para cargar 200 a 300 Flashcards by TOM GM

Materials that are exposed to thermal neutron beams:

(A) must not be handled for at least 3 minutes after exposure has ceased.
(B) must be stored in a lead-lined room.
(C) may be radioactive after exposure to neutrons has ceased.
(D) should be monitored by means of a neutron counter.
(E) present no particular problems since they cannot be radioactive.

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Lead is:

(A) a good neutron shield.
(B) corroded by neutron exposures.
(C) a relatively poor neutron absorber.
(D) an efficient conversion screen.

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If 2 mm (0.08 in.) of plastic attenuates a thermal neutron beam by a factor of 2 then 2 cm (0.8 in.) will attenuate it by approximately a factor of:

(A) 10.
(B) 20.
(C) 100.
(D) 200.
(E) 1 000.

(E) 1 000.

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Materials in common usage for moderation of fast-neutron sources include:

(A) aluminum magnesium and tin.
(B) water plastic paraffin and graphite.
(C) neon argon and xenon.
(D) tungsten cesium antimony and columbium.

(B) water plastic paraffin and graphite.

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The main reason for using neutron radiography in place of X-radiography is:

(A) a lower cost.
(B) higher resolution.
(C) the ability to image objects and materials not possible with X-rays.
(D) a simpler radiographic procedure required than X-radiography.

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A photographic record produced by the passage of neutrons through a specimen onto a film is called:

(A) a fluoroscopic image.
(B) a radiograph.
(C) an isotopic reproduction.
(D) a track-etch photograph.

(B) a radiograph.

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Many of the absorption differences between neutrons and X-rays indicate that the two techniques:

(A) cause radiation problems.
(B) complement each other.
(C) can be used interchangeably.
(D) can both be used to image hydrogenous materials equally well.(E) are in no manner related.

(B) complement each other.

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The penetrating ability of a thermal neutron beam is governed by:

(A) attenuating characteristics of the material being penetrated.
(B) exposure time.
(C) source-to-film distance.
(D) all of the above.

(A) attenuating characteristics of the material being penetrated.

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The transfer exposure method is used because:

(A) it is not influenced by gamma radiation in the primary beam.
(B) it produces greater radiographic sensitivity than the direct exposure using gadolinium.
(C) it is faster than the direct exposure method.
(D) the screens used in this method emit only internal conversion electrons of about 70 keV.

(A) it is not influenced by gamma radiation in the primary beam.

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Higher resolution can be achieved in direct neutron radiography by:

(A) placing a lead intensifying screen between a gadolinium screen and film.
(B) increasing the L/D ratio of the collimation system.
(C) increasing the exposure time.
(D) increasing the distance between the object and the film cassette.

(B) increasing the L/D ratio of the collimation system.

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The primary advantage of using a Cf-252 source for neutron radiography is its:

(A) portability.
(B) low cost per unit neutron flux compared to other neutron radiographic sources.
(C) high resolution.
(D) long useful life.

(A) portability.

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Quality of the results from a neutron radiographic exposure is best determined by:

(A) reference standards.
(B) image quality indicators.
(C) neutron flux measurement.
(D) densitometer readings.

(B) image quality indicators.

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The radiographic image of flaws in the imaging screens can be separated from actual flaws in a part being radiographed by:

(A) producing a photographic copy of the original neutron radiograph using X-ray duplicating film.
(B) comparing a neutron radiograph of the parts to a blank neutron radiograph of the same imaging screen with no parts in place.
(C) increasing the exposure time of the radiograph.
(D) decreasing the temperature of the developer solution.

(B) comparing a neutron radiograph of the parts to a blank neutron radiograph of the same imaging screen with no parts in place.

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For inspection of radioactive objects or those that emit gamma radiation when bombarded with neutrons a preferable detection technique is the:

(A) direct exposure technique.
(B) transfer technique.
(C) isotopic reproduction technique.
(D) electrostatic-belt generator technique.
(E) lead screen technique.

(B) transfer technique.

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Neutron radiography is an excellent tool for determining:

(A) the coating thickness of aluminum oxide on anodized aluminum.
(B) the size of voids in thick steel castings.
(C) the integrity of thin plastic material within a steel housing.
(D) none of the above.

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Neutron radiography extends radiographic capability for detecting cracks in small cylinders of:

(A) aluminum.
(B) iron.
(C) magnesium.
(D) plutonium.
(E) bronze.

(D) plutonium.

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Which of the following is not a preferred application of neutron radiography?

(A) Detecting the presence or absence of explosive material contained within a metal device.
(B) Detecting the presence of water in the cells of stainless steel honeycomb.
(C) Detecting the proper alignment of a rubber seal in a small steel valve assembly.
(D) Detecting the presence of a lead rupture diaphragm in a small aluminum safety valve assembly.

(D) Detecting the presence of a lead rupture diaphragm in a small aluminum safety valve assembly.

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The penetrating ability of an X-ray beam is governed by:

(A) kilovoltage or wavelength.
(B) time.
(C) milliamperage.
(D) source-to-film distance.

(A) kilovoltage or wavelength.

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Two X-ray machines operating at the same nominal kilovoltage and milliamperage settings:

(A) will produce the same intensities and energies of radiation.
(B) will produce the same intensities but may produce different energies of radiation.
(C) will produce the same energies but may produce different intensities of radiation.
(D) may give not only different intensities but also different energies of radiation.

(D) may give not only different intensities but also different energies of radiation.

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Which of the following X-ray generators would produce the narrowest cone of X-radiation?

(A) 10 MeV.
(B) 15MeV.
(C) 25 MeV.
(D) 1 MeV.
(E) Co-60.

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Short wavelength electromagnetic radiation produced during the disintegration of nuclei of radioactive substances is called:

(A) X-radiation.
(B) gamma radiation.
(C) scatter radiation.
(D) backscatter radiation.
(E) beta radiation.

(B) gamma radiation.

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Almost all gamma radiography is performed with:

(A) natural isotopes.
(B) artificially produced isotopes.
(C) Radium.
(D) Tm-170.
(E) Co-60.

(B) artificially produced isotopes.

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The energy of gamma rays is expressed by which of the following units of measurement?

(A) Curie.
(B) Roentgen.
(C) half-life.
(D) Kiloelectron volts (keV) or Millions of electron volts (MeV).
(E) None of the above.

(D) K iloelectron volts (keV) or Millions of electron volts (MeV).

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Of the following the source providing the most penetrating radiation is:

(A) electrons from IR-192.
(B) Co-60.
(C) 220 kVp X-ray tube.
(D) 15 MeV betatron.

(D) 15 MeV betatron.

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225. Common sources of neutrons for neutron radiography are: (A) electron linear accelerators. (B) isotopes of Cobalt (Co-60 is one). (C) nuclear reactors. (D) betatrons. (E) radioactive isotopes of iodine.

226. The difference between the densities of two areas of a radiograph is called: (A) radiographic contrast. (B) subject contrast. (C) film contrast. (D) definition. (E) opacity.

(A) radiographic contrast.

227. The fact that gases when bombarded by radiation ionize and become electrical conductors makes them useful in: (A) X-ray transformers. (B) X-ray tubes. (C) masks. (D) radiation detection equipment. (E) fluoroscopes.

(D) radiation detection equipment.

228. The reason exposure time must be increased by a factor of four when the source-to-film distance is doubled is that the: (A) intensity of radiation decreases at an exponential rate when the source-to-film distance is increased. (B) energy of radiation is inversely proportional to the square root of the distance from the source to the film. (C) intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source to the film. (D) scattered radiation effect is greater as the source-to-film distance increases.

229. The most important factor in X-ray absorption of a specimen is: (A) the thickness of the specimen. (B) the density of the specimen. (C) the atomic number of the material. (D) Young's Modulus of the material. (E) the volume of the material.

230. Which of the following is the probable early effect of a 25 REM radiation dose to the whole body? (A) No physical effect. (B) Blood changes no serious injury. (C) injury possible disability. (D) Fatal to 50 percent of those receiving that dose.

(B) Blood changes no serious injury.

231. Exposure to small doses of X-rays or gamma rays: (A) have a cumulative effect that must be considered when monitoring for maximum permissible dose. (B) are beneficial because they serve to build an immunity in humans to radiation poisoning. (C) will have no effect on human beings. (D) will have only a short-term effect on human tissues.

(A) have a cumulative effect that must be considered when monitoring for maximum permissible dose.

232. Which of the following technique variables is most commonly used to adjust subject contrast? (A) Source-to-film distance. (B) Milliamperage. (C) Kilovoltage. (D) Focal spot size. (E) All of the above.

233. A basic difference between a radiograph and a fluoroscopic image is that: (A) the fluoroscopic image is more sensitive. (B) the fluoroscopic image is positive whereas the radiographic image is negative. (C) the fluoroscopic image is brighter. (D) there is no basic difference between the two.

(B) the fluoroscopic image is positive whereas the radiographic image is negative.

234. Thin sheets of lead foil in intimate contact with X-ray film during exposure increase film density because they: (A) fluoresce and emit visible light which helps expose the film. (B) absorb the scattered radiation. (C) prevent backscattered radiation from fogging the film. (D) emit electrons when exposure to X and gamma radiation which helps to darken the film. (E) absorb low energy components from the primary beam.

(D) emit electrons when exposure to X and gamma radiation which helps to darken the film.

235. When viewing a radiograph an image of the back of the cassette superimposed on the image of the specimen is noted. This is most likely due to: (A) undercut. (B) overexposure. (C) X-ray intensity being too high. (D) backscattered radiation.

(D) backscattered radiation.

236. A penetrameter is used to measure the: (A) size of discontinuities in a part. (B) density of the film. (C) amount of film contrast. (D) quality of the radiographic technique. (E) amount of radiation that penetrates the test object.

(D) qual ity of the radiographic techniq ue.

237. In film radiography penetrameters are usually placed: (A) between the intensifying screen and the film. (B) on the source side of the test object. (C) on the film side of the test object. (D) between the operator and the radiation source. (E) on the back side of the film.

(B) on the source side of the test object.

238. At voltages above 400 kV the use of lead to provide protection may present serious structural problems. If this should be a serious problem which of the following materials would most likely be used as a substitute? (A) Aluminum. (B) Concrete. (C) Steel. (D) Boron. (E) Polyethylene.

(B) Concrete.

239. A distinctive characteristic of high voltage radiography is that: (A) it results in comparatively high subject contrast. (B) it results in comparatively high radiographic contrast. (C) it is appiicabie to comparatively thick or highly absorbing specimens. (D) all of the above are distinctive characteristics of high voltage radiography.

240. Given the radiographic equivalency factors of 1.4 for Inconel and 1.0 for 304 stainless steel what is the approximate equivalent thickness of inconel to produce the same exposure as a 0.15 in. thickness of 304 stainless steel? (A) 3 mm (0.11 in.) (B) 9 mm (0.35 in.) (C) 18mm (0.7 in.) (D) 36 mm (1.4 in.)

(A) 3 mm (0.11 in.)

241. Upon completing an X-ray exposure and turning the equipment off personnel: (A) should wait for a few minutes before entering the exposure area. (B) should wear a lead-lined apron before entering the exposure area. (C) may enter the exposure area without fear of radiation exposure. (D) should take a reading with a Geiger counter before entering the exposure area.

242. The fact that each solid crystalline substance produces its own characteristic X-ray pattern is the basis for: (A) xeroradiography. (B) fluoroscopic testing. (C) polymorphic testing. (D) X-ray diffraction testing. (E) neutron radiography.

(D) X-ray d iffraction testing.

243. When inspecting a light metal casting by fluoroscopy which of the following discontinuities would most likely be detected? (A) Copper shrinkage. (B) Microshiinkagc. (C) Shrinkage. (D) Fine cracks.

244. For testing a 25 mm (1 in.) steel plate 31 cm (12 in.) square for laminar discontinuities which of the following would be most effective? (A) Ir-192 3.7TBq(100Ci). (B) Co-60 925 GBq (25 Ci). (C) 250 kVp X-ray machine. (D) An ultrasonic device.

(D) An ultrasonic device.

245. A critical weld was made with a double V-groove. Among those listed which radiographic technique would provide coverage with the greatest probability for detecting the most serious discontinuities? (A) A single exposure centered on the weld and perpendicular to the principal surface of the plate. (B) Two exposures aligned with the V-groove focus ±30° off perpendicular. (C) Two exposures perpendicular to the plate offset by the width of the weld bead. (D) A single exposure as in a above but with two films aligned ±30° off perpendicular.(E) Both a and d would produce the best coverage.

(B) Two exposures aligned with the V-groove focus ±30° off perpendicular.

246. A fuse assembly is being radiographed so that measurements can be made on the film to determine a minimum internal clearance dimension. What should be factored into the dimension taken from the film? (A) Projection magnification. (B) Unsharpness factors. (C) Precision of X-ray beam alignment. (D) Both a and c. (E) All of the above.

(E) All of the above.

247. Miniature electronic components are to be radiographically inspected to reveal broken copper wire leads of 0.2 mm (0.008 in.) diameter. Which of the following image quality indicators (IQI) would be most effective to use in establishing a reliable technique? (A) A series of steel plaque-type penetrameters ranging in thickness from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.) containing IT 2T and 4T holes. (B) A plastic block with the radiographic thickness equivalent of the test objects containing precision-drilled holes ranging from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.)diameter. (C) A plastic block with the radiographic thickness equivalent of the test objects containing copper wires ranging from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.)diameter. (D) A series of copper shims ranging in thickness from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.)to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.) containing 1/2T and IT holes.

(C) A plastic block with the radiographic thickness equivalent of the test objects containing copper wires ranging from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.)diameter.

248. Ultrasonic waves propagate through test materials in the form of: (A) electromagnetic waves. (B) low voltage electric fields. (C) discontinuous radio waves. (D) radiation. (E) mechanical vibrations.

(E) mechanical vibrations.

249. When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface of two dissimilar materials at an angle a new angle of sound travel takes place in the second material due to: (A) attenuation. (B) rarefaction. (C) compression. (D) refraction.

(D) refraction.

250. The gradual loss of energy as ultrasonic vibrations travel through material is referred to as: (A) reflection. (B) refraction. (C) reproducibility. (D) atténuation. (E) compression.

(D) attenuation.

251. Ultrasonic velocities are different for different materials. These differences are primarily caused by differences in the materials': (A) frequency and wavelength. (B) thickness and travel time. (C) elasticity and density. (D) chemistry and permeability.

252. Ultrasonic energy for immersion testing is transmitted to the test object as a compressional wave because: (A) compressional waves travel faster and will therefore reduce the distance of the interface signal. (B) liquids will only sustain compressional waves. (C) compressional waves are used with immersion testing only. (D) the higher intensity of compressional waves is necessary to overcome high attenuation in liquids.

(B) liquids will only sustain compressional waves.

253. When inspecting coarse-grained materials which of the following frequencies will generate a sound wave that will be most easily scattered by the grain structure? (A) 1.0 MHz. (B) 2.25MHz. (C) 5 MHz. (D) 10 MHz.

(D) 10 MHz.

254. In general shear waves are more sensitive to small discontinuities than longitudinal waves for a given frequency and in a given material because: (A) the wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the wavelength of longitudinal waves. (B) shear waves are not as easily dispersed in the material. (C) the direction of particle vibration for shear waves is more sensitive to discontinuities. (D) the wavelength of shear waves is longer than the wavelength of longitudinal waves.

(A) the wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the wavelength of longitudinal waves.

255. The ability of transducers to detect echoes from small discontinuities is a definition for: (A) resolution. (B) sensitivity. (C) definition. (D) gain. (E) selectivity.

(B) sensitivity.

256. Which of the following will create a resonance condition in a specimen? (A) Pulsed longitudinal waves. (B) Continuous longitudinal waves. (C) Pulsed shear waves. (D) Continuous shear waves. (E) All of the above.

(B) Continuous longitudinal waves.

257. The display on most basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instruments consists of: (A) automatic read-out equipment. (B) an A-scan presentation. (C) a B-scan presentation. (D) a C-scan presentation.

(B) an A-scan presentation.

258. In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument the component that produces the voltage that activates the search unit is called: (A) an amplifier. (B) a receiver. (C) a pulser. (D) a synchronizer.

259. The primary purpose of reference blocks is to: (A) aid the operator in obtaining maximum back reflections. (B) obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an instrument. (C) obtain a common reproducible reference standard. (D) enable testing of nonmetals. (E) establish the size and orientation of a discontinuity.

260. The general use of distance-amplitude calibration is to compensate for: (A) amplitude of noise signals. (B) velocity changes. (C) transducer size. (D) attenuation distance and beam spread. (E) vertical nonlinearity in the ultrasonic instrument.

(D) attenuation distance and beam spread.

261. In area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks the flat-bottomed holes in the blocks are: (A) all the same diameter. (B) different in diameter increasing in 0.4 mm (0.02 in.) increments from the No. "1" block to the No. "8" block. (C) largest in the No. "1 " block and smallest in the No. "8" block. (D) drilled to different depths from the front surface of the test block.

(B) different in diameter increasing in 0.4 mm (0.02 in.) increments from the No. "1" block to the No. "8" block.

262. The amount of energy reflected from a discontinuity is dependent on: (A) the size of the discontinuity. (B) the orientation of the discontinuity. (C) the type of the discontinuity. (D) all of the above. (E) only a and b.

(D) all of the above.

263. The presence of a discontinuity will not produce a specific discontinuity indication on the CRT screen when which of the following techniques is being used? (A) Straight beam testing. (B) Surface wave testing. (C) Angle-beam testing. (D) Through-transmission testing. (E) Pulse-echo technique.

(D) Through-transmission testing.

264. Lack of parallelism between the entry surface and the back surface: (A) may result in a screen pattern that does not contain back reflection indications. (B) makes it difficult to locate discontinuities that lie parallel to the entry surface. (C) usually indicates a porous condition existing in the metal. (D) will decrease the penetrating power of the test.

(A) may result in a screen pattern that does not contain back reflection indications.

265. Significant errors in ultrasonic thickness measurement can occur if: (A) test velocity is varied. (B) the velocity of propagation deviates substantially from an assumed constant value for a given material. (C) water is used as a couplant between the transducer and the part being measured. (D) longitudinal waves are used.

B) the velocity of propagation deviates substantially from an assumed constant value for a given material.

266. In contact testing shear waves can be induced in the test material by: (A) placing an X-cut quartz crystal directly on the surface of the materials and coupling through a film of oil. (B) using two transducers on opposite sides of the test specimen. (C) placing a spherical acoustic lens on the face of the transducer. (D) using an "angle-beam transducer" with the transducer mounted on a plastic wedge so that sound enters the part at an angle.

(D) using an "angle-beam transducer" with the transducer mounted on a plastic wedge so that sound enters the part at an angle.

267. The most commonly used method of producing shear waves in a test part when inspecting by the immersion method is by: (A) transmitting longitudinal waves into a part in a direction perpendicular to its front surface. (B) using two crystals vibrating at different frequencies. (C) using a low frequency transducer. (D) angulating the search tube to the proper angle with respect to the entry surface of the test part.

(D) angulating the search tube to the proper angle with respect to the entry surface of the test part.

268. In immersion testing proof that the search unit is normal to a flat entry surface is indicated by: (A) maximum reflection amplitude from the entry surface. (B) elimination of water multiples. (C) maximum reflection amplitude from the back surface. (D) maximum amplitude of the initial pulse. (E) maximum amplitude from a discontinuity indication.

(A) maximum reflection amplitude from the entry surface.

269. In immersion testing the water distance between the search unit and the test piece: (A) should be as small as possible. (B) will have no effect on the test. (C) should be the same as the water distance used during calibration. (D) should be as great as possible.

270. Generally the best ultrasonic testing technique for detecting discontinuities oriented along the fusion zone in a welded plate is: (A) an angle-beam contact method employing surface waves. (B) a contact test using a straight longitudinal wave. (C) an immersion test using surface waves. (D) a resonance technique. (E) an angle-beam method using shear waves.

(E) an angle-beam method using shear waves.

271. Thin sheet may be inspected for laminar discontinuities with the ultrasonic wave directed normal to the surface by observing: (A) the amplitude of the front surface reflection. (B) the multiple reflection pattern. (C) the amplitude of the initial pulse. (D) signals that "walk" or move along the time base as the transducer is scanned over the sheet.

(B) the multiple reflection pattern.

272. Ultrasonic inspection of castings is occasionally impractical because of: (A) extremely small grain structure typical in castings. (B) coarse grain structure. (C) uniform flow lines. (D) random orientation of discontinuities.

(B) coarse grain structure.

273. Angle-beam testing of plate will often miss: (A) cracks that are perpendicular to the sound wave. (B) inclusions that are randomly oriented. (C) laminations that are parallel to the front surface. (D) a series of small discontinuities.

274. Reflection indications from a weld area being inspected by the angle-beam technique may represent: (A) porosity. (B) cracks. (C) weld bead. (D) all of the above. (E) only a and b.

(D) all of the above.

275. An ultrasonic test using a straight beam contact search unit is being conducted through the thickness of a flat part such as plate. This test should detect: (A) laminar type flaws with major " dimensions parallel to the plane of the rolled surface. (B) transverse type flaws with major dimensions at right angles to the plane of the rolled surface. (C) radial flaws with major dimensions along the length but radially oriented to the rolled surface. (D) none of the above.

(A) laminar type flaws with major " dimensions parallel to the plane of the rolled surface.

276. The resonance technique of thickness measurement has been mostly replaced by: (A) through-transmission longitudinal wave techniques. (B) single sideband antiresonance techniques. (C) acoustic emission monitoring. (D) pitch and catch shear wave techniques. (E) linear time base pulse-echo techniques.

(E) l inear time base pulse-echo techniques.

277. Ultrasonic testing techniques are useful in testing laminate and sandwich construction test objects for: (A) paint thickness. (B) bond integrity. (C) leakage. (D) surface roughness. (E) electrical conductivity.

(B) bond integrity.

278. Ultrasonic techniques are frequently used in on-line automatic process control applications to measure and control: (A) moisture content in food. (B) surface roughness of turbine blade castings. (C) chemical activity in chemical etching processes. (D) the density of forgings. (E) the thickness of cold rolled strip sheets and plates.

(E) the thickness of cold rolled strip sheets and plates.

279. Which of the following statements about field inspection applications of ultrasonic testing is true? (A) Because the equipment is large and bulky field inspections are difficult at best. (B) Aircraft and field maintenance inspections usually require three persons one to manipulate the transducer one to monitor the instrument and one to record results. (C) Digital displays must be used for outdoor inspection because of the limited brightness of CRT displays. (D) Field inspections are limited to discontinuity detection by contact techniques only. (E) None of the above statements is true.

(E) None of the above statements is true.

280. What is considered the typical spectral range of visible light for most humans? (A) 300-800 nm. (B) 380-770 nm. (C) 400-800 nm. (D) 250-920 nm.

(B) 380-770 nm.

281. What element of the eye functions the same as the photographic plane of a camera? (A) The optic nerve. (B) The iris. (C) The cornea. (D) The retina.

(D) The retina.

282. A surface has diffuse reflection when: (A) a fuzzy reflection of the light source is seen. (B) a perfect reflection of the light source can be seen. (C) no reflection of the light source is seen. (D) none of the above.

(A) a fuzzy reflection of the light source is seen.

283. The resolution of the human eye at a distance of about 31 cm (12 in.) is nearest: (A) 0.03 mm (0.001 in.) (B) 0.08 mm (0.003 in.) (C) 0.3 mm (0.010 in.) (D) 1.3 mm (0.050 in.)

(B) 0.08 mm (0.003 in.)

284. For routine visual inspection the eye should be located at a distance: (A) between 15 cm and 152 cm (6 and 60 in.) (B) less than 25 cm (10 in.) (C) between 31 and 60 cm (12 and 24 in.) (D) more than 60 cm (24 in.)

285. The angle the eye makes with respect to the normal to the inspection surface should not: (A) exceed 70 degrees. (B) exceed 45 degrees. (C) exceed 5 degrees. (D) be considered.

(A) exceed 70 degrees.

286. The minimum lighting condition recommended for detecting cracks in welds is: (A) 100 Ix. (B) 200 Ix. (C) 500 Ix. (D) 2 000 Ix.

287. What is the name of the condition of eye adaptation to a dark environment? (A) Photopic visión. (B) Stereotopic vision. (C) Scotopic vision. (D) Heliotopic visión.

288. The spectral range of visible response in humans is: (A) static. (B) dependent on lighting conditions. (C) greatest at wavelengths less than 400 nm. (D) greatest at wavelengths more than 750 nm.

(B) dependent on lighting conditions.

289. The IES is the: (A) international Eye Society. (B) Institute of Engineering Sciences. (C) Illumination and Eyesight Society. (D) Illuminating Engineering Society.

(B) Institute of Engineering Sciences.

290. The eye is functionally blind when it is: (A) in the mesopic vision state. (B) moving between observation points. (C) filled with tears. (D) none of the above.

(B) moving between observation points.

291. When looking for surface conditions the illumination angle should be: (A) between 5 and 45° measured from the normal. (B) between 20 and 60° measured from the normal. (C) between 20 and 45° measured from the part surface. (D) between 5 and 45° measured from the part surface.

(D) between 5 and 45° measured from the part surface.

292. Fluorescence is defined as: (A) glowing in the dark. (B) absorbing and emitting light at different wavelengths. (C) absorbing and emitting light at the same wavelength. (D) emitting light as a result of nuclear bombardment.

(B) absorbing and emitting light at different wavelengths.

293. Effective visual inspection relies on which of the following factors? (A) An awareness of the possible causes of defects. (B) An awareness of how the part has been used. (C) Precleaning and environmental factors such as temperature and noise. (D) All of the above.

(D) All of the above.

294. Pillowing found when inspecting aircraft skins is usually attributed to: (A) misalignment of fasteners used to attach the skins to the airframe. (B) expansion of corrosion products under the skins. (C) stretching of the skins beyond their yield points over time. (D) twisting of the airframe during tight turns and similar maneuvers.

(B) expansion of corrosion products under the skins.

295. When inspecting extrusions for excessive draw marks under a pair of long fluorescent tubes: (A) it is best to align the probable direction of the draw marks parallel to the tubes. (B) it is best to align the probable direction of the draw marks perpendicular to the tubes. (C) the orientation of the draw marks is unaffected by the diffuse lighting from such tubes. (D) it is unlikely that such conditions can be found using fluorescent tubes for illumination.

(A) it is best to align the probable direction of the draw marks parallel to the tubes.

296. In-situ detection of creep degradation in high-temperature high pressure piping materials is found using: (A) remote infrared scanning techniques. (B) a borescope while scanning from inside the pipe. (C) fluorescent penetrant leakage. (D) magnified surface contour replications.

(D) magnified surface contour replications.

297. The heat-affected zone (HAZ) of carbon steel welds is made visible through the use of: (A) etchants to enhance the visibility of the microstructure. (B) high frequency ultrasonic microscopic means. (C) color contrast penetrating liquids. (D) arrays of temperature-sensitive markings.

(A) etchants to enhance the visibility of the microstructure.

298. Inspection schemes that rely on optical interference patterns include: (A) holography photography and optical microscopy. (B) shearography telescopy and image diffraction. (C) Schlieren photography moire imagery and optical microscopy. (D) moire imagery holography and interferometry.

(D) moire imagery holography and interferometry.

299. Fracture is a type of material failure. Of the following which is another type of material failure? (A) Fracture mechanics. (B) Low frequency dynamic loading. (C) Permanent deformation. (D) Elongation within the elastic range. (E) None of the above.

300. Which of the following statements best differentiates between a defect and a discontinuity? (A) Discontinuities can propagate and become defects. (B) All discontinuities are defects. (C) AII defects will lead to failure if undetected discontinuities can be harmless. (D) Discontinuities are external natural boundaries only defects are internal flaws originating from errors in processing.

(A) Discontinuities can propagate and become defects.

301. Nondestructive testing (NDT) is often differentiated from other measurements or inspection techniques in that: (A) NDT involves indirect tests related to some other quality or characteristic of the material. (B) NDT is a measurement of dimensions geometry and appearance. (C) NDT uses electronic instruments to identify evaluate and locate discontinuities. (D) NDT is an inspection tool used to confirm the findings of the many other quality assurance techniques.

(A) NDT involves indirect tests related to some other quality or characteristic of the material.

302. Which of the following describes a function of NDT? (A) Identification and sorting of material. (B) Identification of material properties. (C) Assuring absence of faults or defects that could cause a part to fail. (D) All of the above.

(D) All of the above.

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