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INF 309 > Para MCQ for EOM > Flashcards

Para MCQ for EOM Flashcards

1
Q

l-A facultative parasite:

a) Lives only in the environment
b) Exists in different hosts
c) Able of existing independently of a host
d) Spends part of its life cycle in a host or lives independently.

A

c) Able of existing independently of a host

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2
Q

2-Different types of anaemia may occur in infection with:

a) Diphyllobothrium latum
b) Fasciola spp.
c) Strongyloides stercoralis.
d) Necator americanus

A

c) Strongyloides stercoralis.

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3
Q

3-The oocyst containing two sporocysts each with four sporozoites belongs to:

a) Cystoisospora belli.
b) Cryptosporidium parvum.
c) Giardia lamblia.
d) Cyclospora cayetanensis.

A

a) Cystoisospora belli.

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4
Q

4-Encysted metacercaria on vegetation is the infective stage of:

a) Trichostrongylus colubriformis
b) Heterophyes heterophyes
c) Fasciola hepatica
d) Trichuris trichiura

A

c) Fasciola hepatica

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5
Q

5-Modified Ziehl Neelsen stain is used for the diagnosis of:

a) Cryptosporidium parvum.
b) Entamoeba histolytica.
c) Giardia lamblia.
d) Balantidium coli

A

a) Cryptosporidium parvum.

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6
Q

6- Chocolate-coloured pus is a finding associated with:

a) Entamoeba histolytica.
b) Entamoeba coli.
c) Balantidium coli.
d) Giardia lamblia.

A

a) Entamoeba histolytica.

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7
Q

7-The following protozoan is not pathogenic:

a) Giardia lamblia.
b) Entamoeba dispar.
c) Entamoeba histolytica.
d) Balantidium coli.

A

b) Entamoeba dispar.

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8
Q

8- lndividuals contract Strongyloides stercoralis via which of the following?

a) Ingestion of infected freshwater fish.
b) Skin penetration.
c) Insect bite.
d) Ingestion of contaminated beef.

A

b) Skin penetration.

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9
Q

9-The protozoan that inhabits small intestine of man is:

a) Entamoeba coli.
b) Balantidium coli.
c) Entamoeba histolytica.
d) Giardia lamblia.

A

d) Giardia lamblia.

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10
Q

10-Which of the following is not a Trichostrongylus colubriformis prevention and control strategy?

a) Proper water treatment.
b) Appropriate food handling.
c) Use of insect repellent.
d) Proper sanitation practices.

A

c) Use of insect repellent.

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11
Q

11-Which of the following is not true regarding intestinal amoebiasis?

a) It affects the large intestinal mucosa
b) It is accompanied by high blood eosinophilia
c) It is characterized by formation of ulcer
d) Blood and mucus are prominent in stool

A

b) It is accompanied by high blood eosinophilia

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12
Q

12- Cysticercus bovis is the infective stage of:

a) Broad tapeworm.
b) Bald tapeworm.
c) Pinworm.
d) Giant intestinal roundworm.

A

b) Bald tapeworm.

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13
Q

13-This parasite has an operculated egg:

a) Hymenolepis nana.
b) Taenia solium.
c) Diphyllobothrium latum.
d) Taenia saginata.

A

c) Diphyllobothrium latum.

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14
Q

14- Cholecystitis and malabsorption may happen with:

a) Giardia lamblia.
b) Entamoeba histolytica.
c) Capillaria philippinensis.
d) Taenia saginata.

A

a) Giardia lamblia.

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15
Q

15-Which of the following helminth eggs are directly infective to man?

a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Diphyllobothrium latum.
c) Hymenolepis nana.
d) Fasciola hepatica

A

c) Hymenolepis nana.

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16
Q

16- Cytsticercosis may complicate:

a) Strongyloidiasis.
b) Sparganosis.
c) Taeniasis saginata.
d) Taeniasis solium.

A

d) Taeniasis solium.

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17
Q

17- Man acts as intermediate host only for:

a) Hymenolepis nana.
b) Taenia solium.
c) Diphyllobothrium latum.
d) Echinococcus granulosus.

A

d) Echinococcus granulosus.

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18
Q

18-Which parasite is not considered opportunistic?

a) Cryptosporidium parvum.
b) Cystoisospora belli.
c) Necator americanus.
d) Strongyloides stercoralis.

A

c) Necator americanus.

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19
Q

19- Encystation of Entamoeba histolytica occurs in:

a) The stomach.
b) The duodenum.
c) The ileum.
d) The colon.

A

d) The colon.

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20
Q

20-Pirenella conica is the intermediate host in cases of:

a) Strongyloidiasis.
b) Fascioliasis.
c) Trichuriasis.
d) Heterophyiasis.

A

d) Heterophyiasis.

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21
Q

21-The protozoan which has two different-shaped nuclei is:

a) Entamoeba hartmanni.
b) Balantidium coli.
c) Entamoeba histolytica.
d) Giardia lamblia.

A

b) Balantidium coli.

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22
Q

22-Pruritis ani is found with:

a) Trichuriasis.
b) Enterobiasis.
c) Toxocariasis.
d) Ancylostomiasis.

A

b) Enterobiasis.

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23
Q

23-Rectal prolapse is a feature in infection with:

a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Enterobius vermicularis.
c) Strongyloides stercoralis.
d) Trichuris trichiura.

A

d) Trichuris trichiura.

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24
Q

24-The typical diagnostic stage of Strongyloides stercoralis seen in stool is:

a) Mature egg.
b) Rhabditiform larva.
c) Filariform larva.
d) Immature egg.

A

b) Rhabditiform larva.

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25
Q

25-lnternal autoinfection occurs with the following:

a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Capillaria philippinensis.
c) Trichuris trichiura.
d) Trichostrongylus colubriformis.

A

b) Capillaria philippinensis.

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26
Q

26-The following adult helminth may cause pulmonary manifestations:

a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Enterobius vermicularis.
c) Toxocara canis.
d) Trichuris trichiura.

A

a) Ascaris lumbricoides.

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27
Q

27-The most common characteristic of visceral larva migrans is:

a) Lymphadenitis.
b) Chronic eosinophilia.
c) Seizures.
d) Leucocytosis.

A

b) Chronic eosinophilia.

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28
Q

28- Pig is related to infection with which pair of parasites?

a) Taenia saginata & Trichostrongylus colubriformis.
b) Ascaris lumbricoides & Taenia solium.
c) Balantidium coli & Taenia solium.
d) Balantidium coli & Entamoeba coli.

A

c) Balantidium coli & Taenia solium.

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29
Q

29-Halzoun is caused by infection with:

a) Echinococcus granulosus.
b) Linguatula serrata.
c) Toxocara canis.
d) Trichuris trichiura.

A

b) Linguatula serrata.

30
Q

30-Peri-orbital oedema, fever, eosinophilia may be seen in infection with:

a) Sparganum mansoni
b) Toxocara cati.
c) Hymenolepis nana.
d) Echinococcus granulosus.

A

a) Sparganum mansoni

31
Q

31- PAIR technique is used for treatment of:

a) Cysticercosis.
b) Hydatidosis.
c) Toxocariasis.
d) Ascariasis.

A

b) Hydatidosis.

32
Q

32-Obstructive jaundice may complicate infection with:

a) Diphyllobothrium latum.
b) Fasciola hepatica.
c) Taenia saginata.
d) Hymenolepis nana.

A

b) Fasciola hepatica.

33
Q

33-Which pair of parasites commonly affects children:

a) Hymenolepis nana & Balantidium coli.
b) Fasciola gigantica & Giardia lamblia.
c) Hymenolepis nana & Giardia lamblia.
d) Hymenolepis nana & Cryptosporidium parvum.

A

c) Hymenolepis nana & Giardia lamblia.

34
Q

34- lnternal and external autoinfection occurs with:

a) Strongyloides stercoralis.
b) Capillaria philippinensis.
c) Trichuris trichiura.
d) Trichostrongylus colubriformis.

A

a) Strongyloides stercoralis.

35
Q

35-Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography may be used in diagnosing some cases of infection with:

a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Capillaria philippinensis.
c) Trichuris trichiura.
d) Ancylostoma duodenale.

A

a) Ascaris lumbricoides.

36
Q

36-The following is a diagnostic tool for trichuriasis:

a) NIH swab
b) String test
c) Proctoscopy
d) Bronchial lavage

A

c) Proctoscopy

37
Q

37- The following parasite is NOT exclusively transmitted by the oral route:

a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Fasciola gigantica
c) Hymenolepis nana
d) Enterobius vermicularis

A

d) Enterobius vermicularis

38
Q

38- Protein energy malnutrition is a feature in:

a) Trichuriasis
b) Ascariasis
c) Fascioliasis
d) Halzoun

A

b) Ascariasis

39
Q

39- Pathology is caused by:

a) Adults and larvae in infection with Trichuris
b) Adults and larvae in visceral larva migrans
c) Larvae in taeniasis saginata
d) Adults and larvae in infection with Ascaris

A

d) Adults and larvae in infection with Ascaris

40
Q

40- Corticosteroids are essential in treatment of:

a) Hepatic hydatid cyst
b) Neurotoxocariasis
c) Cryptosporidiosis
d) Taeniasis solium

A

b) Neurotoxocariasis

41
Q

41- Iron deficiency anaemia may be seen with:

a) Cyclospora cayetanensis
b) Enterobius vermicularis
c) Ancylostoma duodenale
d) Strongyloides stercoralis

A

c) Ancylostoma duodenale

42
Q

42-Syngamy is:

a) Sexual reproduction in some protozoa
b) Asexual reproduction in some protozoa.
c) Sexual reproduction in some helminths.
d) Asexual reproduction in some helminths.

A

a) Sexual reproduction in some protozoa

43
Q

43- Malabsorption may occur with:

a) Enterobiasis
b) Giardiasis
c) Trichuriasis
d) Trichostrongyliasis

A

b) Giardiasis

44
Q

44- Capillariasis philippinensis is transmitted by:

a) Eating infected fish.
b) Accidental swallowing of infected Cyclops.
c) Eating improperly cooked pork.
d) Accidental swallowing of an infected flea

A

a) Eating infected fish.

45
Q

45-“ Larva currens” is the name given to the migrating larva of:

a) Ancylostoma duodenale
b) Trichostrongylus colubriformis
c) Strongyloides stercoralis
d) Capillaria philippinensis

A

c) Strongyloides stercoralis

46
Q

46- Concerning ancylostomiasis duodenale, which of the following is infective:

a) Mature Egg
b) Filariform larva
c) Rhabditiform larva
d) Adult worm

A

b) Filariform larva

47
Q

47- A patient presenting with chronic diarrhoea, with history of eating improperly cooked whole infected fish, may be infected with:

a) Enterobius vermicularis
b) Echinococcus granulosus
c) Ascaris lumbricoides
d) Capillaria philippinensis

A

d) Capillaria philippinensis

48
Q

48-Walking barefooted poses a risk of acquiring:

a) Trichostrongyliasis
b) Visceral larva migrans
c) Ancylostomiasis
d) Intestinal capillariasis

A

c) Ancylostomiasis

49
Q

49-Disseminated systemic infection in AIDS patient is reported with:

a) Trichostrongyliasis
b) Enterobiasis
c) Ancylostomiasis
d) Strongyloidiasis

A

d) Strongyloidiasis

50
Q

50- Which of the following parasites infects man by skin penetration:

a) Trichostrongylus colubriformis
b) Enterobius vermicularis
c) Trichuris trichiura
d) Strongyloides stercoralis

A

d) Strongyloides stercoralis

51
Q

51- lnfection with Fasciola is through:

a) Ingestion of raw liver of sheep
b) Ingestion of encysted metacercaria on plants
c) Ingestion of eggs of Fasciola
d) Penetration of skin by cercariae

A

b) Ingestion of encysted metacercaria on plants

52
Q

52- Undercooked meat is the source of infection with:

a) Fasciola gigantica
b) Ancylostoma duodenale
c) Heterophyes heterophyes
d) Taenia sagniata

A

d) Taenia sagniata

53
Q

53- Lymnaea is the snail intermediate host for:

a) Heterophyes.
b) Diphyllobothrium spp.
c) Toxocara spp.
d) Fasciola spp.

A

d) Fasciola spp.

54
Q

54-Man is infected by Heterophyes through:

a) Eating insufficiently cooked crabs
b) Handling the snail Pirenella conica
c) Drinking contaminated water with cercaria
d) Eating improperly cooked fish {Tilapia or Mugil)

A

d) Eating improperly cooked fish {Tilapia or Mugil)

55
Q

55-Sheep liver fluke is the common name of:

a) Fasciola hepatica
b) Fasciola gigantica
c) Taenia saginata
d) Taenia solium

A

a) Fasciola hepatica

56
Q

56-Maldigestion is seen with ascariasis due to:

a) Multivitamin deficiency
b) Secretion of anti IgA blocking antibodies
c) Presence of chronic malabsorption
d) Secretion of anti-enzymes

A

d) Secretion of anti-enzymes

57
Q

57- Egg emboli may cause:

a) Ocular toxocariasis
b) Convulsions in diphyllobothriasis latum
c) Granulomatous brain lesions in heterophyiasis
d) Loeffler syndrome in strongyloidiasis.

A

c) Granulomatous brain lesions in heterophyiasis

58
Q

58-The following about Fasciola spp. infection is TRUE:

a) Proline secretion by the worm causes minimal abscesses
b) Immature worms produce destruction in liver parenchyma
c) No ectopic migration occurs
d) Praziquantel is the drug of choice

A

b) Immature worms produce destruction in liver parenchyma

59
Q

59- Pyrimethamine may be used in treatment of:

a) Hepatic amoebiasis.
b) Giardiasis.
c) Cyclosporiasis.
d) Cystoisosporiasis.

A

d) Cystoisosporiasis.

60
Q

60-Serious & sometimes fatal complications of ascariasis are due to:

a) Toxic or enzymatic activity
b) Migration of adult worms
c) Eggs trapped in tissues
d) Larvae trapped in tissues

A

b) Migration of adult worms

61
Q

61-A patient on immunosuppressive therapy after kidney transplantation, presented with abrupt onset of sever watery diarrohea, nausea, vomiting, anorexia and fatigue.
What is your provisional diagnosis?

a) Blastocystosis.
b) Cyclosporiasis.
c) Giardiasis.
d) VLM.

A

b) Cyclosporiasis.

62
Q

62-Mass treatment is one of the control measure against infection with:

a) Amoebiasis.
b) Cryptosporidiosis.
c) Ascariasis.
d) Fascioliasis.

A

c) Ascariasis.

63
Q

63-Seizures, cough, unilateral retinal mass could be presenting symptoms of:

a) Trichuriasis.
b) Amoebiasis.
c) Balantidiasis.
d) VLM.

A

d) VLM.

64
Q

64-Melena and occult blood in stool could be a manifestation of:

a) Ancylostomiasis.
b) Enterobiasis.
c) Taeniasis.
d) Cystoisosporiasis.

A

a) Ancylostomiasis.

65
Q

65-Spurious infection is related to:

a) Halzoun
b) Fascioliasis
c) Sparganosis
d) Hydatidosis.

A

b) Fascioliasis

66
Q

66-Cartwheel appearance in sonar is a pathognomonic feature of:

a) Pulmonary hydatid cyst.
b) Calcified hepatic hydatid cyst.
c) Endogenous daughter hydatid cyst.
d) Osseous hydatid cyst.

A

c) Endogenous daughter hydatid cyst.

67
Q

67-Parasitic infection caused by eating under cooked salmon fish could be diagnosed by stool analysis showing:

a) Operculated eggs & mature segments.
b) Translucent eggs with gravid segments.
c) Mature eggs & mature segments.
d) Oval operculated yellowish brown mature eggs with no segments.

A

a) Operculated eggs & mature segments.

68
Q

68-Bears may act as paratenic hosts in:

a) Heterophyes heterophyes.
b) Diphyllobothrium latum.
c) Giardia lamblia.
d) Ascaris lumbricoides.

A

b) Diphyllobothrium latum.

69
Q

69- Peripheral neuropathy which occurs in diphyllobothriasis is due to:

a) Intestinal obstruction.
b) Migrating segments.
c) Cholecystitis.
d) Vitamin B12 deficiency.

A

d) Vitamin B12 deficiency.

70
Q

70-Man acts as a blind intermediate host in infection with:

a) Taeniasis saginata.
b) Cysticercosis.
c) Diphyllobothriasis.
d) Ascariasis.

A

b) Cysticercosis.

INF 309 (15 decks)

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