6. The following is a statement in SNT-TC-1A, "It is recognized that these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain employers' circumstances and/or applications." What should be done if the guidelines are not appropriate? (A) The employer must change its operations to conform to the guidelines. (B) The employer must seek relief from ASNT for inappropriate applications. (C) The employer should review the detailed recommendations and modify them, as necessary, to meet its particular needs. (D) The employer shall submit an inquiry in writing directed to the SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel.

(C) The employer should review the detailed recommendations and modify them as necessary to meet its particular needs."

01 -100 Flashcards by TOM GM

Which of the following statements is true concerning the usage of SNT-TC-1A?

(A) SNT-TC-1A is intended for use by a limited set of industrial segments.
(B) SNT-TC-1A was generated to satisfy the specification requirements of ASME.
(C) SNT-TC-1A was last revised in 1988.
(D) SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict specification.

(D) SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict specification.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel will respond to inquiries about SNT-TC-1A. The inquiry must b

(A) written and stated in general terms.
(B) written including specific details of the case, e.g., names, places, dates, and other pertinent facts.
(C) considered by the ASNT Board of Directors if it involves decisions that would pl.ace ASNT in a position between buyer and seller.
(D) ruied upon by the Technicai Council of ASNT before the SNT-TC-1A Inteipretation Panel prepares a response.

(A) written and stated in general terms.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statements is true?

(A) ASNT has been providing certification examinations for Level in personnel since the late 1960s.
(B) SNT-TC-1A was first published in the late 1960s.
(C) SNT-TC-1A requires that Level in personnel be qualified and certified by ASNT.
(D) SNT-TC-1A was developed to satisfy requirements for NDT personnei qualification and certification set forth in parts of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code.
(E) Al l of the above are true.

(B) SNT-TC-lA was first published in the late 1960s.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

With regard to the training of NDT personnel, the employer:

(A) must conduct all of the training on the premises.
(B) may engage an outside service who must conduct the training on the employer’s premises.
(C) should not conduct the training, being too close to company’s problems.
(D) may engage an outside service but is nevertheless responsible for the certification of the company’s NDT personnel.

(D) may engage an outside service but is nevertheless responsible for the certification of the company’s NDT personnel.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

SNT-TC-1A is intended as a guideline for employers:

(A) to establish their own written practice that must be used as a strict specification.
(B) to establish their own written practice for the qualification and certification of their NDT personnel.
(C) to define training course requirements for contractors performing outside training services.
(D) who are corporate members of ASNT.
(E) to impose upon their suppliers as a mandatory requirement.

(B) to establish their own written practice for the qualification and certification of their NDT personnel.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following is a statement in SNT-TC-1A, “It is recognized that these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain employers’ circumstances and/or applications.” What should be done if the guidelines are not appropriate?
(A) The employer must change its operations to conform to the guidelines.
(B) The employer must seek relief from ASNT for inappropriate applications.
(C) The employer should review the detailed recommendations and modify them, as necessary, to meet its particular needs.
(D) The employer shall submit an inquiry in writing directed to the SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) Certification is written testimony of qualification.
(B) Qualification is the skill, training, and experience required for personnel to properly perform the duties of a specific job.
(C) The employer is the corporate or private entity that employs personnel for wages or salary.
(D) A certifying agency is any organization used by an employer in training NDT personnel.
(E) Training is a program developed to impart the knowledge and skills necessary for qualification.

(D) A certifying agency is any organization used by an employer in training NDT personnel.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who should be responsible to assess whether or not an individual should be qualified and certified who does not perform NDT but monitors and evaluates NDT?
(A) ASNT.
(B) The individual’s employer.
(C) A government regulatory agency.
(D) The customer’s auditor.
(E) None of the above.

(B) The individual’s employer.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

To which of the following NDT methods is SNT-TC-1A currently not applicable?

(A) Visual and optical testing.
(B) Infrared/Thermal testing.
(C) Acoustic emission testing.
(D) Electromagnetic testing.
(E) Holographic testing.

(E) Holographic testing.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

ASNT intended that the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A be applied:

(A) with flexibility and reason.
(B) precisely as written.
(C) as minimum requirements.
(D) as maximum requirements.
(E) only when work is being done in accordance with a code or specification.

(A) with flexibility and reason.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Of the following, which is most appropriate to determine the needs to qualify and certify personnel whose only NDT function is to operate digital thickness equipment?

(A) ASNT.
(B) ASME.
(C) The employer.
(D) The customer.
(E) None of the above.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Certification is:

(A) the skill, training, and experience required for personnel to properly perform the duties of a specific job.
(B) written testimony of qualification.
(C) intended to be conferred by an organization independent from the employer.
(D) intended to be conferred by an organization hired by the employer.
(E) intended to be conferred by ASNT NDT Level III personnel only.

(B) written testimony of qualification.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Use of SNT-TC-1A is mandatory when:

(A) the material being tested is for a U.S. Air Force contract.
(B) the material being tested is for a U.S. Navy contract.
(C) it has been specified by the customer.
(D) the material being tested is for a U.S. Army contract which requires certification of NDT personnel.
(E) any of the above cases occurs.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The basic levels of qualification recommended by SNT-TC-1A are:

(A) Trainee, Apprentice, Level I, Level II, Level III
(B) Trainee, Level I, Level II, Level III
(C) none of the above
(D) Level I, Level II, Level III

(D) Level I Level II Level III”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital thickness measurement equipment be qualified and certified?

(A) Yes, because SNT-TC-1A requires that all personnel performing NDT be qualified and certified.
(B) No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that specific operation.
(C) Only if required by industry codes, standards, and specifications.
(D) Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer’s customers or clientele.

(D) Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer’s customers or clienteie.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is true concerning a Trainee’s activities?

(A) The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive tests independently, and may not report test results.
(B) The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive tests independently, but may interpret test results if acting under written instructions.
(C) The Trainee should work along with a certified individual, and may be considered a Level I, provided that the certified individual co-signs any test reports.
(D) The Trainee should work along with a certified individual and may perform any activities as directed by the certified individual.
(E) Trainees are not covered in SNT-TC-1A.

(A) The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive tests independently and may not report test results.”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is not true for a Level III?

(A) Shall be capable of assisting in establishment of acceptance criteria.
(B) Must train and examine the Level I and Level II personnel in his/her organization.
(C) Should be familiar with other commonly used NDT methods.
(D) Shall be capable of establishing techniques and selection of test methods.

(B) Must train and examine the Level I and Level II personnel in his/her organization.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to written instructions, an NDT Level I may be qualified to perform:

(A) specific calibrations.
(B) specific nondestructive tests.
(C) specific evaluations.
(D) all of the above, and write reports of test results.
(E) only a, b, and c.

(D) all of the above and write reports of test results.”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

May a Level I independently perform, evaluate, and sign for results of nondestructive tests with supervision and guidance from a Level II or ID?

(A) Yes, the intent in SNT-TC-1A is that the Level I may perform the above functions provided that they are in accordance with written instruction of a Level III or designee.
(B) No, the Level I may perform the above functions in accordance with written procedures, but must be under constant supervision and guidance of a Level II or Level III.
(C) No, the Level I may not sign for test results.
(D) No, the Level I is not allowed to take any independent action.
(E) Yes, provided that the Level I receives detailed verbal instructions from the Level II or III and demonstrates his capability to follow the instructions.

(A) Yes the intent in SNT-TC-lA is that the Level I may perfonn the above functions provided that they are in accordance with written instruction of a Level III or designee.”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statements is true concerning the definitions of Level I, II, and III in
SNT-TC-1A?

(A) The qualifications for Level III equal and exceed those of Level II.
(B) SNT-TC-1A was intended for use by employers to determine the proficiency of individuals at each Level.
(C) Except for a provision for a Trainee, Levels I, II, and III may not be further subdivided. Level Ill’s may not perform Level II functions unless they pass Level II examinations.
(D) Both a and c are true.

(A) The qualifications for Level III equal and exceed those of Level II.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is not within the scope of activities of a Level II individual, as recommended in SNT-TC-1A?

(A) Calibrate equipment.
(B) Prepare written instructions.
(C) Establish techniques.
(D) Provide training.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, a Level II:

(A) may conduct on-the-job training and guidance of Level I personnel, with the Level I training and guiding Trainees.
(B) is responsible for the training and examination of Level I personnel for certification.
(C) must be capable of and responsible for establishing techniques.
(D) all of the above are true.
(E) none of the above are true.

(E) none of the above are true.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is true for a Level III?

(A) A Level III must have successfully completed at least two years of science or engineering study at a college or university.
(B) It is desirable that a Level III be a registered professional engineer.
(C) The Level III is responsible for establishing all acceptance criteria.
(D) The Level III shall be capable of evaluating test results in terms of codes, standards, and specifications.
(E) All of the above are true.

(D) The Level III shall be capable of evaluating test results in terms of codes standards and specifications.”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, who is responsible for establishing a written practice for the control and administration of NDT personnel training, examination, and certification?

(A) The NDT Level III.
(B) The employer.
(C) ASNT.
(D) An appropriate regulatory authority.

(B) The employer.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

25. The responsibility of each level of certification for determining the acceptability of materials or components: (A) need not be described in the employer's written practice since those responsibilities are defined specifically in SNT-TC-1A. (B) should be described in the employer's written practice only if they are different from SNT-TC-1A recommendations. (C) should be described in the employer's written practice under all circumstances. (D) should be described in the employer's written practice if dictated by customer requirements.

26. What factors are to be considered to ensure that a candidate for certification in NDT understands the principles and procedures involved? (A) Training, experience, and education (B) Training, experience, and prior certifications held (C) Education, experience, and percentage of time on the job doing NDT (D) Training, experience, and professional credentials (E) Training, experience, and familiarity with the employer's product and customer requirements

(A) Training experience and education"

27. As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is true? (A) Overtime cannot be considered in meeting the minimum experience. (B) Overtime can only be considered if the candidate is being qualified in more than one method simultaneously. (C) Overtime can be credited based on total hours. (D) SNT-TC-1A does not currently provide a recommendation regarding overtime.

(D) SNT-TC-lA does not currently provide a recommendation regarding overtime.

28. High school education is recommended as a minimum requirement for: (A) Level III only. (B) Level II and Level III only. (C) none of the levels. (D) all three levels.

29. In leak testing, recommended work time experience and training: (A) differs for each of four major techniques. (B) does not consider different techniques. (C) is listed for Levels II and III only. (D) is significantly greater than for ultrasonic testing.

(A) differs for each of four major techniques.

30. It is recommended that the education and experience of a Level III candidate include: (A) graduation from a 4-year university or college with a degree in engineering or science college or university plus 1 years' experience in NDT comparable to that of a Level II. (B) graduation from a 4-year college or university with a degree in NDT plus 3 months' experience in NDT comparable to that of a Level II. (C) 2 years' experience in NDT comparable to that of a Level II if a high school graduate. (D) 6 years' experience in NDT if the candidate did NDT graduate from high school. (E) both a and b.

(A) graduation from a 4-year university or coliege with a degree in engineering or science college or university plus 1 years' experience in NDT comparable to that of a Level II.

31. Records substantiating qualification are recommended to be kept on a: (A) daily or weekly basis. (B) monthly or hourly basis. (C) fractional yearly basis. (D) fractional hourly basis. (E) none of the above.

(B) monthly or hourly basis.

32. For a person being qualified directly to Level II with no time at Level I, the recommended experience consists of: (A) the time recommended for Level II. (B) the time recommended for Level III. (C) the sum of the times recommended for Level I and Level II. (D) not less than 6 months for any method. (E) the sum of the times recommended for a Trainee and Level I.

33. In some cases, the training times recommended for Level I are greater than for Level II. Why? (A) In preparing for qualification at Level I, the candidate should always receive more training than for Level II, regardless of the NDT method. (B) Some numbers in the table are erroneous. (C) Candidates for Level II generally have more formal education than those for Level I. (D) Some methods require more initial training at Level I because of differences in complexity and manipulative skills.

(D) Some methods require more initial training at Level I because of differences in complexity and manipulative ski lls.

34. The recommended number of training hours in a particular method are: (A) listed as a function of the candidate's education. (B) the same regardless of the candidate's education. (C) listed as a function of the candidate's experience. (D) reduced if the candidate is being qualified in more than one method simultaneously. (E) increased if the candidate is not working full-time in NDT.

(A) l isted as a function of the candidate's education.

35. It is recommended that a training program for qualification and certification purposes should include: (A) organized training in the principles and practices of the method. (B) training applicable to the practices to be used and the products to be tested. (C) examination to verify that the training material has been comprehended. (D) all of the above. (E) only a and c.

(D) all of the above.

36. Recommended training course outlines: (A) are included in SNT-TC-1A and must not be modified. (B) are not included in SNT-TC-1A. (C) are not available for visual and leak testing. (D) are included in SNT-TC-1A for the methods listed.

(D) are included in SNT-TC-lA for the methods listed.

37. For candidates with different educational backgrounds, recommended instruction periods are: (A) the same regardless of educational background. (B) the same regardless of educational background, but different for Level I and Level II. (C) different based on educational background. (D) different based on educational background, but the same for Level I and Level II.

38. Recommended training reference material: (A) is available only through ASNT. (B) is available from a variety of sources. (C) can only include those references listed. (D) must be made available to each trainee. (E) is completely contained in the Nondestructive Testing Handbook.

(B) is available from a variety of sources.

39. The recommended training course subject outline includes: (A) technical principles of the method. (B) procedures and equipment usage. (C) technical principles and interpretation of indications. (D) technical principles and equipment usage. (E) a combination of all of the above.

(E) a combination of all of the above.

40. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, the NDT Level ID shall be responsible for: (A) grading individual certification examinations. (B) training and examination of NDT Level I and Level II personnel. (C) all questions to be used on examinations for Level I and Level II. (D) all of the above.

(D) all of the above.

41. Which of the following may conduct and grade examinations for Level I and Level II personnel? (A) An NDT Level III. (B) A selected representative of the NDT Level in. (C) ASNT personnel because they offer examinations on a regular basis. (D) All of the above. (E) Both a and b.

(E) Both a and b.

42. Of the following personnel, who can administer the near-distance, visual acuity examination using the reading card with Jaeger letters? (A) An NDT Level III. (B) A selected representative of the NDT Level III. (C) A plant nurse, if so designated by the NDT Level III. (D) All of the above.

(D) All of the above.

43. As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, physical examination requirements are intended to be: (A) the same for all methods. (B) the same for all employers. (C) related to each employer's specific needs. (D) as specified in applicable sections of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code. (E) as stated in all of the above.

44. The general examination is intended to cover: (A) basic test principles unique to the employer's needs. (B) Only the material included in the training course outlines of SNT-TC-1A. (C) the equipment operational capabilities of the candidate. (D) the operating procedures that the candidate may encounter in his job. (E) all of the above.

(A) basic test principles unique to the employer's needs.

45. Questions and answers available from ASNT are intended for use in compiling: (A) the General Examination only. (B) the Specific, Practical, and General examinations. (C) the Basic and Method examinations. (D) the General and Basic examinations. (E) the General, Basic, and Method examinations.

(E) the Generai Basic and Method examinations."

46. Which of the following parts of Level I and Level II examinations should be written? (A) The General and Specific. (B) The General and Practical. (C) The General, Specific, and Practical. (D) Only the General.

(A) The General and Specific.

47. The practical examination is recommended to include operational familiarity with test equipment and analysis of test results for: (A) Levels I, II, and III (B) Levels I and II. (C) Levels II and III. (D) Trainees, Level I, and Level II. (E) Trainees, Levels I, II, and III.

(B) Levels I and II.

48. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the administration of written examinations? (A) The examinee should not be permitted access to any reference material. (B) Reference data may be supplied for the practical examination only. (C) Level III personnel should be required to memorize everything except codes, specifications, and procedures. (D) Codes, specifications, and procedures may be provided to examinees for reference during examinations provided that they do not contain data that can be used to answer questions in the general examination.

(D) Codes specifications and procedures may be provided to examinees for reference during examinations provided that they do not contain data that can be used to answer questions in the general examination."

49. For the written examinations, tables, graphs, and charts: (A) may be used during Level I examinations. (B) may be used during Level II examinations. (C) may be used during Level III examinations. (D) may be used during all of the above. (E) may not be used.

(D) any be used during all of the above.

50. For Level I and Level II Practical Examinations, one or more test specimens are recommended and the examinee should perform tests and evaluations using the appropriate equipment and test specimens. The minimum number of different checkpoints recommended is: (A) 5. (B) 10. (C) 15. (D) 20. (E) none of the above.

(B) 10.

51. In certification of Level Ill personnel according to the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A, the employer: (A) must give written examinations. (B) must give General and Specific examinations. (C) may delete the Specific Examination. (D) can waive written examinations if oral examinations are given in their place.

52. For Level I and Il examinations, the recommended minimum composite score is: (A) 60 percent. (B) 90 percent. (C) 70 percent. (D) 80 percent.

(D) 80 percent.

53. For Level Ill Basic Examinations, it is recommended that Level II questions also be included. These questions should be: (A) in addition to those for the particular Method Examination, and should be based on other applicable NDT methods. (B) based on Level II tasks for the particular Method Examination. (C) selected at random from questions previously used on Level II examinations. (D) given only if the candidate is being examined in more than one method.

(A) in addition to those for the particular Method Examination and should be based on other applicable NDT methods."

54. If an outside agency is engaged to provide Level III services, the: (A) written practice of the outside agency pertains, and it is not necessary for the employer that uses the outside services to have a written practice. (B) responsibility of certification must be retained by the employer utilizing outside services. (C) employer utilizing outside services must nonetheless have a Level III in direct employment. (D) outside agency may certify the personnel of the employer utilizing outside services.

(B) responsibility of certification must be retained by the employer utilizing outside services.

55. Which of the following statements is true concerning recertification? (A) Recertification can be accomplished only by reexamination at least once every three years. (B) Recertification can be based upon evidence of continuing satisfactory performance. (C) Once certified to a particular level, certification can only be terminated if the certified individual terminates employment with the certifying employer. (D) Reexamination of a certified individual can be accomplished only after three years at a particular level.

(B) Recertification can be based upon evidence of continuing satisfactory performance.

56. What purpose is best served by maintaining certification records and the written practice? (A) For periodic approval by ASNT. (B) To determine the effectiveness of outside services. (C) To provide documentation for review by customer, clients, and regulatory agencies. (D) To protect against product liability claims. (E) To satisfy requirements of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code.

57. The employer is responsible for certification of: (A) Level I and Level II NDT personnel. (B) Level III personnel only. (C) outside services. (D) all levels of NDT personnel. (E) both b and c.

(D) all levels of NDT personnel.

58. The employer can consider an individual to be qualified to Level II, but only if he/she: (A) takes a comprehensive written examination. (B) has in excess of five years experience comparable to a Level II. (C) meets the requirements of the employer's written practice. (D) has taken the ASNT NDT Level II Basic and at least one of the Method examinations.

59. Automatic termination of certification is recommended when the certified individual: (A) terminates employment with the employer where certified. (B) is temporarily assigned to a different job function. (C) takes a leave of absence greater than 30 days. (D) achieves a higher level of certification.

(A) terminates employment with the employer where certified.

60. A certified Level Ill individual terminates his/her employment with employer A and is immediately employed by employer B. Employer B may certify the individual as Level III based upon which of the following? (A) The employer must examine the individual. (B) The employer must examine the individual if he/she has not been working as a Level III during the past six months. (C) The employer may recertify the individual to Level III, but only after six months of satisfactory service. (D) The employer may waive examination if the individual can provide evidence of demonstrated ability, achievement, experience, and education.

(A) The employer must examine the individual.

61. The ASNT NDT Level lll certification program is mandated under the requirements of: (A) SNT-TC-1A, 1992 Edition. (B) ANSI/ASNT CP-189-1995. (C) both of the above. (D) none of the above.

(B) ANSI/ASNT CP-189-1995.

62. An ASNT NDT Level III is an individual who assumes the title of NDT Level III, in part, through: (A) a screening process by an impartial third party. (B) satisfactory completion of a Basic Examination on administrative and general technology knowledge. (C) satisfactory completion of a Method Examination addressing in-depth knowledge of the theory and practices of the chosen method. (D) all of the above.

(D) all of the above.

63. The title of ASNT NDT Level III is granted by: (A) ASNT and makes an individual immediately qualified to become an employer's Level III. (B) ASNT and makes an individual potentially eligible to become an employer's Level III. (C) ASNT and automatically permits the individual to function as an independent Level in. (D) ASNT and only applies when recognized by some requirements document.

(B) ASNT and makes an individual potentially eligible to become an employer's Level III.

64. The ASNT NDT Level Ill certificate, as issued, remains in effect for five years. Its renewal after the five years is accomplished by: (A) showing evidence of being continually employed in the field of NDT throughout the interim period. (B) showing evidence of extra efforts aimed at advancing one's knowledge of NDT technologies in each of the intervening years. (C) showing continued effectiveness by retaking the Basic Examination and the Method(s) Examination(s). (D) none of the above.

(D) None of the above

65. The Method Examination covers: (A) recognition of and use of equations. (B) interpretation of charts and graphs. (C) interpretations and use of a sample procedure. (D) all of the above.

(D) all of the above.

66. Individuals certified to ASNT NDT Level lll are considered to have met the: (A) employer's written practice requirements. (B) requirements of ANSI/ASNT CP-189. (C) requirements of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code. (D) guidelines of SNT-TC-IA (Basic and Method Examinations).

(D) guidelines of SNT-TC-IA (Basic and Method Examinations).

67. Individuals considering certification as an ASNT NDT Level ill, in general, must be: (A) well-rounded with a broad understanding of the theory and application of many methods (B) knowledgeable in their respective method, since now they will be considered experts in the method. (C) familiar with statistical interpretations of in-process control data. (D) able to interpret technical articles, even if written in a foreign language.

(A) well-rounded with a broad understanding of the theory and application of many methods

68. In accordance with AlSI/ASNT CP-189-1995, the NDT Level III shall be responsible for: (A) grading individual certification examinations. (B) preparing training materials for NDT Level I and Level II personnel. (C) approving all questions to be used on examinations for Level I and Level II. (D) all of the above.

(D) all of the above

69. Which of the following may conduct and grade examinations for Level I and Level II personnel? (A) An NDT Level III (B) A documented representative of the NDT Level III. (C) A contracted outside agency. (D) All of the above. (E) Both a and b.

(D) All of the above.

70. When the near-distance, visual acuity examination is given using the reading card with Jaeger letters, it must be given: (A) in accordance with a procedure. (B) by a person approved by the NDT Level III. (C) at least once a year. (D) by all of the above.

(D) by all of the above.

71. As required in ANSl/ASNT CP-189, Level I practical examinations are intended to be: (A) given by the employer's Level III. (B) graded by the employer's Level III. (C) given using one or more test samples for each technique. (D) given using one or more test samples for each method. (E) passed only if all pre-defined discontinuities are detected and evaluated.

72. The Practical Examination shall address the technical and practical competency of the examinee when following prepared NDT procedures for: (A) Levels I, II, and NDT instructor. (B) Levels I and II. (C) corporate Level Ills. (D) all of the above.

(B) Levels I and II.

73. The Practical Examination shall address the technical and practical competency of the examinee when following prepared NDT procedures for: (A) Levels I, II, and III. (B) Levels I and II. (C) Level III. (D) Level III and NDT instructors. (E) all of the above.

(B) Levels I and II.

74. The employer's Level III is responsible for certification of: (A) Levels I and II. (B) outside inspection services and consultants. (D) all of the above. (E) none of the above.

(E) none of the above.

75. The most common range of acoustic emission testing is: (A) 10-15 KHz. (B) 100-300 KHz. (C) 500-750 KHz. (D) 1-5 mHz.

(B) 100-300 KHz.

76. Discontinuities that are readily detectable by acoustic emission testing are: (A) leaks. (B) plastic deformation. (C) growing cracks. (D) all of the above.

(D) all of the above.

77. The total energy loss of a propagating wave is called: (A) scatter. (B) dispersión. (C) diffraction. (D) atténuation.

(D) attenuation.

78. The Kaiser effect refers to: (A) velocity changes due to temperature changes. (B) low amplitude emissions from aluminum structures. (C) the behavior where emission from a source will not occur until the previous load is exceeded. (D) none of the above.

79. The felicity effect is useful in evaluating: (A) fiber-reinforced plastic components. (B) high alloy castings. (C) large structural steel members. (D) ceramics.

(A) fiber-reinforced plastic components.

80. The Kaiser effect is useful in distinguishing: (A) electrical noise from mechanical noise. (B) electrical noise from growing discontinuities. (C) mechanical noise from growing discontinuities. (D) electrical noise from continuous emissions.

81. The term "counts" refers to: (A) the number of times a signal crosses a preset threshold. (B) the number of events from a source. (C) the number of transducers required to perform a test. (D) none of the above.

(B) the number of events from a source.

82. The acoustic emission signal amplitude is related to: (A) the preset threshold. (B) the intensity of the source. (C) the band pass filters. (D) background noises.

(B) the intensity of the source.

83. Threshold settings are determined by: (A) the graininess of the material. (B) the attenuation of the material. (C) the test duration. (D) the background noise level.

(D) the background noise level.

84. Background noise can be reduced by: (A) electronic filtering. (B) using flat response amplifiers. (C) using in-line amplifiers. (D) using heavier gage coaxial cable.

(A) electronic filtering.

85. Eddy currents are circulating electrical currents induced in conductive materials by: (A) continuous direct current. (B) gamma rays. (C) an alternating magnetic field. (D) a piezoelectric force. (E) any of the above.

86. The method used to generate eddy currents in a test specimen by means of a coil can most closely compared with the action of a: (A) transformer. (B) capacitor. (C) storage battery. (D) generator. (E) resistor.

(A) transformer.

87. Eddy current testing relies on the principle of: (A) magnetostriction. (B) electromagnetic induction. (C) piexoelectric energy conversion. (D) magnetomotive force. (E) direct current flow in a resistive circuit.

(B) electromagnetic induction.

88. When the electrical current in an eddy current coil reverses direction, the: (A) direction of the eddy currents in a part remains the same. (B) eddy currents in the test part will change phase by 45°. (C) direction of the eddy currents in the part also reverses. (D) eddy currents in the part remain the same.

89. In order to generate measurable eddy currents in a test specimen, the specimen must be: (A) an electrical conductor. (B) an electrical insulator. (C) either a conductor or insulator. (D) a ferromagnetic material. (E) a nonmagnetic material.

(A) an electrical conductor.

90. The magnetic field generated by eddy currents induced in a test specimen: (A) opposes the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents. (B) reinforces the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents. (C) cancels the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents. (D) has no effect on the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents.

(A) opposes the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents.

91. In eddy current testing, IACS is a recognized abbreviation for: (A) Induced Alternating Current System. (B) Inductively Activated Comparison System. (C) Internal Applied Current System. (D) International Annealed Copper Standard.

(D) I nternational Annealed Copper Standard.

92. In eddy current testing, the specimen is coupled to the test coil by: (A) core coupling. (B) magnetic saturation. (C) the coil's electromagnetic fields. (D) magnetic domains. (E) dry powder couplants.

93. The penetration of eddy currents in a conductive material is decreased when the: (A) test frequency or conductivity of the specimen is decreased. (B) test frequency is decreased or conductivity of the specimen is increased. (C) test frequency, conductivity of the specimen, or permeability of the specimen is increased. (D) permeability of the specimen is decreased.

94. At a fixed test frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current penetration be greatest? (A) aluminum (35% IACS conductivity). (B) brass (15% IACS conductivity). (C) copper (95% IACS conductivity). (D) lead (7% IACS conductivity).

(D) lead (7% IACS conductivity).

95. A term used to describe the effect observed due to a change in the coupling between a test specimen and a flat probe coil when the distance of separation between them is varied is: (A) fill factor. (B) edge effect. (C) end effect. (D) lift-off. (E) coupling loss.

(D) lift-off.

96. When testing with eddy currents, discontinuities will be most easily detected when the eddy currents are: (A) coplanar with the major dimension of the discontinuity. (B) perpendicular to the major plane of the discontinuity. (C) parallel to the major dimension of the discontinuity. (D) 90° out of phase with the current in the coil.

(B) perpendicular to the major plane of the discontinuity.

97. Which of the following discontinuities are easiest to detect with an eddy current test? (Assume that the area of the discontinuity is equal in all 5 choices listed.) (A) A subsurface crack which lies parallel to the direction of the eddy current. (B) A discontinuity located in the center of a 51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar. (C) A radial crack that extends to the outer surface of a 51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar. (D) A subsurface radial crack located at a depth of 13 mm (0.5 in.) in a 51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar. (E) A surface crack that lies parallel to the direction of the eddy current.

98. A term used to define the timing relationships involved in alternating current signals is: (A) magnitude. (B) phase. (C) impedance. (D) reactance. (E) time-gain correction.

(B) phase.

99. The impedance of a test coil can be represented by the vector sum of: (A) inductive reactance and resistance. (B) capacitive reactance and resistance. (C) inductive reactance and capacitive reactance. (D) inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and resistance.

(A) inductive reactance and resistance.

100. Disadvantages of using a surface probe coil for the eddy current inspection of small-diameter tubing include: (A) inability to detect small discontinuities. (B) slow inherent speed. (C) inherent mechanical problems. (D) all of the above. (E) both b and c.

(E) both b and c.

01 -100 Flashcards

(100 cards)