Resp Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of occupational asthma

A

isocyanates (spray paint)

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2
Q

upper lobe fibrosis

A

CHARTS
C - Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
H - Histiocytosis/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - Ankylosing spondylitis
R - Radiation
T - Tuberculosis
S - Silicosis/sarcoidosis

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3
Q

causes of exudative pleural effusion

A
  1. Malignany
  2. Emphyema (low pleural glucose conc + pleural fluid <7.3)
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4
Q

what can cause a false negative manatoux test

A

sarcoidosis

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5
Q

upper zone fibrosis, egg-shell calcification of hilar nodes

A

silicosis

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6
Q

klebsiella symptoms

A

red current jelly sputum
alcoholics
Lead to pleural emphyema

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7
Q

contraindication to lung cancer surgery

A

superior vena cava obstruction
vocal cord paralysis

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8
Q

what drug class is ipatropium bromide

A

SAMA

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9
Q

Example of a LABA

A

salmetrolol

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10
Q

Example of a LAMA

A

Tiotropium

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11
Q

cause of coarse crackers

A

fluid in lungs

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12
Q

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis what is heard

A

fine end inspiratory crepitations

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13
Q

cavitating lesions what cancer

A

squamous cell

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14
Q

what is used to guide antibiotic treatment in acute bronchitis

A

CRP >100 immediate
(doxycycline/amoxicillin)

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15
Q

pleural fluid protein >30

A

exudative

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16
Q

COPD prophylaxis

A

azithromycin

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17
Q

Diagnosis of mesothelioma

A

thoracoscopy and histology

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18
Q

high risk pneumothorax treatment

A

straight to chest drain

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19
Q

What is meigs syndrome

A

fibroma
ascites
pleural effusion

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20
Q

What is the triangle of safety

A

base of the axilla, lateral edge pectoralis major, 5th intercostal space and the anterior border of latissimus dorsi

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21
Q

When do you have to do abg

A

oxygen sats <92%

22
Q

what is lupus pernio associated with

A

sarcoidosis

23
Q

what is sued to prevent recurrence of pneumothorax

A

Video assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) pleurodesis
61%

24
Q

Over rapid aspiration/drainage of pneumothorax can result in

A

pulmonary oedema

25
what must be done before starting TNF-inhibitors?
chest x ray to look for TB
26
indication for thrombolysis in PE
massive PE + hypotension
27
most common cause of IE with strep viridians
poor dental hygience
28
why do you get hypercalcaemia in sarcoidosis
increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form
29
treatment of Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
pred and itraconazole
30
what does A1TP do
protect against neutrophil elastase which causes breakdown of alveoli
31
lights criteria for exudative
pleural fluid protein divided by serum protein >0.5 pleural fluid LDH divided by serum LDH >0.6
32
CAP treatment
amoxicillin TDS 500mg
33
Adult acute asthma management
1. Oxygen 2. Oxygen driven nebulised salbutamol 5mg 3. Steroids: pred 40mg or IV hydrocortisone 20mg 4. Neb ipratropium bromide
34
What immediate investigations would you do in an asthma attack
Current Peak Flow: Expected - *>75% mild, 50-75% moderate, <33% life threatening SpO2 - hypoxia ABG - hypoxia, normo/hyper capnia & uncomplicated acidosis CXR - ?infection
35
Important investigations following pleural tap
1. LDH and Protein in Pleural Fluid/Serum → determine whether effusion is exudate or transudate 2. Effusion Cytology → to investigate possible concerns of malignancy 3. Glucose or pH of Effusion → investigate possible malignancy (both should be low)
36
What is seen on chest x-ray with pleural effusion
Blunting of costophrenic angles Opaque consolidation in right hemithorax & concave meniscus sign
37
In considering the patient for a chest drain insertion, you wish to avoid the costal blood vessels. Where are these located and how can they be avoided?
Location → costal grooves on the inferior surface of the ribs How to Avoid → insert the chest drain directly above the rib (4-6th on mid-axillary line) aiming inferiorly
38
what will CTPA show with PE
occlusion of pulmonary vasculature +/- distally threadlike vessels
39
cause of pneumonia in bird owners
Chlamydia psittaci
40
what eye condition does ethambutol cause
optic neuritis
41
criteria for discharge following asthma attack
been stable on their discharge medication (i.e. no nebulisers or oxygen) for 12-24 hours inhaler technique checked and recorded PEF >75% of best or predicted
42
A 33-year-old man who is known to be HIV positive presents with cough and dyspnoea. Auscultation of his chest is unremarkable but he is noted to desaturate on exertion.
pneumocytosis jiroveci
43
which TB drug causes INR to go up vs down
down: rifampicin (inducers) Up: isoniazid (inhibitors)
44
which pneumonia organism cause positive cold agglutination test → peripheral blood smear may show red blood cell agglutination
mycoplasma
45
common complication of PJP
pneumothorax
46
LTOT requirements
Offer LTOT to patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa or to those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following: secondary polycythaemia peripheral oedema pulmonary hypertension
47
A small (1-2cm) calcified nodule is visible in the lateral area of the right mid zone
ghon focus - latent TB
48
malignancy associated with asbestos
bronchogenic carcinoma.
49
which side is aspiration pneumonia more common in
right
50
how many lobes does right lung have
3