

partial deficiency of 21 hydroxylase and results in a reduction in aldosterone and cortisol. This can present with irregular or absent periods accompanied by early onset pubic hair, acne and hirsutism. A high level of 17-hydroxyprogesterone is associated with this diagnosis

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25
serious complication of turners
aortic root dissection
26
what class of antibiotic for whooping cough
macrolide: azithromycin/clarithromycin
27
whooping cough symptoms
Paroxysmal cough. Inspiratory whoop. Post-tussive vomiting. Undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants.
28
NRDs chest x-ray
diffuse ground glass lungs with low volumes and a bell-shaped thorax
29
APGAR
Pulse, respiratory effort, colour, muscle tone, reflex irritability 70%
30
williams heart defect
supravalvular aortic stenosis SUPER cos theyre HAPPY
31
oligo or poly for DDH
oligo due to restricted movement
32
what murmur do you get with ebsteins abnormality
pansystolic due to tricuspid regurg
33
Vesicoureteric reflux investigation
VUR is normally diagnosed following a micturating cystourethrogram a DMSA scan may also be performed to look for renal scarring
34
Heel prick results with down syndrome
raised level of immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT).
35
when does infantile colic resolve by
6 months
36
chest x-ray with ttn
hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
37
malignant bone tumour x-ray
Codman’s Triangle - as tumours enlarges raising the periosteum sunray calcification - new bone breaches the cortex & radiates outwards into adjacent soft tissue
38
how do you check visual acuity in children
cardiff cards
39
2 tests for intusucception
US → target lesion/donut sign AXR → might show edge of intussusception
40
3 complications of intusucception
Intestinal Perforation and/or Ischaemia and/or Necrosis Hypovolemic Shock Sepsis
41
6 features of down syndrome
- single palmar crease - epicanthic folds - brushfield spots on iris - Wide space between 1st/2nd toes - flat occiput
42
gastro abnormalities associated with downs
Duodenal/ anal stenosis Duodenal/ anal atresia Hirschsprung disease Tracheoesophageal fistula
43
potential risk of not treating jaundice
kernicterus
44
clinical signs of appendicitis
Tachycardia Rovsing sign - RIF pain when palpating LIF Psoas sign - RIF pain on hyperextension of R hip Obturator sign - RIF on internal rotation of flexed right hip McBurney's sign - RIF over appendix
45
important investigation after febrile convulsion
urinalysis
46
febrile convulsion prognosis
~33% of patients will have another febrile seizure, while 10-20% will have ≥3 further episodes with most occurring within 2 years of the initial presentation There is also a 2-5% risk of developing Epilepsy depending on the type of febrile seizure
47
leukaemia definition
Haematological Malignancy Presence of neoplastic haemopoietic cells in the bone marrow +/- peripheral circulation
48
methods for uncontaminated urine sample
Catheter specimen Supra-pubic aspiration Clean-catch midstream specimen
49
diagnosis of UTI standards
Pyuria Bacteriuria
50
radiological investigation following UTI
Within 6 weeks of UTI an US of the urinary tract should be performed to identify structural abnormalities
51
alternative to methylphenidate
dexafetamine
52
signs that support ruptured appendix
Air under the diaphragm on erect CXR Rigid, board-like abdomen on palpation
53
differential diagnosis for swelling in forearm
Cellulitis Ewing’s Sarcoma / Osteosarcoma Trauma (fracture with possible compartment syndrome)
54
initial management of osteomtelitis
Analgesia e.g. paracetamol → to reduce distress, Arrange admission and referral to orthopaedics for possible surgical drainage if initially unresponsive Empirical Antibiotics e.g. Flucloxacillin and Benzylpenicillin → to treat infection and prevent bone necrosis, chronic infection with discharging sinus, limb deformity and amyloidosis
55
ENT paeds difficulty hearing and ear pain
Acute Otitis Media with Effusion (aka glue ear) Recurrent Acute Otitis Media Adenoid Hypertrophy Foreign Body Allergic Rhinitis
56
treatment of glue ear
Grommet facilitates improved hearing via ↑ conduction of sound Adenoidectomy improved nasal obstruction
57
guthrie heel prick test findings
- Guthrie Assay (identifies Phenylketonuria) - Immunoreactive Trypsin (Cystic Fibrosis) - Thyroid Function Tests (Hypothyroidism) - Sickle Cell Disease
58
x-ray with NEC
Dilated Bowel Loops, Bowel wall oedema, Pneumotitis Intestinalis:
59
what screening is offered with JIA
anterior uveitis: eye testing every 3 months
60
centor criteria
- presence of tonsillar exudate - tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis - history of fever - absence of cough
61
EBV symptoms triad
sore throat, pyrexia and lymphadenopathy
62
perths disease what do you see on x-ray
avascular necrosis - osteopenia and microfractures - collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign - osteosclerosis - flattening or femoral head
63
how to calculate fluid deficit
Fluid deficit (mL) = % dehydration x weight (kg) x 10
64
constipation
1. movicol 2. stimulant (senna) 3. osmotic (lactulose)
65
complication of not treating exotropia
amblyopia
66
cause of necrotising fasciitis after chicken pox
group a strep
67
threadworm organism
Enterobius vermicularis
68
what should be checked for in active kids with down syndrome
atlantoaxial instability