Part A Chapter 8 Operating Procedures Flashcards

Question

8.1.5.6 ALWS (Airport Lightning Warning System) RED and AMBER Crew Transport Cargo Loaing Passenger Boading / Disembarkation Refuelling Pushback Marshalling Chocks APU Inop

Answer 1

RED: Crew transport to PTB will continue, to outer bay will be suspended (stay on bus if bus is already at outer bay) Cargo loading will be suspended Passenger boarding / disembarkation continues at PTB, will be suspend at outer bay Refuelling will be suspended Pushback will be suspended (or if already commenced, will continue until completed) Marshalling available at PTB but not outer bay No chocks in, one crew to monitor brake pressure until chocks in If APU INOP, leave right hand engine running. If arrived at outer bay, contact Apron Control 121.775 to advice park brake set, left engine shut down, aircraft ready for disembarkation AMBER: Ramp Activities Continue as Normal

Answer 2

APU Usage, engine start and taxi A320 BALL PARK figure APU Ground Burn 100kg/hr Engine Ground Burn 1000kg/hr (or 250kg/15min, 500kg/30min) Standard CFP Taxi Fuel Figure A320/A321 200kg A330 500kg \*Taxi Fuel may be varied at discretion of the Captain

Answer 3

Fuel for Takeoff and Climb, Departure, Cruise, Descent, Approach, Landing \*Calculation assumes Contingency Fuel has been used en-route, with default runway on both departure and arrival

Answer 4

Allow errors for forecast winds and temperatures, restrictions on altitude, minor route changes due to ATC or weather (\*minor weather) and extended taxi times Most flight plans with 5% Trip fuel from Departure to Destination Minimum contingency is not less than 5% of the Trip Fuel from overhead or abeam the last suitable en-route airport (ERA) to destination Planned Contingency Fuel will never be less than A320/A321 130kg A330 300kg

Answer 5

Sufficient fuel must be available at all time to allow flight to be continued to the nearest suitable airport + 30 min Hold at 1500' + Carry out approach and landing, taking account into loss of pressurization and failure of one engine. (Depressurization with all engines is the most fuel critical scenerio, considering FL100 with LRC to TOD) Only required when: The sector has a long over water segment (In case planned fuel at CP is less than fuel required in case of E/O / Depressurization, to cater for the extra fuel burn to divert to ERA) The sector has a long final route segment between the last en-route airport and the destination airport (In case planned fuel at CP is less than fuel required in case of E/O / Depressurization, to cater for the extra fuel burn to continue to Destination after the last CP, or divert to ERA before the last CP) There is a relatively short distance to the nominated alternate airport (To cater for the extra fuel burn in case of E/O / Depressurization before the last CP, yet allow continual to Destination) \*Mandatory Fuel will become extra fuel after passing the last en-route CP CP (Critical Point) = ETP (Equi-Time Point)

Answer 6

Fuel to make missed approach from minima at Destination, fly to an alternate, plus 5% contingency, and carry out an approach and landing, assuming Cost Index of 0.

Answer 7

Equals to 30 minutes holding at 1500' based on aircraft's planned landing weight at the alternate BALL PARK FIGURES A320 1200kg A321 1500kg A330 2600kg \*Equivalent to Minimum Fuel the aircraft MUST land

Answer 8

ALTERNATE FUEL + RESERVE FUEL \*In case part of the fuel is unusable, in FUEL Page adjust FINAL fuel figure, or enter Minimum Destination fuel as MDF + Unusable Fuel

Answer 9

TAXI FUEL + TRIP FUEL + CONTINGENCY FUEL + MANDATORY FUEL + ALTERNATE FUEL + RESERVE FUEL

Answer 10

Fuel to cover known or suspected weather avoidance (\*major weather) requirements, en-route air traffic constraints, destination holding delays, impact from NOTAMs and any other conditions that might cause increased fuel consumption \*If STA alternate is close to opening time of the alternate, additives to RECOMMENDED EXTRA FUEL could be bought to avoid nominating a more distinct alternate \*Commander may reduce the amount of RECOMMENDED EXTRA FUEL based on his local knowledge and experience, or due payload restrictions to avoid minimal uplifts \*CFP Recommended Extra Fuel + Contingency Fuel + Mandatory Fuel is NOT less than: A320 600 kg A321 800 kg A330 1500 kg \*CFP Recommended Extra Fuel + Alternate Fuel + Mandatory Fuel should NOT be less than Reserve Fuel (30 min), ensuring 1 hr's (30 min + 30 min) fuel in tanks on arrival at Destination

Answer 11

(MINIMUM) FUEL REQUIRED + RECOMMENDED EXTRA FUEL \*Unless SOUND operational reason to load extra fuel, company policy is to load CFP TOTAL FUEL. When TOTAL FUEL is loaded, the company accepts responsibility for any diversion as a result of unusual circumstances. \*If take more than flight plan fuel, check whether need to limit ZFW (Likely when FUEL is more important than payload such as adverse weather conditions or known delays, or in CAT A sectors where fuel uplift is more than CFP fuel and CFP fuel is close to Maximum allowable uplift)

Answer 12

PERF Factor: Due to particular aircraft's fuel flow discrepency from manufacturer's baseline IDLE Factor: Positive factors gives earlier TOD and vice versa (i.e. Larger factors to cater for increased fuel flow as the engines get old)

Answer 13

UNTIL the planning exercise is completed, the following criteria must be met and the revised destination has been communicated to ATC. 1. Destination Arport Weather meets Landing Minima. 2. Alternate Airport Weather meets Alternate Planning Minima. 3. Fuel is sufficient to continue to destination + 5% Contingency Fuel abeam the last ERA + New Minimum Diversion Fuel

Answer 14

Never apply to the extreme, to cater for possible route shortening Contaminated RWY/TWY/APRON at Departure or Destination Airport could override the requirement of tankering fuel CAT C sector with low ZFW: Possible limitation to payload uplift at second sector CAT C sector followed by CAT A sector: CFP Fuel Required figure take accounts into what supposed to be weight of CAT B fuel (resulting as overestimation of fuel burn), Total Fuel may include Rec Extra Fuel left over

Answer 15

Permits refuelling to commence whilst allowing for changes to the Traffic Load Standby Fuel Figure may be calculated by applying a buffer typically up to 3000kg to the EZFW Company policy for aircraft in Hong Kong to be pre-fuelled to a figure of CFP Total Fuel - 3000kg Traffic staff shall obtain the Commander's approval if the FZFW is required to be changed by 200kg or more \*Surplus fuel on board loaded: Check if ZFW+Surplus Fuel-Taxi-Trip less than or equal to MLW. If significant amount of fuel preloaded, request new CFP

Answer 16

Normally included in Traffic Load. Sometimes if not possible, it will be included in DOW \*A note will be added in the SI column of the Loadsheet

Answer 17

Passengers are not permitted to store baggage on empty seats even if the passenger is willing to pay for the seat. Exceptions are Diplomatic Bags, Musical Instruments and Religious Articles. FA1 shall inform Commander / PIC and ensure the item has been correctly secured.

Answer 18

ETD - 6 hr EZFW issued to Flight Despatch to produce CFP ETD - 60 min FZFW informed verbally by Traffic Staff Verbally ETD - 40 min Initialize ACARS ETD - 30 min FZFW sent to Flight Crew via ACARS ETD - 25 min Flight crew send Final Fuel Figures via ACARS ETD - 15 min Loadsheet sent to Flight Crew via ACARS ETD Aircraft off-block and Loadsheet Acknowledged and Signed

Answer 19

WEIGHT Definitions: 1. Basic Weight (BW): Empty Weight of the Aircraft + Standard Operating Items * Revenue BW: Empty Weight + Galley + Standard Cabin Crew\* + Operating Flight Crew + Potable Water + All removable items * Training BW: Empty Weight + Operating Flight Crew + Potable Water) \*Standard Crew: A320: 2/5; A321: 2/7; A330: 2/11 except B-HYB to B-HYQ 2/13 1. Dry Operating Weight (DOW): Basic Weight + Pantry Weight (Catering, Equipment Spares, Change in Crew) (+ Unusable Fuel if applicable) 2. Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW): DOW + Traffic Load (Passenger + Cargo + Jump Seat Passengers) 3. Takeoff Weight: ZFW + Taxi Fuel 4. Landing Weight: TOW - Trip Fuel 5. Underload: MLW - LW 6. Wet ZFW = DOW (Unusable Fuel included, if applciable) + Traffic Load 7. Dry ZFW = Wet ZFW - Unusable Fuel INDEX Definitions: 1. Basic Index (BI): Centre of Gravity Moment at the Basic Weight 2. Dry Operating Index (DOI): Basic Index plus Index change in crew, Galley, additional flight spares 3. Laden Index Zero Fuel Weight (LIZFW): DOI + Index changes for passenger and cargo positions (=DRY LIZFW) 4. WET LIZFW: LIZFW including Index change of Unusable Fuel 5. DRY LIZFW: WET LIZFW - Index change of Unusable Fuel 6. MACZFW: LIZFW expressed in % 7. LITOW: LIZFW + Takeoff Fuel Index 8. MACTOW: LITOW expressed in % 9. LILAW: LIZFW + Landing Fuel Index 10. MACLAW: LILAW expressed in % \*From Observation, Normally the lighter the aircraft, the higher the MACTOW Unusable Fuel Data Entry in MCDU: Before Engine Start: INIT B Enter DRY ZFW (Loadsheet ZFW - Unusable Fuel) and Total FOB INCLUDING Unusable Fuel After Engine Start: FUEL PRED add unusable fuel to FINAL Fuel Figure

Answer 20

Flight Crew shall note the USABLE fuel quantity in each tank and send the details using ACARS Fuel Distribution page. Location and quantity of any UNUSABLE fuel shall be sent to OPS (Attn CLC) via ACARS Free Text Message. \*If ACARS is not available, Non-Standard fuel Order Confirmation Sheets shall be completed and passed to Traffic Officer.

Answer 21

Completed after Diversion (Likely due major disruption with multiple aircraft diversion) or en-route Technical Stop in case CLC could not be contacted, where new Takeoff Fuel Index, MACTOW and STAB TRIM are obtained using Manual Trim Sheet \*Dragonair approved Loadsheet Officers can complete the form if requested to do so by Commander

Answer 22

Aircraft Registration, Number of Crew, Basic Weight, Basic Index, Takeoff Fuel, Trip Fuel, and following within limits: ZFW, TOW, LDW, Stab Trim \*For Manual Loadsheet, also check Underload + TOW = RTOW (The lower of a, b, or c on upper right), and verify LIZFW, MACTOW, STAB TRIM AND MACZFW are correctly entered into TRIM SHEET. \*For Manual TRIM SHEET, Follow Part A 8.1.7.4 Step by Step. SG in all fuel calculations is 0.785 kg/L.

Answer 23

Livestock, OTHER THAN cold blooded animals (AVC) and live fish (AVP/PES), shall not be carried as cargo on A320/A321. Bulk Cargo Hold (compartment 5) of A330 is ventilated for transport of livestock, and they should be placed in suitable cages or pet kennels where the animal containers and crates should be tied down and secured.

Answer 24

In SI Section of Loadsheet, shall include: Detail of item, Name of PAX and Seat Number If loaded in Cargo Hold, shall include Loading Location

Answer 25

Use ACARS AOC FLT PLN REQ to obtain a back-up plan from Flight Dispatch. If unable, follow FCOM/PER-FPL Flight Planning to calculate Ramp Fuel and Time to Destination.

Answer 26

Crews may dispatch normally and annotate the CAR (Commander Administration Report) for the attention of MLO (Manager Line Operations).

Answer 27

Where CLC is not in operation and ACARS is inop. The Max ZFW should be entered by the crew at any time the ZFW is limiting.

Answer 28

Entered 4 times a day (At 00Z, 06Z, 12Z, 18Z) from UK Meteorological Office via Hong Kong Meteorological Office (HKO), for various flight levels at 06, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36 hours after each observation time, and apply from 3 hours before to 3 hours after each forecast time. i.e. The first forecast starts to apply 3 hours after the observation time. CFP MET OBS valids for 36 hour period commencing 3 hours after the observation time.

Answer 29

A TOC is shown except when the TOC is within 1.2 minutes of a reporting point. \*A330: TOC is calculated based on Derate 1 Thrust. If predicted ROC reduces to 500fpm, it will be increased to Climb Thrust.

Answer 30

Computer examines all possible Speed and Altitude combinations to select the Optimum Fuel per Ground Nautical Mile taking account into Wind and Temperature, Thrust Limits and Buffet Limits. \*It remains pilot's responsibility to check in the Ops Manual or FMC that at the top of step climb the allowable weight at that altitude or the engine thrust limits are not exceeded.

Answer 31

A TOD is shown when its position exceeds 5nm from a waypoint. Destination manoeuvring distance is not included in the decent distance therefore the actual descent point should continue to be determined by present procedures.

Answer 32

Allow sufficient fuel from PNR, for one engine inoperative flight back to the nominated airport on a Great Circle Track + Contingency + 30 min Holding + Allowance for the turn onto reciprocal track. From any point beyond PNR, sufficient fuel will remain to allow flight onward to Destination or a Nominated ERA. PNR always moves towards Departure with regardless any HW or TW. With NIL Wind, PNR is farthest from Departure.

Answer 33

Record PLAN ETA for each waypoint. Record ATA, COR (Corrected) ETA and the FL for each waypoint from TOC to the last waypoint before TOD (COR ETA = ATA + TIME) Record any other relevant information such as direct tracking, route deviations / offsets, frequencies, etc. Before start record the total fuel on the upper line of the ACTUAL FUEL column. During cruise record the actual fuel remaining against the relevant waypoint at least once every hour. It is permissible to log any other information considered relevant, e.g. actual elapsed time, actual kg/gnm.

Answer 34

Can be requested using ACARS Flight Plan Prompt or via SATCOM voice communication to Flight Despatch. Flight Crew to provide requested route and ZFW. EO CFP makes no fuel allowance for an alternate, thus it assumes that In-Flight Reduction of Normal Fuel can be applied. Crew must ensure Company Policy\* is followed regarding flight beyond the nearest suitable airport. \*Company Policy: Sufficient fuel must be available at all time to allow flight to be continued to the nearest suitable airport, hold for 30 minutes at 1500' and carry out approach and landing, taking account into loss of pressurization and failure of one engine. (Depressurization with all engines is the most fuel critical scenerio, considering FL100 with LRC to TOD)

Answer 35

Initiated by Flight Dispatch. If a Captain requires an additional CFP (change of ZFW, lower flight level, etc) the request must be made to HKG Flight Dispatch Office.

Answer 36

An estimated ETD will be issued by IOC in the event of a significant delay to a scheduled flight. Delay reports should always be based on Scheduled Times. Delayed ETD times will be used by Airpath system to re-reference the met data for issue of an updated CFP. A CFP is not required for a delayed flight but is RECOMMENDED for delays of greater than 3 hours for a LONG-HAUL FLIGHT.

Answer 37

CORR RAMP: If you want to take a specific amount of extra fuel but are happy to use some of it. (e.g. En-route Weather or Deviation) i.e. Firstly decide the fuel figure, then calculate revised trip fuel. CORR LNDG: If you want to take extra fuel and arrive with a specific amount of it intact. (e.g. Destination Weather or Arrival Delay with Known Duration) i.e. Firstly calculate revised trip fuel based on increment in landing weight, then decide fuel figure. When the correction to the TRIP FUEL exceeds: A320/A321: 200kg; A330: 300kg, the trip fuel should be amended.

Answer 38

Comprises of: Taxi Fuel, Fuel from Departure to the Critical Point + Contingency Fuel, descent to the depressurized or E/O inoperative stabilizing altitude, cruise to ERA + 5% Contingency, hold clean for 30 min at 1500' and carry out an approach and landing.

Answer 39

CP is the point where there are sufficient fuel for Diversion to ERA + 5% Contingency + hold clean for 30 min at 1500' and carry out an approach and landing. CP always moves towards wind. With a HW, CP moves towards Destination. With a TW, CP moves towards Departure.

Answer 40

Use FL100 and FL250 spot winds at Departure Waypoint or ANY Appropriate Climb Waypoints.

Answer 41

ETOPS segments are defined by ETOPS Sector Entry Point (EEP) and ETOPS Sector Exit Point (EXP) by lat long and elapsed time after takeoff, and should be loaded by using stored waypoint and fix information. (Do NOT enter directly into FMS as navigation waypoints). ETOPS Critical Fuel Points are taking account into severe icing and APU Running. ETOPS Range Entry / Exit defines the rule time 120 min, estimates the earliest and latest time of arrival at the nominated suitable airports assuming takeoff at STD + 10 min, flight planned route to the appropriate ETOPS boundary and then one engine inoperative flight on a Great Circle track to the nominated airport. The weather at these airports must be suitable from the earliest possible time of arrival to the latest possible time of arrival.

Answer 42

8.1.9.1 Legal Documents to be carried in Aircraft Radio Station Licence Certificate of Airworthiness Maintenance Log Certificate of Maintenance Review Certificate of Registration Operations Manual Flight Crew Licences Load Sheet 2.1.2.10 HKCAD 360 Requirement Operational Flight Plan Filed ATS Flight Plan Appropriate NOTAM / AIS Briefing Documentation Appropriate Meteorological Information Current Maps and Charts and Associated Documents. Any other documentation which may be required by the states concerned with this flight, e.g. Cargo Manifest, Passenger Manifest, Reporting Forms, etc. Mass and Balance Documentation Aircraft Maintenance Log Notification of Special Categories of Passengers (e.g. Security Personnel, if not considered as crew, handicapped persons, inadmissible passengers, deportees

Answer 43

Navigation and Manual Bags General Declaration Passenger Manifest if applicable Freight Manifest if applicable Passengers' Tickets Copy of Certificate of Insurance Noise Certificate Copy of Air Operator's Certificate Copy of Approvals and Permissions Authorised by HKCAD

Answer 44

Loadsheet signed by the Commander Trim Sheet if applicable Dangerous Goods documentation including a copy of the NOTOC Station Copy Page of the Maintenance Log signed by the Commander Dispatch Message signed by the Commander

Answer 45

8.1.9.1 Flight Documents Envelope Commanders Administrative Report (CAR) Computer Flight Plan (CFP) / Fuel Progress Log ACARS PDC D-ATIS / Weather Loadsheet (And Trim Sheet if applicable) ACARS RTOW Refuel Record Fuel Uplift Receipts Commander's Discretion Report (if applicable) ASR / CSR / CRP Forms (if applicable) MET / NOTAMs General Declaration

Answer 46

Commander's Discretion is used to extend a FDP by 30 min or less Split Duties

Answer 47

Significant Events and Delays Completion of an MOR, ASR or CCR (Crew Confidential Report) Training Detail carried out Extension of Duty Split Duty

Answer 48

In NORMAL circumstances aircraft door shall be opened from the outside. In ABNORMAL or EMERGENCY circumstances aircraft door are allowed to be opened from inside. ABNORMAL includes: (Door to be opened from inside in DISARMED mode) 1. Diversion / Charter Flight to a non on-line port where ground services are non-standard (A Crew Member could open from inside under Captain's Permission) 2. Opened by CX ENGINEERING STAFF under these cases: * Contracted Catering Staff (Who will not open from outside) * Aircraft Towing Activities * Aircraft Maintenance Activities EMERGENCY includes: (Door can be opened in DISARMED mode or ARMED mode) Accidents or incidents where requires immediate evacuation

Answer 49

Doors maybe closed from inside or outside by suitably trained personnel NORMAL Flight door(s) shall be closed by cabin crew from inside with the airport staff outside to assist by pushing on the physical structure of the door. Under no circumstances should airport staff interfere or participate in the locking process. Any need of RE-OPENING of door requires 3 STEPS: 1. FA1 / Ground Staff via Ground Engineer to communciate with Captain 2. Cockpit Crew to communicate with Ground Engineer to ensure Ground Supporting Equipment is positioned and conditions are safe 3. Captain's Approval

Answer 50

Passenger boarding should not commence until a cabin temperature of 28 °C OR BELOW is achieved. It is acceptable to use APU as required to maintain cabin temperature within limits notwithstanding the normal APU Vs GPU procedures. Report poor performance of ACU to Line Ops giving flight details and bay numbers From Port Page: APU should not be started until STD - 15 min and should be shutdown ATA + 5 min, except: Fixed or mobile GPU / ACU are not available Cabin Temperature AT OR ABOVE 26 °C Hazadous Weather (Typhoon Signal 3 or greater, Lightning Warning, etc If the APU is started before STD - 15 minutes or left running beyond ATA + 5 min , make an AML TI entry

Answer 51

Engine ignition system must be "OFF" Weather Radar must be "OFF" Radio is not transmitting on HF Electrical circuits in the tanks area must not be connected or disconnected GPU and APU may be functioning No open flame, nor smoking is permitted around the aircraft Portable electronic devices such as mobile phones, radio transmitters (walkie-talkies), photographic flash bulbs or electronic flash equipment shall not be used within the refuelling safety zone, which extends 6m (20') radially from the aircraft refuelling point, tank vents and fuelling equipment including the hydrant pit being used for refuelling Fuelling operations should be suspended with lightning in the immediate vicinity of the airport. \*For aircraft fitted with a trim tank: During refuelling ensure there is no fuel in the trim tank as long as the wing tanks are not full During defuelling ensure wing tanks are not defuelled as long as trim tank is not empty unless authorized by normal operation of the aircraft fuel system in order to avoid a possible tail tipping

Answer 52

Inform Refueller, and if necessary, Refuelling Stopped. Inform Ground Engineer, Airport Authorities and Fire Services. The Commander (or if absence a nominated flight deck crew member) will liaise with the Ground Engineer and the Airport authorities (if required) to decide if passenger boarding is to be delayed until the spillage has been cleared. If passenger boarding has commenced a decision must be made to determine if it is necessary to offload any passengers already on the aircraft. If passenger boarding is allowed to continue, boarding passengers must be kept as far as possible from the fuel spillage.

Answer 53

The Captain is responsible for cross-checking the fuel uplift, distribution, and signing the Refuel Record Form. Any crew member or approved refueller may sign the Fuel Delivery sheet. Person delegated to refuel should ensure: Before refuelling the bowser counter is zeroed and bowser is adequately earthed After refuelling the refuelling cap has been securely replaced and refuelling panel cover is properly latched

Answer 54

Manned Port: Sufficient to ask engineer if a quality check has been carried out Unmanned Port: Make use of the onboard fuel sampling kit or by local facilities, to carry out fuel quality check after 1000 L have been delivered (To allow any remaining fuel from the previous refuelling to be flushed out from the test line) (Record in AML when fewer than 10 capsules remain)

Answer 55

A Flight Deck Crew Member shall remain on flight deck. Inform FA1 upon commencement and completion. FA1 to brief PAX fuelling is taking place and must not smoke or produce sources of ignition, and remain seated with seat belts UNFASTENED. No Smoking Signs ON. Seat Belts Signs OFF. Emergency Lights ARMED. Airbridges or Steps positioned Preferably at Doors L1 and L2, or rear left hand door. These doors are to remain open and clear of obstruction throughout the fuelling operation. If only ONE door is open with an airbridge or steps in position, an additional door (Preferrably L1, L2 or rear left hand door) shall be selected to MANUAL/DISARM as applicable, and have a Primary Cabin Crew stationed. One cabin crew stationed at one open door, and shall advice flight deck immediately if any fuel vapours are detected or hazards are observed. Flight deck member is responsible for ordering evacuation, or communicate with refueller to cease fuelling via interphone or in person. Every main deck cabin zone WITHOUT airbridge or steps shall have a minimum of one door unobstructed and MANUAL/DISARMED available for emergency deplanning. \<--QUERY: No bridge, So need to change to ARM before escape with slide? Cabin crew to check the slide area is unobstructed periodically. Primary cabin crew will remain in the vicinity of their respective doors to responding to evacuation immediately. If evacuation is ordered, crew member or FA1 may direct the Cabin Crew to use exits away from the source of danger (i.e. fuel spill). Airbridge or Steps are in Preference to Emergency Escape Slides. Adequate Cabin Crew, KA, or handling company personnel shall be available to assist unattended non-ambulatory passengers in the event of evacuation. With any u/s door, the zone should have 2 Doors available for emergency use. If FTL precludes, no fuelling, engine runs or maintenance involving the fuel system may take place with passenger on board. Overwing fuelling is prohibited. During embarking / disembarking, KA / CX handling company personnel shall be in attendance near the aircraft to enforce no smoking regulations and to guide passengers along a safe path to and from the aircraft, if an airbridge is not available. If steps are in use, route to and from the aircraft must NOT be crossed by fuelling hoses or cables. Seat Belts ON upon completion of refuelling serves to advice to Cabin Crew that refuelling is completed and they may resume normal cabin duties. Defuelling is NOT permitted with passengers embarking, on board, or disembarking. From AEH Course: Minimum No of Cabin Crew onboard during Refuelling: 4 (A320/1)

Answer 56

Allowed provided that it was defuelled from a CX / AHK / KA Aircraft It has NOT been held in tanker for longer than 24 hours Normal water contamination check is made Wide-cut fuel contains an anti-static additive Fuel returned to the fuel farm is considered contaminated and must NOT be reloaded

Answer 57

Mixtures of wide-cut and kerosene turbine fuels can result in the air-fuel mixture in the fuel tank reaching combustible range, thus extra precautions are required to avoid electrostatic discharges in the tank. Anti-static additive could minimize the risk and presence of the additive should be included in the fuel specification. Any doubt with whether the wide-cut fuel specification includes an anti-static additive, CX Engineering MUST be contacted through IOC.

Answer 58

KA Aircraft shall not takeoff when ice, snow, slush or frost is present on, or adhering to, the Wings, Control Surfaces, Engine Inlets or Other Critical Surfaces.

Answer 59

IOC should be consulted at the planning stage to ensure commercial input in the decision making process. In most cases IOC will be aware of the situation and plan accordingly.

Answer 60

Active Frost: Condition where frost is forming. Frost will form AT OR BELOW frost point temperature on an unprotected surface or re-form on a surface protected with de/anti-icing fluid where holdover time is expired. If surface temperature remains BELOW freeze point, frost will remain after the active frost phase, or continuously form by direct sublimation on the ground or other exposed objects. Hoar Frost: Formed at temperatures BELOW freezing point on exposed surfaces on a cold and cloudless night and melts after sunrise. Cannot be cleared by brushing alone. Thin Hoar Frost: Thin enough to distinguish surface feature underneath, such as paint lines, markings or lettering.

Answer 61

Anti-icing: Aircraft Anti-Icing Fluid (AAF) is applied to a surface FREE OF frozen contaminants to protect the surface from the accumulation of frozen contaminants for a LIMITED period of time. (Preventive) De-icing: Heated Aircraft De-Icing Fluid (ADF) is applied to a surface WITH frost, ice, snow or slush to remove contamination. (Corrective) 1 Step De-/Anti-icing: Carried out with heated Anti-icing fluid to De-ice the aircraft then provide LIMITED Anti-ice capability. 2 Steps De-/Anti-icing: First step (De-icing) is followed by second step (Anti-icing) providing MAXIMUM possible anti-ice capability.

Answer 62

Clear Ice: Form on exposed objects at temperatures BELOW OR SLIGHTLY ABOVE freezing temperature. Glaze Ice / Rain Ice: Clear ice formed when the temperature is BELOW freezing and freezing rain contacts a solid surface. Rime Ice: Form at temperature BELOW freezing. Rough white covering which can generally be removed by brushing. If surfaces and edges are covered, approved de-icing fluid is required.

Answer 63

Ambient temperature between -2 °C and at least +15 °C and aircraft structure 0 °C or below in presence of visible moisture or high humidity, Precipation on cold soaked aircraft may form clear ice. Affected by temperature of fuel and time since refuelling.

Answer 64

FZFG: Reducing horizontal visibility to less than 1000 m FZDZ: Fine drops with diameter less than 0.5 mm (NOT widely separated) FZRA: Drops with diameter greater than 0.5 mm -FZRA: Same as FZRA, Widely Separated small drops Sleet: Precipitation in the mixture of rain and snow. Light Sleet could be treated same as -FZRA. All freeze upon IMPACT on ground or other exposed objects.

Answer 65

xHail (GR): Diameter ranging from 5 to 50 mm. Small balls / pieces of ice. Ice Pellets (PL): Diameter of 5 mm or less. Bounce when hitting hard ground. Snow Pellets (GS): Diameter of 2 to 5 nm. White and opaque grains of spherical / conical ice. Small Hail (GS): Hail with lighter nature, similar to Snow Pellets. Snow Grain (SG): Diameter of less than 1 mm. Do not bounce or shatter when hitting hard surfaces. \*Part A defines Ice Pellets as PE instead of PL.

Answer 66

Snow (SN): Precipitation of ice crystals, most of which are branched, star shaped, or mixed with unbranched crystals. At temperatures HIGHER than about -5 ”C, the crystals are generally agglomerated into snowflakes. Dry Snow: Form BELOW freezing temperature, can be blown if loose, or if compacted by hand will fall apart. Can be easily brushed off. Wet Snow: Form ABOVE freezing temperature, if compacted by hand will stick together. More difficult to remove than Dry Snow. Compacted Snow: Snow compressed into a solid mass that resists further compression and will hold together or break into chunks if picked up.

Answer 67

Permissible Ice: Light coatings of frost up to 1/8 in (3 mm) in thickness on Lower Wing Surfaces (due to cold fuel). Thin hoar frost on the upper surface of the fusalage provided that all vents and ports are clear. Impermissible Ice: All Leading Edge Devices, Control surfaces and Upper Wing Surfaces must be free of ice and snow. Ice ridges of any size on Lower Wing Surfaces.

Answer 68

Water run down resulting from snow removal may re-freeze immediately forward of static ports and cause an ice build up which causes disturbed airflow over the static ports and causes errornous static reading (even though static ports themselves are clear). Under poor lightings or when wings are wet, clear ice is very difficult to detect. Upper and lower wing surface of the aircraft should be closely inspected. If snow (or ice crystals) is not adhering to the wing surface, the application of de/anti-icing fluid to the wing could result in the snow (or ice crystals) sticking to the fluid. Refuelling with warmer fuel than the wing skin temperature may cause previously non adhering contaminants to adhere to the wing surfaces. APU door/flap must be free of impacted snow or ice and unobstructed prior to APU start.

Answer 69

Type I Fluids: Orange. Formulated to remove ice, snow and frost. Provides a short period of anti-icing protection. At approximately below -30 °C, some heated Type I Fluids are no longer effective. Type II Fluids: Colourless or Pale Straw. Formulated to prevent formation of unabsorbed frozen contamination for a longer yet limited period of time than de-icing fluids. Type III Fluids: Light Yellow. Not approved by KA. Type IV Fluids: Emerald green. Can last for a significantly longer period of time than Type I Fluids.

Answer 70

The OAT or aircraft skin temperature below which the fluid must be be used. Defined by the higher of: 1. The lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test for a given aircraft type 2. The actual freezing point of the fluid + Freezing point buffer (10 deg °C for type I fluid, and 7 °C for Types II, III, or IV fluid)

Answer 71

The Wing must be sprayed first and thus becomes the most critical surface. If they are clean at the Pre-takeoff inspection, it can be assumed that the rest of the aircraft is clean. Aircraft must be treated symmetrically. Repeated application of Type II or IV fluids without subsequent application of Type I or hot water, may cause a residue to collect in aerodynamically quiet areas. This residue may rehydrate or freeze under certain conditions, blocking or impeding critical flight control system. Engineering Department is to monitor the application of de/anti-icing fluid to determine whether additional checks or maintenance action are required. Under NO circumstances can an aircraft that has been anti-iced receive a further coating of cold neat fluid directly on top of the existing film. Should it be necessary for an aircraft to be re-protected prior to flight, external surfaces must first be de-iced with hot mixed fluid before a further application of anti-ice fluid is made. Precaution must be taken to minimize de-icing fluid ingestion with engines running. As temperature decrease, de/anti-icing fluids generally become more viscous and have an increased negative effect on aerodynamics.

Answer 72

Commences at beginning of Anti-Icing treatment. (\*NOT De-Icing) Commander is responsible for the application of the data. Where single times in the HOT table, no adjustments are necessary for precipitation rates. Generic holdover charts for Type I, II and IV fluids are to be used when specific fluid data is not available. HOT depends on: Type and rate of precipitation (FZFG, SN, SG, GS, FRDZ, -FZRA, RA on cold soaked wing, NOT assessed for GR, FZRA, +FZRA, +SN), ambient temperature, relative humidity, wind direction and velocity, aircraft surface (skin) temperature, and de/anti-icing fluid type, fluid/water ratio, temperature. Lower HOT value represents fluid performance for moderate precipitation conditions exceeds which a Pre-Takeoff Contamination INSPECTION shall be completed by a visual inspection from the CABIN of the upper wing surfaces within 5 minutes prior to the commencement of takeoff by a CREW MEMBER. Higher HOT value represents fluid performance for light precipitation conditions exceeds which a Pre-Takeoff Contamination CHECK shall be conducted within 5 minutes prior to the commencement of takeoff EXTERNALLY by GROUND CREW. Any icing, doubt or inspection/check not done, aircraft must return for additional de/anti-icing. Once the HOT clock has been started it must not be stopped for intermittent precipitation as fluids becomes diluted and easily flow off as precipitation falls on the aircraft. The freezing point of the fluid becomes higher as well. Improving weather condition: Retain original HOT Worsening weather condition: New HOT should be established

Answer 73

Engineering should complete the de/anti-icing field. Commander is approved to complete the field as well. \*De/Anti-icing field is not part of the Airworthiness Certificate of Release.

Answer 74

Based on visibility. RVR must NOT be used. Input: Daylight / Darkness, Temperature Range, Visibility Output: Snowfall Intensity The output from this table OVERRIDES METAR's Snowfall Intensity.

Answer 75

If the precipitation condition stop at, or before, the time limit of the table and does not restart, the aircraft may takeoff up to 90 minutes after the start of the application of the Type IV anti-icing fluid. Under the following conditions, the OAT must REMIAN CONSTANT or INCREASE during the 90 minute period. Light ice pellets mixed with light or moderate freezing drizzle Light ice pellets mixed with light freeezing rain Light ice pellets mixed with light rain Light ice pellets mixed with moderate rain

Answer 76

The aircraft is approved for operation in atmosphere icing conditions, according to Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM), but it is based on certification design standard (icing condition). Certification does not cover large concentrations of super-cooled liquid water droplets (SLD). Thus flight shall not commence or proceed into areas of known severe icing conditions.

Answer 77

Departure and Arrival Permitting: -FZDZ, -FZRA Departure and Arrival Not Permitting: FZDZ, +FZDZ, FZRA, +FZRA Departure Not Permitting: GS (Small Hail), PL (Ice Pellet) mixed with any other form of precipitation, +PL Departure Permitting: PL mixed with BR, FG or FZFG (Defined as obstructions rather than precipitations) \*Pilot shall make a No-Go decision if prohibited precipitation is observed, even if it is not included in ATIS or METAR.

Answer 78

Flight deck door must remain closed while the internal avionics hatch is open. If on arrival the aircraft the flight deck door is closed, crew shall enter door code to activate buzzer. Flight crew could enter and remain on the flight deck with caution. Cabin Crew and Non-Engineering Ground Staff are not permitted on the filght deck until the hatch has been closed.

Answer 79

Preferable to be managed by Flight Crew Flight Crew must be fully briefed by Ground Engineer Captain must be in Control Seat and remains fully responsible for the safety of the passengers on board and ordering any emergency evacuation if required Captain must monitor the run from commencement until completion All other flight deck duties should be deferred until completion

Answer 80

All KA Flight Deck and Cabin Crew with duties on tarmic area around the aircraft should wear an Overest. Crews shall annotate the CAR if a vest is missing.

Answer 81

Passenger's behaviour or condition is LIKELY to cause safety or security problems inflight The action is necessary to PREVENT violation of any laws, regulations or orders of any State or country to be flown to or over visa or passport problems Passengers suffering from Communicable Disease Passengers because of severe physical incapacitation or infirmity, are unable to care for themselves, unless accompanied by a responsible attendant. Normal pregnancies exceeding Thirty-sixth Weeks (9 months). For any doubts contact Company Approved Doctor Passenger THOUGHT to be under influence of drugs or alcohol (No company employee should volunteer an opinion, but should obtain statements from independent witnesses.) Passenger's behavior causes a safety hazard or make him/herself objectionable to other passengers or cabin crew For Medical Cases Form of Indemnity could be signed by passenger and acceptance deided by company Approved Doctor

Answer 82

If weather, technical or other problems make it undesirable, Commanders retain the authority to Delay Passenger Boarding. If the technical delay is estimated by Maintenance Control or the Licenced Engineer is less than 30 minutes, it is desirable to board passengers. If exceeds 30 minutes, passengers should be boarded when it is estimated to be within 30 minutes of completion, except if an engine run is required at higher than idle power, or if the Flight Deck Crew have been denied access to the cockpit for pre-flight preparation.

Answer 83

Air Traffic Services must be used for all flights whenever available. A flight must NOT be commenced unless an ATS flight plan has been submitted, or adequate information has been deposited in order to permit alerting services to be activated if required. IFR flight plan must not be cancelled even though encountering VMC. Flight into uncotrolled airspace is generally prohibited but is allowed to be conducted as a Charter Flight under approval of Director Operations. When ATC notify the Commander / PIC that the aircraft position is in error, the Commander / PIC shall report the notification with all relevant details by ASR.

Answer 84

Due to coding constraints some "at" altitude constraints shown on Navtech charts may be shown as "at or above" in NDB. In this case the chart shall be considered to be the definitive version unless a Company NOTAM to the contrary has been issued. NDB code as "at or above" instead of "at" due to prevention of Errorneous Fuel Prediction in the Case of Desent with Two Altitude Constraints. If the segment between the two constraints is defined as a geometric segment and is considered too deep, the fuel prediction would assume half speed-brake extension for ENTIRE geometric segment resulting in an over-estimation of fuel required. Magnetic variation applied by RNAV system might be marginally different than the magnetic variation used by SID/STAR Charts due to RNAV systems navigate by True North and displays magnetic course for pilot reference using integral magnetic variation table which is different from procedure designer. Generally course difference of 3° or less are operationally acceptable. Charts and Terrain Databasea are all based on WGS-84 standard. If charted co-ordinates are not WGS-84, positional discrepancy will occur.

Answer 85

RNAV (Area Navigation): Uses aeronautical information from a Navigation Database that contains pre-stored information on ground-based navaids, runways, waypoints, ATS Routes and terminal procedures, etc. It does not include a requirement for performance monitoring and alerting. RNAV with PBN permits flight in any airspace within prescribed accuracy tolerances without the need to fly directly over ground-based navigation facilities. RNP (Required Navigation Performance): Indentical to RNAV except with on-boarding navigation monitoring and alerting to non-compliance, based on a navigation performance accuracy value that is expected to be achieved at least 95% of the time by the population of aircraft operating within the airspace. RNAV-10 / RNP-10: For Oceanic and Remote Continental Navigation. RNP-10 does NOT incorporate the need for on-board monitoring or alerting and thus is equivalent to RNAV-10. Does NOT require any ground-based Navaid infrastructure, but requires at least two sets of on-board long-range navigation system (IRS/FMS, INS, GPS). Allows minimum lateral route spacing of 50 nm where ground-based naigation aids, communciations, and surveillance are available. RNAV-5: For En-route and Terminal Navigation of Continental Routes. Uses a variety of available navigation aids, both satellite and ground. The navigation sensors must be at least one INS or IRS with appropriate updating by GNSS, DME/DME, VOR/DME or VOR. Normally requires radar coverage and direct voice communications. Shown on ATS Flight Plan as B1. RNAV-2, RNAV-1: For En-Route and Terminal Navigation, where radar surveillance and direct ground-to-air communications are available. The navigation sensor may be GNSS, DME/DME, or DME/DME/IRU. Shown on ATS Flight Plan as C1 and D1 respectively. RNP-4: For Oceanic and Remote Continental Navigation. Does NOT require any ground-based navigation aid infrastructure. The navigation sensor could either be a stand-alone navigation system or as part of a multi-sensor system. Minimum operational requirements to enter RNP-4 airspace are at least 2 fully serviceable independent Long-range Navigation systems (GNSS) capable of navigation to RNP-4, ADS-C and either voice communications or CPDLC to support the minimum route spacing of 30 nm x 30 nm. Shown on the ATS Flight Plan as L1. Basic RNP-1 / P-RNAV (Precision Area Navigation): For En-route and Terminal Navigation. Allow connecting routes to be developed that link the en-route environment with terminal areas having little or no radar coverage and a low-to-medium traffic density. GNSS is the primary navigation sensor and RAIM is used to ensure integrity. Strict safety assessment is required for use of DME/DME navigation based on RNAV. Minimum requirements for Basic RNP-1 / P-RNAV are at least 1 FMS, with 1 GNSS or 1 DME. ATC must be informed immediately in the event of equipment degradation below the minimum requirement together with the proposed course of action. Shown on the ATS Flight Plan as O1. RNP APCH: Designed with straight segment, with accuracy normally being \> 0.3 nm. GNSS is the primary navigation aid. Shown on ATS Flight Plan as S1 or S2. Missed Approach segment may be based on RNAV or conventinoal navigation procedures. Does NOT include specific requirements for communication or surveillance. RNP AR (Authorization Required) APCH: Requiring special regulatory approval and is normally used where there is complex terrain and limited airspace. Accuracy is normally between 0.3 nm to 0.1 nm subject to aircraft FM and autopilot capability. GNSS is the only permitted navigation sensor. Does not include specific requirements for communication or surveillance. Shown on ATS Flight Plan as T1 or T2. RNP-2, RNP-1: Under Development RNP0.3, A-RNP: Not Applicable

Answer 86

EXCEPT for the Navaid providing lateral guidance for the FINAL approach Segment of an instrument approach procedure: Use of RNAV Equipment is suitable as a substitute means of navigation guidance when a VOR, NDB, Locator beacon, DME, etc are out of service or the aircraft is not equipped with conventional equipment such as ADF, or the aircraft's ADF is not operational. The aircraft's RNAV capability may be used to navigate to or from, hold over, determine position over a VOR, NDB, Locator Beacon, DME Fix, or named fix defined by VOR Course, NDB Bearing, Locator Beacon Bearing, or fly a DME Arc. RNAV only approaches without GPS updating shall NOT be conducted. Pilots shall NOT fly RNP-1 or less procedure unless it is retrievable by the procedure name from the NDB and conforms to the published procedure chart. The manual entry or creation of new waypoints, by manual entry of lat/long or place/bearing/distance values is NOT permitted. Pilots must NOT change any database waypoint from a flyby to a fly-over, or vice-versa. However the procedure may be modified by insertion or deletion of specific waypoints in response to ATC clearance. Primary navigation capability is derived from the FMS updated by GPS (GNSS). There is NO requirement to tune navigation aids for most RNAV procedures. Raw data may be used to verify correct tracking. GNSS is a system providing Position, Velocity and Timing (PVT) information and includes one or more satellite constellations. GNSS consists of USA GPS, Russian GLONASS, European Union GALILEO and Chinese COMPASS satellite constellations and their augmentation systems. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM), a form of Aircraft-Based Augmentation System (ABAS) of GNSS, combines GNSS FD (Fault Detection) or FDE (Fault Detection and Exclusion) and uses an IRS or RNAV system using multiple DME inputs at short periods of poor satellite geometry, is required where the state permits GPS as the sole means of navigation in remote or oceanic areas, but is NOT required when the system is integrated with other avionics such as IRS and RNAV/DME/DME. ABAS equipped aircraft with FD and FDE can support RNP operations down to \>0.3 nm without RAIM prediction. If GPS approach is the sole means of approach available at destination, destination alternate, or an en-route alternate, GPS PRIMARY availability MUST be verified prior to flight. This can be verified via NOTAM and/or Company NOTAM. At least one non-GPS based approach procedure must be available at takeoff alternate if one is nominated. RNP AR Approaches are designed with TF-RF legs or RF-RF legs. The protection area along the flight path is 2 x RNP while the obstacles clearance along the flight path is 4 x RNP. Track-to-Fix (TF) route is defined by geodesic path between two waypoints. Radius-to-Fix (RF) segment is a circular path about a defined turn centre that terminates and terminating at a waypoint. For missed approach with a RF leg, autopilot should automatically reengage in NAV or the crew must be able to manually engage by 400' AAL.

Answer 87

It is prohibited to operate a flight of over 500 nm through any part of a Schedule 8 Navigation Area, unless article 18(4) of the AN(HK)O is complied with. AN(HK)O: Unless navigational equipment approved by the Chief Executive and used in accordance with any conditions subject to which that approval may have been given. PRO-SPO-52: The following equipment shall be serviceable at pre-dispatch and inflight before entering a Schedule 8 Navigation Area: 2 FMS, 2 GPS or 2 MMR, 2 DME, 2 VOR, 1 ADF (2 ADF for any route with NDB only segments), 1 Wx RADAR. If the navigation equipment above becomes unserviceable to the extent that it AFFECTS navigation accuracy, the commander may continue on the flight planned route provided ATC can confirm appropriate navigation by radar, otherwise the commander has to navigate the aircraft to an area where normal navigation can be resumed as expeditiously as possible,

Answer 88

Allows less restrictive separation standards to be applied by use of GPS position and broadcast outside radar coverge. It is a surveillance that transmit a number o aircraft parameters via a broadcast datalink that is available to any airborne or ground-based receiver within range of about 240 nm. ADS-B inforation is broadcast without any knowledge of which users may be receiving it and without the expectation of an acknowledgement or reply. ATS Flight Plan, L denotes Mode S transponder with Flight ID and B1 denotes ADS-B with decicated 1090 MHz ADS-B OUT capability. To preserve SSR or TCAS operations, do not switch off the transponder or altitude reporting when isntructed to stop transmitting ADS-B data or altitude. Thus KA aircrafts are UNABLE to stop ADS-B transmission. In case of ADS failure, resume normal position reporting by vice or CPDLC. Squawking emergency code (7500/7600/7700) will generate a generic "EMG" tag on the controller's situation display in ADS airspace (Outside radar control). If flight crew do not verbally communicate the nature of the emergency to ATC, the controller will intiate procedures for suspected Unlawful Interference using the phraseology "Callsign, confirm Sqquawking ####". If still no response received from the pilot, ATC will assume the possibility of unlawful interference. ATC: Advice ADS-B capability. Pilot Response: ADS-B transmitter, ten ninety datalink.

Answer 89

The FCU altimeter setting and the barometric subscale on the standby and metric altimeter (if installed) are to be set to QNH. PRIMARY method of conversion shall be the "m QFE: ft QNH" CONVERSION TABLE on the appropriate SID, STAR or Approach Chart. \*ZGNN has m QFE Vs ft QNH table for each RWY on NavTech Chart. (50-0-1/2) If the cleared height is NOT shown in the conversion table, use the Metric Conversion Card to convert the cleared height in Metres to an equivalent value in Feet, then add the aerodrome elevation. The resultant values in Feet shall be rounded to the nearest 100'. e.g. QFE 550 m = 1900' AAL + 243' Elevation = 2143' AMSL round down to 2100' AMSL.

Answer 90

Not a replacement for a proficient out-of-the-window visual scan. TA mode may be required during in-flight failure. Otherwise TA/RA shall be selected for all phases of flight. Where a conflict exists between the RA commanded manouevre and an ATC instruction, the commanded RA manouevre shall be followed. Climb and descent rates should be limited to a maximum of 1000 fpm when in close vertical proximity to other traffic and approaching the assigned level to minimize nuisance TCAS warnings. MEL: TCAS Inop: Aircrfaft NOT transitting HK: May be inoperative for a maximum of 10 calender days. Aircraft transitting HK: Must be serviceable ex HKG unless it is found unserviceable during pre-flight checks in which case the defect can be deferred in the AML for rectification at, or prior to, the next HKG Transit. There is NO requirement to annotate the Flight Plan or declare to ATC if the TCAS is unserviceable provided that aircraft Transponder is reporting altitude. \*Transponder: Reporting Altitude (Transmitting) \*TCAS: Visualize other Aircraft's Altitude (Receiving\*\*\*)

Answer 91

Any airspace between FL290 and FL410 (inclusive) [China RVSM FL291 (8,900 m) to FL411 (12,500 m) (inclusive)] where aircraft are separated vertically by 1000' instead of 2000'. Shown on ATS Flight Plan as W. PRO-SPO-50: RVSM regulations require the following equipments in order to be operative: 2 ADR + 2 DMC, 1 Transponder, 1 Autopilot function, 1 FCU Channel (for altitude target selection ad OP CLB/OP DES mode engagement), 2 PFD Functions (for altitude indication), 1 FWC (for altitude alert function) If a flight deviates by 300' or more from a cleared flight level while in RVSM airspace, an ASR is to be completed. Lines Ops should also be notified via CAR. If wake turbulence is encountered in RVSM airspace, ASR is to be completed. Metres readout on the PFD will not necessarily correspond to the cleared flight level in metres due to rounding differences which should never be more than 30 m (approximately 100').

Answer 92

Continuously assessment of FOB to ensure fuel is available for: 1. Proceed from present position to destination 2. Make an approach to land 3. Divert o an alternate, with 5% contingency Fuel 4. Hold for 30 min at 1500' and carry out an approach and landing.

Answer 93

Fuel on arrival close to MDF: Decision of divert or continue must be made prior to passing overhead or abeam the last suitable ERA.

Answer 94

If it becomes obvious EN-ROUTE that the flight will arrive at destination with LESS THAN MDF, it is permissible to continue to destination provided: 1. EN-ROUTE and PRIOR TO Descent for Destination Airport * The airport has 2 independent runways suitable for landing. * The ACTUAL and FORECAST weather for the ETA at the Destination Airport indicate weather conditions at or above the Non-Precision Alternate Planning Minima and the Crosswind is within aircraft limits. * There are no known or probable ATC delays. * Fuel remaining is sufficient to continue to destination, + 5% contingency fuel from overhead or abeam the last suitable en-route airport, + 30 min holding at 1500' and carry out an approach and landing. \*As a guide, planning to land at the destination airport with less than 45 min fuel remaining should not normally be considered. Commanders should NOT plan to land at destination with only 30 min fuel remaining. \*When only 1 runway is available during the night period in HK, the crew MUST confirm through IOC that the second runway will be made available in short notice if the above policy is applied. 1. AFTER Commencing Descent Fuel Remaining on Landing will be at least equal to Reserve Fuel Commander must CONSIDER all relevant factors with particular reference to the reason for teh delay, weather deterioration, and runway availability at the destination and the alternate.

Answer 95

Although the Alterante Fuel on CFP incoludes 5% contingency, the possibility of step climbs, lower than planned FL and delays on arrival may make it prudent to commence diversion prior to reaching MDF.

Answer 96

Minimum Fuel for Landing: 1. Commander/PIC shall declare "MINIMUM FUEL" when have commited to land at a specific aerodrome, any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned Final Reserve. \*NOT MDF (Applicable to Alternate Dropped or After Diversion) 2. Commander/PIC shall declare "MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL" when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is LESS THAN the planned Final Reserve Fuel.

Answer 97

Cost index should NOT be used when it results in flight arriving AHEAD of schedule, unless this has been specifically requested by IOC. Flight Crew must ensure sufficient fuel si available before selecting a CI higher than the planned CFP CI. The use of CI greater than 150 should only be used to guarantee an arrival before a published Airport Curfew, or when Crew Duty Hours are critical.

Answer 98

Leading Following Separation Takeoff A380 Medium 3 min (7 nm) Heavy Medium 2 min (5 nm) A380 Heavy 2 min (6 nm) Heavy Heavy 1.5 min (4 nm) Landing A380 Medium 7 nm (3 min) A380 Heavy 6 nm (2 min) Heavy Medium 5 nm (2 min) Heavy Heavy 4 nm (1.5 min)

Answer 99

Two Qualified Pilots at the controls wearing Full Seat Harness with their seats secured in the Optimum Position: (+Rudder Pedals and Armrests are Correctly Positioned) Takeoff, initial Climb, Descent, Approach and Landing, In-flight Turbulence \*No rules regarding Full Seat Harness shall be worn during TAXI but will be wise to have those secured due to possibility of sudden lock of wheel brakes during taxi. Only Seat Belts may be worn: Established in Climb and Cruise During cruise if one pilot vacated his seat for short periods, the remaining pilot shall wear the full seat harness until both pilots are once again seated at the controls. The pilot's seats are NOT to be occupied by unqualified persons. The designated Commander and Co-pilot shall occupy their normal control seats: UNTIL the aircraft reaches its initial cruise altitude Shall resume their normal seats PRIOR to the commencement of descent to landing. The Commander shall always occupy the left hand seat except when a Training Captain has been designated as Commander in the Right Hand Seat. Any pilot (except a Training Captain) not occupying their normal control seat in cruise may only carry out PM duties.

Answer 100

Sterile Flight Deck Period: 1. From engine start or when the aircraft first moves until reaching cruise altitude and the Flight Crew establishes communications with the Cabin Crew. 2. From Captain's PA "Cabin Crew 30 minutes to Landing" until the aircraft is parked at the arrival gate and the seat belt signs are selected off. During Sterile Flight Deck Period, Cabin Crew communication with the Flight Crew shall be restricted to urgent safety and security issues only. Shall high Flight Deck Workload prevent a call from the cabin being answered immediately, Cabin Crew Member who initiate the call shall inform FA1. When workload permites, the Flight Crew shall then contact the FA1 for details. Access to the Flight Deck of cabin crew shall NOT normally permitted unless initiated by the Flight Crew.

Answer 101

When revenue passengers are carried, the cockpit door shall be closed and locked immediately following the report from the FA1 that all passengers are on board and aircraft door closed. Except for crew entry / exit, the cockpit door shall remain closed and locked until engine shutdown. Authorized persons wishing to gain access to the cockpit shall either make a routine access request using the cockpit door keypad or call on the interphone. They must then position in front of the cockpit door for identification. The COMMANDER, when satisfied with the security states of the person and having cheked the surrounding area using all available caeras, may authorize access to the cockpit using the toggle switch on the Cockpit Door Panel or Deadbolt as applicable. If the Commander is absent from the flight deck this responsibility is delegated to the PF. Passengers are NOT permitted to visit the Flight Deck on an ad hoc basis during flight. Specifically authorized Dragonair and Cathay Pacific Management Staff may, at the discretion of the Commander, vist the flight deck and make use of the flight deck jump seat for ALL phases of flight, whilst giving due consideration to 8.3.1.9 (Sterile Flight Deck Procedure). Management Staff authorized will be in possession of a LETTER OF APPROVAL issued by DO and Staff ID for identification purposes and shall enter and leave the cockpit UNDER ESCORT by a cabin crew member. Authorized Jump Seat passengers may leave or re-enter the Flight Deck during flight, provided it is done quietly and discreetly and the flight Deck door is closed and locked without delay.

Answer 102

Except for ferry flights without operating Cabin Crew, whenever a pilot or a two-pilot operating crew leaves the Flight Deck, a member of the Cabin Crew shall enter the Flight Deck PRIOR to the Flight Crew member leaving AND be SEATED on the jumpseat until the absent Flight Crew member returns. There is no requirement for a Cabin Crew member when there are one or more authorized persons occupying a flight deck jumpseat. All persons using the jumpseat are to wear the seatbelt (lapstrap).

Answer 103

Unserviceable Cockpit Door Surveillance System (CDSS): An additional crewmember (who may be a riding engineer / loadmaster) must be carried on the jump seat for the entire flight. This person is to provide VISUAL CONFIRMATION of the identity of persons wishing to gain access to the cockpit and to OPERATE the deadbolt mechannism if required. Should the third crewmember need to leave the cockpit at any time after pushback, another crewmember must position to the cockpit in their absence. Unserviceable Cockpit Door Locking System (CDLS) (CDSS Serviceable): An additional crewmember or authorized person (in accordance with Ops Manual Part A 8.3.1.11, excluding children) must be carried on the jump seat for the entire flight to assist with deadbolt operation. The COMMANDER will confirm the identity fo the person wishing to gain access to the cockpit through the CDSS by using all available cameras and when satisfied, the Commander will INSTRUCT the jump seat person to unlatch and relatch the deadbolt mechanism. Should the jump seat person need to leave the cockpit at any time after pushback, a crewmember must position to the cockpit in their absence.

Answer 104

1. Any Operating Crewmember 2. Any person authorized by the HKCAD in any aeroplane operated in accordance with an AOC issued by that Authority 3. On ground before engien start, aircraft movement or on engine shutdown on arrival on stand, persons required by reasons of their duty. The Commander may request identification of such persons before granting admission and has the final decision to REFUSE entry to the flight deck if he feels the safety of the aircraft will be jeopardised. Flight Operations Department has sole discretion over the control and RELEASE of a flight deck jump seat. When NO passenger seats are available in the aircraft cabin, the Commander has authority to release the jump seat for use by authorized passengers. Passengers authorized to be allocated the jump seat at check-in shall be able to speak and understand the English language, be twelve years of age or greater, and be one of the following: 1. Current staff of Dragonair or Cathay Pacific Airways 2. Retired Flight Deck Crew Members and Directors of Dragonair or Cathay Pacific Airways in possession of a Retiree Card 3. Immediate family members of current Dragonair or Cathay Pacific Airways, restricted to husband / wife, children and father / mother of any current KA / CX staff. This does NOT include brother / sister or any other relative or travel companions 4. Officers of the HKCAD on official duty carrying appropriate verifiable ID 5. Persons specifically authorized by DO or GMF to travel on the jump seat on that flight. Commanders willl be informed of the relevant circumstances. Persons specifically approve by DO or GMF and crew members performing "CHECK AND TRAINING" duties have priority in the use of the jump seats over other authorized passengers listed above and CAN be allocated the jump seat even when passenger seats are available in the aircraft cabin. When check and training duties are being undertaken the Commander CANNOT release either jump seat, except Commander may exercise discretion on cases of Landing Recency and Line Continuation Training, or one-off approval granted by DOM, or simulator instructors and other operations staff on approved TRAINING flights for the purposes of route familiarization. The Commander shall ensure that any person occupying a jump seat is made familiar with the position and method of the use of emergency exists, safety belts, oxygen equipment and life jackets by reference to the cockpit passenger briefing card. Flight deck passengers should be instructed not to distract the pilots and to avoid conversation during periods of high work load. Alcoholic Beverages are not to be served to persons occupying jump seat(s).

Answer 105

For Takeoff and Landing, only allowed to be occupied by following physically fit person: 1. Safety Qualified Staff (KA/CX ID card with a white background (Crew Member), or in possession of a current Certificate of competency on any current KA/CX aircarft type.) 2. Licensed Engineers travelling on DUTY Travel Pregnant passengers may not travel on a Crew Seat after the end of the 26th week of pregnancy. Staff occupying a Cabin Crew seat shall prominently display their KA/CX ID Card at all times. Cabin Crew coverage should not be compromised, especially during takeoff or landing, by moving Cabin Crew from their designated stations. In exceptional circumstances (e.g. for compassionate reasons), Operations Division (DO or his designate) may authorize the use of vacant Cabin Crew seats. The Commander, FA1 and Airport Services Manager (Duty Manager) will be informed. Alcoholic Beverages shall not be served to persons occupying vacant Cabin Crew Seats.

Answer 106

Defined as any condition which affects the health of a crew member during the performance of duties which renders him incapable of performing the assigned duties. Syptoms include incoherent speech, strange behaviour, irregular breathing, pale fixed facial expression, jerky motions that are either delayed or too rapid. Recognition: 1. Routine monitoring and cross-checking of flight instruments during critical phases of flight 2. Suspect a "subtle incapacitation" if * A crew member does not respond appropriately to two verbal communications * A crew member does not respond to a verbal communication associated with a significant deviation from a standard flight profile. Recovery Action: The fit pilot must assume control and return the aircraft to a safe flight path, announce "I have control", use the take-over pushbutton and engage Autopilot Take whatever steps to ensure the incapacitated pilot cannot interfere with the handling of the aircraft, involving cabin crew to restrain the incapacitated pilot. Apply FCOM "Crew Incapaitation" procedure. The fit pilot MUST land as soon as practicable after considering all pertinent factors. Arrange medical assistance after landing giving as any details about the condition of the affected crewember as possible. The normal line of command: 1. The Nominated Pilot in Charge 2. The Safety Pilot 3. The First Officer 4. The Junior First Officer 5. The Second Officer In case of incapacitation of the Commander, the pilot assuming command is to operate from his/her normal control seat if possible. He/She will exercise judgement in deciding whether to return, continue to the destination or to land at an interediate airfield with medical facilities. After landing, the pilot who has assumed command is to notify Operations giving details of the Commander's disability and will await further instructions, and raise a MOR (Mandatory Occurence Report). If number of cabin crew is reduced below the minimum required in the event of incapacitation, consider 1. Reduction of Passenger Number 2. Reseating of passengers regard to exits and applicable aircraft limitations 3. Relocation of cabin crew and any change of procedures

Answer 107

Delay takeoff or Go Around as appropriate

Answer 108

Operations on RWY with ICAO Friction Coefficient at or less than 0.25 MU (Poor Braking) are not permitted, unless an emergency condition dictates an immediate landing is required.

Answer 109

The Commander may not commence a takeoff when the RVR, or cloud ceiling where required, is below the minima specified for takeoff. If multiple RVRs are reported, all reported RVRs must be at or above the minima. When RVR is not reported, the Commander may assess the RVR by noting the number of runway lighs visible form the aircraft, providing the spacing of these lights is known (ICAO Standard spacing for Runway Edge Lighting: 60 m) Pilot assessment may ONLY be used for the purpose of RVR evaluation for takeoff. If lower state or Dragonair LVO takeoff minima have been approved, these figures will be shown in parentheses. If takeoff minima are not published on the airport chart, state minima should be obtained from the appropriate authority. If they cannot be obtained, the following minima apply: 1. If High Intensity Runway edge Lights (HREDL) AND Runway centreline Lights (RCLL) AND Runway Centreline Markings (RCL) are available, Zero Ceiling, 200 m RVR 2. If HREDL OR RCLL OR RCL are available or where the runway is marked in such a manner that the pilot at all times has visual reference to the line of forward motion during the takeoff run, zero ceiling, 400 m RVR 3. Other cases, zero ceiling, 800 m RVR

Answer 110

When takeoff weather conditions at the departure airport are below those required for landing, or other operational conditions exist that would preclude a return to the aerodrome of departure, takeoff is prohibited unless an alternate airport is available within: 1. 500 nm for 3 or 4 engined aircraft, unless operated in accordance with EDTO. 2. 340 nm for 2 engined aircraft, unless operated in accordance with EDTO. Pre-dispatch aircraft serviceability must be considered when calculating the departure airport landing minima. The takeoff alternate shall be filed on the ATS Flight Plan. Weather conditions at the Takeoff Alternate must be at or above the CAT 1 Landing Minima (or the minima for the approach in use if no ILS available). Operation to the takeoff alternate shall be predicated on one-engine inoperative operation. Consieration shall be given to enroute terrain clearance and weather.

Answer 111

Unless stated on the Port Page, the minimum altitude for initiating a turn after takeoff is 400' AAL.

Answer 112

All gradient requirements depicted on SID and Approach charts are for ALL Engines Operating. If any Company aircraft is unable to achieve the required terrain clearance with an engine inoperative, an aircraft type-specific Engine Inoperative procedure will be detailed on the relevant port page. ALL Engines Operating during initial climb prior to the acceleration for flap retraction based on the most restrictive RWY KMG RWY 04, ISA + 15 °C MINIMUM Achievable Initial Climb Gradient A320 A320M A321 A330 A330 Takeoff Max RTOW 12.44% 12.44% 12.57% 11.55% 11.55% 64.5T 66.0T 75.5T 182.0T 187.0T Missed Approach MLW 12.40% 12.07% 12.97% 12.85% 11.82%

Answer 113

If SID or Departure Clearance specifies "Maintain Runway Heading", it is implied that a drift correction WILL BE applied to maintain runway track. (Equivalent to Maintain Runway Track), exceptions are USA, Canada and Australia.

Answer 114

Present Aircraft Location, Altitude and States Flight progress in relation to Planned Time and Fuel Schedule Significant Route, Destination and Alternate Weather Controlling ACC and frequencies in Use Specific Instructions by Controlling ACC at cariance with Planned CFP Any Aircraft Unserviceability Fuel Management Status Relevant Traffic

Answer 115

Below MSA request to hold at greater than published in the table should not be considered as this may result in the aircraft flying outside the obstacle protected area. Locally imposed holding speeds may supercede this table. AMSL PAN-OPS 3/4 PAN-OPS TERPS TIME \>34,000' M0.83 240 kts\* 265kts 1.5 min \<=34,000' 265 kts\* 240 kts\* 265 kts 1.5 min \<=20,000' 240 kts\* 240 kts\* 265 kts 1.5 min \<=14,000' 230 kts\* 220 kts\* 230 kts 1 min \<=6,000' 230 kts\* 210 kts\* 200 kts 1 min \*May be increased up to 280 kts / M0.80 for flight in turbulent conditions but may not afford obstacle protection below MSA. PAN-OPS 3/4: HK, China, Macau, India, Korea (e.g. RKPC, RKSI), Vietnam, Thailand, Laos, Sri Lanka PAN-OPS: Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Japan (When hold over a Navaid), Brunei, Cambodia, Singapore TERPS: Taiwan (280 kt / M 0.8), Korea (e.g. RKPK), Japan (When hold over a Navaid)

Answer 116

Approved: ILS, ILS/DME, LOC, LOC/DME, VOR, VOR/DME, NDB, NDB/DME, RNAV(RNP), RNAV(GNSS), RNAV(GPS), GPS Additional Training Required: PAR, SRA Not yet Approved: RNP(AR) Not Approved: VHF DF Before Commencing an instrument approach, 1. An approved approach chart must be available to pilot. This does NOT apply to radar procedures. 2. ATC must confirm the Runway and Aid to be used are available. 3. The crew must be briefed in accordance with company procedures. NOTAM must be checked for the availability of specific aids prior to departure. It must NOT be assumed that an Aid is available for use because specific AIrport Operating Minima (AOM) have been listed by Dragonair. If a let down aid or procedure is offered which AOM, OCL, OCA(H), or DA(H) are not given, then that aid or procedure is not authorized for use, except an emergency.

Answer 117

The Commander shall not commence the approach (i.e. Descend below 1,000' AAL or the published DA/DH/MDA/MDH, whichever is higher), unless 1. The reported RVR is at or above the published minima 2. If RVR is not reported, the reported visibility is at or above 800 m or the poi listed minima, whichever is higher 3. The reported cloud ceiling (if required by state minima) is at or above the published minima. The missed approach shall be INITIATED prior to passing 1,000 AAL or the published DA/DH/MDA/MDH, whichever is higher, if the applicable criteria above are not met. However if the reported conditions reduce below the published minima when the aircraft is below 1,000 AAL but above the published DA/DH/MDA/MDH, the Commander may continue the approach to the published DA/DH/MDA/MDH. If at the DA/DH/MDA/MDH the required visual reference is established, the Commader may continue to land. Effects of failed or downgraded ground equipment Approach Ban also applies if an aircraft or airport system failure necessitates a reversion to a degraded approach category UNLESS the RVRs reported are at or above the minima for the degraded approach category. Approach Ban applies for the following cases: MULTIPLE failure of RWY Lights other than indicated in table 8.3.6.4 CAT II or III operations - A combination of deficiencies in RWY Lights and RVR assessment equipment \*Deficiencies of APP Lights and RWY Lights are treated separately (Interpretation: Apply the one with more limiting RVR) \*Failures other than ILS affect RVR only and not DH

Answer 118

MIN DH TDZ RVR MID RVR RO RVR Visual Reference NPA - - - - 7 Consecutive Lights, Maybe APP/RWY Lights \*If no APP Lights, TDZ or TH must be visible CAT I BARO 200' - 200 m Adv Sufficient Lights 150 m Autoland of the Approach and / or RWY Lighting System and 1 Row of Crossbar Lights or Barrettes \*If no APP Lights, TDZ or TH must be visible CAT II RA 100' 300 m 150 m Adv App Enviro & TH CAT IIIA RA 50' 200 m 150 m Adv\* 3 Centreline Lights CAT IIIB NO DH 75 m\*\* 75 m\*\* 75 m\*\* Not required \*MID RVR may be temporarily inoperative, In such cases, RO RVR reading is controlling and shall be at or above the published MID RVR minimum (150 m). \*\*Three transmissometers are required and are controlling. In the event that one transmissometer is temprarily inoperative, CAT3B operations may continue using the two remaining transmissionometers and both RVR reports are controlling.

Answer 119

Approach Light System includes RWY markings, App and RWY Lightings (Runway Edge Lights (REL), Threshold Lights, Runway End Lights and in some cases Touch-Down Zone Lights and/or RWY Centreline Lights (RCL)) Full Approach Lighting System (FALS): ICAO CAT I Precision Approach Lighting System (HIALS 720 m or more), distance coded Centreline, barrette centreline Intermediate Approach Lighting System (IALS): ICAO Simple Approach Lighting System (HIALS 420 m - 719 m), single source, barrettes Basic Approach Lighting System (BALS): Any other Approaching Lighting System (HIALS 210 m to 419 m), MIALS or ALS of 210 m or more No Approach Lighting System (NALS): (HIALS, MIALS or ALS less than 210 m), or NO Approach Lights

Answer 120

Visual Approach at NIGHT shall only be conducted at an airport to which the Commander has previously operated and is entirely familiar with the terrain affecting both the descent path and the area surrounding the airport. Minimum Visual Reference 1. Landing Runway Environment (Runway TH, APP Lighting, or other markings identifiable with the RWY) 2. Visibility along the intended flight path not less than 5 km \*When a thin layer of ground fog or mist is present at an airport in otherwise good visibility conditions, the minimum RVR for a visual approach must be 800 m, or the visibility required for a NPA to the runway of intended use, whichever is GREATER, regardless of the approach lighting or the time of day. Visual reference is lost: Discontinue the Approach, advice ATC to ensure the appropriate procedure is followed Traffic and Vortex Separation: ATC retain responsibility until the crew has made a call to ATC regarding traffic sighted

Answer 121

Missed Approach MUST be initiated if: 1. Aircraft is not Stabilized 2. Adequate Visual Reference has not been established BY DA/DH/MDA/MDH 3. Adequate Visual Reference is lost AFTER passing the DA/DH/MDA/MDH 4. AT DA/DH/MDA/MDH the aircraft is NOT placed such that a landing can safely be made within the touchdown area Missed Approach shall be executed NO LATER than Missed Approach Point (MAP) Level flight from MDA to the Missed Approach Point is NOT permitted EXCEPT in Circling Procedure. Missed Approach from a NPA using Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA) technique must be commenced before MDA/MDH by a figure not less than the Aircraft Allowance, A320/1: 35' A330: 50' ILS, Circling and RNAV(GNSS) to LNAV/VNAV Minima do NOT require Aircraft Allowance.

Answer 122

Strongly Recommended when visibility is LESS than 1,500 m OR cloudbase is below 300'. Autoland may only be completed by Captain except in cases of pilot incapacitation or other emergency. Autoland Approval are listed in Port Page. Autoland Approval does NOT suggest the ILS is suitable for LVO operations. It only represents satisfactory autolands have been demonstrated by 3 or more Dragonair Aircraft. When LVP are NOT in force, the protected areas of the ILS antennae may be infringed by aircraft or vehicles. The Commander must be prepared to revert to manual flight at any time during the Approach. Glidepath angle A320/1: -2.5° to -3.15° A330: -2.5° to -3.25° Maximum Aerodrome Elevation A320/1: 2,500' (FCOM-LIM-12: Max Runway Altitude 9,200') A330: 9,200' (FCOM-LIM-12: Max Runway Altitude 12,500')

Answer 123

Definition: Landing at any airport other than the scheduled Destination. CFP normally files closest SUITABLE airport as destination alternate when it meets the weather criteria for filing as a destination ALTERNATE. Non-commercially Preferred Alternate will be highlighted on the CFP. Shall a diversion is likely Commander should CONSIDER CHANGING the nominated Destination Alterante to the nearest SUITABLE and COMMERCIALLY PREFERRED ALTERNATE using the priority list on the CFP, or in consultation with IOC. Before diverting, co-ordinate selection of an alternate through IOC. A CX / KA online port is almost always preferable to an offline port. Further consideration on diversion due Wx: FTL --\> Refuel and Continue or Await Arrival of Relief Crew, Passenger Handling Aspects

Answer 124

AT LEAST 1 Cockpit Crew Member MUST remain onboard, whenever passengers are on the aircraft.

Answer 125

All flights shall continuously monitor the VHF Emergency Frequency 121.50 MHz, except for those periods when simulataneous monitoring may be limited due to flight deck duties.

Answer 126

Headsets must be used by the operating crew during periods of high cockpit workload and at all ties from the START CHECKLIST to TOP OF CLIMB (Previous: The HIGHER of 15,000' or the TRANSITION LEVEL) and from TOP OF DESCENT to SHUTDOWN. A handheld microphone may NOT be used by the operating crew when headsets are required to be worn.

Answer 127

Once a pilot departs from an ATC instruction or clearance in compliance with an RA, ATC ceases to be responsible for providing standard separation between that aircraft and other aircraft affected as a direct consequence of the manoeuvre induced by the RA instruction. ATC will resume responsibility for providin gstandard separation for all aircraft affected when: The controller acknowledges a report from the pilot fo the aircraft that has responded to the RA stating that it has resumed its assigned ATC clearance, or The controller acknowledges a report from the pilot of the aircraft that has responded to the RA, that it is returning to its assigned ATC clearance and then issues an alternative clearance that has been acknowledged by the pilot.

Answer 128

When a departing aircraft is cleared to climb above the initially cleared level or the levels specified in a SID, the aircraft shall stil lfollow the published vertical profile of the SID unless such restrictions are explicitly cancelled by ATC. (i.e. Receiving a "Climb 9000" at 2 nm before PORPA on SID means the PORPA -5000' restriction is still needed to be complied as it is apublished on the SID) Same situation applies when an arriving aircraft is cleared to descend below the initially cleared level or the levels specified in a STAR. (i.e. Receiving a "Descend FL110" at 3 nm before MUSEL on STAR means the MUSEL restriction is still needed to be complied as it is published in the STAR. Otherwise ATC will use the terinology "Level Restrictions Cancelled". If ATC issue an instruction that changes or cancels the SID or STAR route (e.g. placing the aircraft on a heading), the SID or STAR vertical constraints are autoatically cancelled. If ATC issues "Descend FL130, reach by ABBEY" and subsequently issue "Descend FL110" then the ABBEY restriction would no longer applly as there was no repetition nor is the restriction is published in the arrival procedure.

Answer 129

During aircraft taxi, takeoff, landing and flight below 15,000', except in cruise, Cockpit Crew should limit their activities to those required for the safe operation of the aircraft. Non-essential administration and communications should be reserved for less critical phases of flight.

Answer 130

NOT authorized for use by Flight Crew and Jump Seat Passengers whilst the aircraft is taxiing for Departure or after Landing until parked at the arrival gate and any crew briefing. Mobile phone use is authorized when the aircraft is parked at the boarding gate.

Answer 131

On welcome announcement Captain should ask passengers to pay particular attention to the safety briering. This briefing clearly lays out the Company policy on wearing seatbelts during flight. If turbulence is forecast, the commander should emphasise the importance of boserving the seatbelt sign for passengers own safety. If turbulence is anticipated on the initial climb, Commander will brief the Cabin crew with emphasis on remaining seated with seat belts securely fastened until clearance to commence the cabin service has been received from the Captain. During light turbulence: SEATBELT signs on by Captain All passengers will fasten their seatbelts Cabin crew shall check that all passengers are seated with seatbelts fastened and report to their section leaders Cabin crew may continue with their normal duties but hot beverages, noodles, soup etc MUST not be served Flight attendants should be prepared to discontinue service and stow all loose equipment at short notice. Moderate to Severe Turbulence: Captain make PA "Ladies and gentlemen. Please note that the seatbelt signs are switched on, cabin crew please be seated." (In case PA is u/s, backup by seatbelt signs recycle once.) Cabin Crew should immediately stow all loose equipment then sit in any convenient seat with their seatbelt fastened. PA Inoperative: Turbulent PA will be replaced by recycling seat belt sign once. All commands will be conveyed via Cabin Interphone. Brace Brace will be replaced by recycling seat belt sign 6 times or more. Cabin Ready CDSS Function Inoperative: PM should call FA1 on Cabin Interphone to confirm cabin is secure.

Answer 132

Park Brake Set: Clenched fist, palm side forward Park Brake Released: Open hand, fingers spread, and palm inside forward Require Ground Engineer to return to the aircraft: Flash the Runway Turnoff Light Twice

Answer 133

Welcome PA: Completed a few minutes before door close, NOT to be made during climb or descent Explain any delays Pay attention to safety brief Farewell PA Completed Prior to Top of Descent Revised ETA Destination Weather Bid farewell to the passengers and to thank them for choosing to fly with Dragonair.

Answer 134

PM MUST take control if he does not receive a response to a SECOND challenge any incapacitation check standard calls (e.g. 1000' Auto Call)

Answer 135

At 2000' AAL prior to Emergency Landing On Ground Emergency Rejected Takeoff If the Cabin Crew are not seated and an emergency or abnormal situation requires the crew to immediately return to their seats Canceleed by: "Cabin Crew Resume Duties." Backup when PA u/s: Interphone

Answer 136

NITSR Brief for FA1: Nature of Abnormal Intended Destination Time Available until Landing Special Instructions (e.g. Unserviceable / Unusuable exits and any other important instructions, Precautionary / Emergency Landing) Repeat of information by FA1 NIT Brief for Passenger: Nature for a Emergency Landing will be included. Announcement for a Precautionary Ladning will NOT be required unless there is a change of desgination or the situatino is obvious to the passengers (e.g. engine failure, electrical failures resulting in a loss of cabin lighting etc). Be clear and concise and care must be taken not to unduly alarm the passengers.

Answer 137

Precautionary Landing: When there has been an abnormal or emergency occurence where in the commander's opinion an emergency evacuation is NOT anticipated (e.g. Engine Failure) FA1 brief cabin staff to prepare the cabin for a POSSIBLE emergency evacuation. After Landing the Commander is to inform FA1 of his intentions. In the event that the Commander fails to do this, FA1 MUST contact the Flight Deck and ask the Commander for his intentions. Emergency Landing and Ditching In the NITSR Brief the special instruction MUST indicate which exists may be used and any other important information relating to the situation. FA1 then brief the other cabin staff.

Answer 138

Provides surveillance and direct controller-pilot communications capabilities to appropriately equipped aircraft BEYOND the range of existing radar and VHF voice. CPDLC Supports: Emergency Alerting Pilot-Controller downlink of ATC position reports, requests and queries Controller-Pilot uplink of ATC clearances, instructions and replies Free Text to supplement standard reports and clearance Area of Operations in KA Network: Chennai FIR, Japan Oceanic, Kolkata FIR, Mumbai FIR, Singapore, Mongolia CPDLC Logon: 15-45 min prior to STD when departing from airfields within CPDLC or before the relevant FIR boundary CPDLC Position reporting: When first entering or crossing an FIR Boundary, with additional report made on VHF, or HF with a SELCAL check (If unable to establish a CPDLC Connection, ATC should be adviced.) Emergency Procedures: Downlinking the EMERGENCY REPRT page, ATC will respond "ROGER" Unlawful Interference: ADS EMERGENCY mode is activated WITHOUT a downlink of the EMERGENCY REPORT or a voice confirmation, ATC will append a CPDLC Uplink or Voice Message to "Confirm ADS" to a "Confirm Speed". If the emergency has been activated inadvertently, the crew shall select EMERGENCY mode to "OFF" and advice ATC by voice or downlink "ADS Reset".

Answer 139

In-flight: Must NOT reset unless the procedure is clearly defined in the QRH. Exception is when the Commander judges that the situation resulting from the circuit breaker trip has an adverse effect on flight safety, the CB may be reset ONCE. Crew members are NOT permitted to reset or cycle any cb located on a remote panel or in the Avionics Bay without specific authorization from the Duty Operations Manager (DOM) through Integrated Operations Centre (IOC). Authorization to enter the Avionices Bay will only be granted to a crewmember qualified on the aircraft type and where that crewmember is ADDITIOANL to the minimum operational cockpit crew. An ASR MUST be submitted at any time there is a cause for a crewmember to enter the Avionics Bay during flight. Cabin crew are NOT permitted to reset or cycle circuit breakers located in the cabin. Commander must be adviced on the course of action. On Ground: Must NOT be reset unless the action is co-ordinated with maintenance personnel or CX Engineering and the cause of tripping of CB has been identified. In all cases the aircraft should be STATIONARY with the Park Brake SET during the reset.

Answer 140

Contact IOC (OPS) at the earliest opportunity. IOC will inform commander of any last inute change to the preferred alternate and arrange contact with DOM if required.

Answer 141

Suspicious object(s) has been found during flight: Use all airport facilities to disembark without delay Bomb Threat: 7.1.17 Park the aircraft well away from the terminal and other aircraft Disembark crew, passengers, cabin baggage and personal belongings normally and expeditiously Removal of aircraft to an isolated parking bay Offload all hold baggage Offload cargo, courier material and mail Aircraft Search by police or government agency with technical aircraft operator assistance Aircraft Operator re-check the flight deck and cabin Re-check hold baggage manifest for irregularities in the accounting and authorization processes Rescreening of all hold baggage Conduct physical reconciliation of passengers and hold baggage, verify baggage tags against the baggage manifest Re-screen passengers, cabin baggage and personal belongings Passenger travel document reconciliation against manifest and boarding pass Check integrity of catering supplies and aircraft operator stores Delay dispatch of the cargo, courier material and mail for a minimum of the scheduled flight time + 8 hours Re-secreen all cargo, courier material and mail Do not re-load unaccompanied baggage Interview / Debrief passengers regarding bomb warning Check for any irregularities occuring at the boarding gate during initial boarding Check for any irregularities occuring at Check in (e.g. passengers not accepted at check in, later arrivals, other incidents) Checklists available: In-flight Bomb Searchlist - Cabin, In-flight Bomb Searchlist - Flight Deck, Suspected Bomb on Board Checklist, Least Risk Bomb Location (LRBL) Cabin Preparation Checklist, On ground: Security Search Checklist (Conducted by engineering in conjunction of security forces) \*EOD (Explosive Ordinance Disposal) Personnel

Answer 142

Engine Inoperative A 2 engine aircraft with an engine shutdown in-flight, Commander should land at the nearest suitable airport, where the relative suitability of an airport is Commander's decision. Before relight the engine, a careful assessment of the failed engine's mechanical condition should be completed and IOC should be contacted for Engineering guidance, unless the risk to flight safety is greater by delaying the attepted air-start.

Answer 143

Unless structural integrity of the aircraft is in doubt, there is NO requirement for an aircraft to land within a given time scale. Commander may elect to continue to any suitable airport. Course of action will normally be dictated by the fuel available. If continuing to filed destination, normal fuel required must be available unless the requirements of in-flight reduction of normal fuel required can be met. (\*The 5% contingency fuel build up included at the planning stage, is not an inflight requirement.) Continuously assessment of FOB to ensure fuel is available for: Proceed from present position to destination Make an approach to land Divert o an alternate, with 5% contingency Fuel Hold for 30 min at 1500' Carry out an approach and landing. In-flight reduction of fuel before TOD: Fuel remaining is sufficient to continue to destination 5% contingency fuel from overhead or abeam the last suitable en-route airport 30 min holding at 1500' Carry out an approach and landing.

Answer 144

NOT allowed when passengers and/or cargo are being transported.

Answer 145

LVO: ICAO requirement of Operators * LVTO: RVR less than 400 m * Landing: RVR less than 550 m LVP: ICAO requirement of Airport Authorities * Enforce for all takeoffs below 550 m RVR * Procedures applied at an airport for the purpose of ensuring safe operation during approaches below Standard CAT1 and during LVTO.

Answer 146

General LVO Requirements: Port Page LVO are defined from the higher of HKCAD, Dragonair or State Minima and should be used in conjunction with the approach chart. LVO Minima on CAT2 or CAT3 or any approach plates are not approved. CAT 2 DH is specified above Runway Threshold and therefore the published DH may be lower or higher than 100' due to undulating terrain at DH. Operational LVO Requirements: PF and PM shall be LVO qualified and PF shall be the Commander/PIC operating from the left seat except an emergency or crew incapacitation exists. Command Trainees may operate as PF in the left seat with a LVO qualified Training Captain performing PM duties in the right seat. Aircraft LVO Requirements: A/THR in APP mode is mandatory for approaches to CAT3A/3B Minima. Airport LVO Requirements: LVP are in force. Clearance to fly a CAT2 or CAT3 Approach is considered a confirmation of LVP. Serviceability of the airport surface area, NavAids, Ground Equipment and services is the responsibility fo the airport operator. When LVO operational is down to CAT2 only, the airport ILS sensitive area / critical area is still protected by LVP Holding Points, but the aircraft arrival spacing is reduced to less than that required for CAT3 operations. ILS signals may be affected by preceding traffic.

Answer 147

Reported generally below 800 m, changes should be reported in 50 m increments with a delay not exceeding 30 s. When RVR is below 400 m, changes should be reported in 25 m increments with a delay not exceeding 15 s.

Answer 148

At least 1 actual or practice LVO approach with autoland should be completed in the aircraft within each period between Proficiency Checks. Practice CAT II/IIIA/IIIB Approaches shall be conducted in visibility of 5000 m or greater with a cloudbase of 1000' or greater. The ILS must be autoland approved as specified on the applicable Port Page. Where no relevant LVO minima is published, the minima to be entered in the PERF APPR page shall be: CATII: 100'; CATIIIA: 50'; CATIIIB: NO "CAT I Approach with Autoland" does not count towards the Practice LVO approach requirement. NOTAMS CAT I Autoland Trials considered by Training Captains: Visibility greater than 1500 m AND cloudbase higher than 500'.

Answer 149

Operations of a 2 engined aircraft: Over a route that contains a point further than 60 min flying time in stilll air, at the specified 1 engine inoperative cruising speed, from an ADEQUATE Airport. Operations of a 3 or 4 engined aircraft: Over a route that contains a point further than 180 min flying time in still air, at the specified 1 engine inoperatie cruising speed, from an ADEQUATE Airport.

Answer 150

ETOPS Adequate Airport: Has sufficient runway length and taxiway availability for use by the aircraft type Equipped with necessary ancilliary services such as ATC, lighting, and weather reporting At least 1 serviceable navigation aid or a suitable RNAV - RNP/GPS(GNSS) Approach Adequate RFF ETOPS ERA: An Adequate Airport where, for the time of intended use, the weather forecast indicates a ceiling and visibility at or above the published LANDING MINIMA and a crosswind at or below the aircraft and crew limits \*VOPB CANNOT be used as an ETOPS Adequate Airport as it has insufficient data.

Answer 151

60 min: 434 nm (x2 = 868) ETOPS Rule Time: 120 min: 853 mm Calculated based on 1 engine inoperative MMO/VMO speed, is the maximum distance the aircraft may be operated from an Adequate Airport. Rule time 120 min is the Maximum still air diversion time which may be planned for a flight from an Adequate Airport, calculation considered on most limiting ETOPS significant system and most limiting cargo fire suppression capability.

Answer 152

Any segment(s) of a flight where the aircraft is moer than the equivalent of 60 in Rule Distance from an Adequate Airport. Starts when the aircraft exceeds the equivalent of 60 min rule Distance (ETOPS Entry Point, EEP) from an Adequate Airport and ceases when the aircraft is within the equivalent of 60 min Rule Distance of another Adequate airport (ETOPS Exit Point, EXP)

Answer 153

ETOPS CP is the point on the aircraft route that is MOST CRITICAL with regard to ETOPS fuel requireents. It is NORMALLY, but NOT always, the last enroute ETP. Critical Fuel Scenerio is based on the following scenerios occuring at the ETOPS CP: 1. Immediate Descent * All Engines operating but pressurization failure at MMO/VMO to 10,000' * 1 Engine failure and pressurization failure at MMO/VMO to 10,000' * 1 Engine failure at MMO/VMO to the engine inoperative stabilising altitude 1. Continued Cruise at the following speeds to the Diversion Airport * All Engines operating but pressurization failure at LRC * 1 Engine failure and pressurization failure at VMO * 1 Engine failure at VMO \*Severe icing increment for all critical fuel calculations are considered by the Airpath Flight Plannign system when icing conditions are forecast.

Answer 154

Sufficient fuel shall be carried to permit the loss of pressurization or an engine failure, or both, at any point on the intended route and predicated on the folllowing: The flight shall be continued to the nearest ERA for landing Hold at 1,500' over the nearest ERA for 15 min Initiate an approach, followed by a missed approach, then continue to a normal approach and landing.

Answer 155

Commander shall ensure: Planning minima for all ETOPS ERA is at or above Minima for Filing as an Alternate from the earliest possible time of arrival until the latest possible time of arrival. This requirement also applies to Departure and/or Destination Airport when they support an ETOPS route segment. \*Earliest Possible Time of Arrival to ETOPS ERA = Airborne Time + EET (Estimated Elapsed Time) to EEP (ETOPS Entry Point) + 120 min (ETA EEP + 120 min) \*\*Latest Possible Time of Arrival to ETOPS ERA = Airborne Time + EET (Estimated elapsed Time) to EXP (ETOPS Exit Point) + 120 min (ETA EXP + 120 min) Weather at airports within 60 min rule time is at or above landing minima Filed route is within rule distance The appropriate critical fuel scenario is planned and the relevatn data is shown on P.2 of CFP No MEL in the AML which have an impact on planned ETOPS flight

Answer 156

All Flight are monitored by Flight Dispatch NOTAM Desk and IOC. Crew shall continuously monitor en-route weather to ensure weather at ERA(s) is / are above landing minima. If weather updates are not available through ATC or ATIS / HF VOLMET / ACARS, seek for assistance from IOC. If weather conditions at an ETOPS ERA fall below landing minima, or the ETOPS ERA becomes unavailable for another reason, the Commander shall attempt to select another suitable ERA to support the route segment. Fix Info functions are used to determination of direct tracks and distances to ERAs, ETOPS segment entry points, Critical Points and ETOPS Segment Exit Points. Do NOT add waypoints on the FMS Legs/FLT PLN pages to avoid these points being transmitted to ATC via CPDLC. Direct routings or re-routes should be carefully considerred to ensure the aircraft remains within the applicable Rule distance of an ERA at all times. In practice the aircraft shall remain on its planned route and determine the closest suitable ERA to the route, which may be the next, or prevoius, planned ERA.

Answer 157

The nature of the malfunction and possible mechanical difficulties which may be encountered Operational effect of an inoperative system(s) Relative flight times to airports available for landing Flight time and distance to the airport selected for landing relative to the ETOPS approval limit Altitude, aircraft weight and remaining useable fuel at the time of system failure or malfunction Weather conditions en-route and at any available ERA Air Traffic Control Limitations En-route and Selected ERA Terrain Crew familiarity with the Airport Initiation of an Diversion: Advice IOC Use msot appropriate speed (Not necessarily VMO/MMO which is for flight planning purpose unless time critical such as cargo fire) CLEAR MODEL: Failure: Read ECAM title, standby Aviate: A/P, A/THR(MCT?), FMA, FCU, FMS Navigate: Radar Ident? If not, above MSA? “I have control, ECAM Actions.” Communicate: MAYDAY/PANPAN, problem, intention “ECAM Actions completed.” Clarify: Status, Problem, OEB, Reset, C/L Look: Continue, Divert, Land back, Land ASAP Evaluate: Weather, NOTAM, Terrain, Fuel, IFL if limiting “I will do the approach preparation, you have control.” Action: Notify ATC, Cabin Crew, PAX, IOC, ENG RCAM, Vapp, IFL (Overweight?) Set up the box, referring Status, QRH, FCOM, Part A If time permits: Airport Facility, RFF, Plan B, PAX “Please help me to check the box, I have control.” Review: CTWO+ (ABRCOGNS, TCAS, Status, QRH, Plan B) Descent + Landing C/L Report Ready, Request (Non Std Alt / MAP, Tow, Emerg Stby) Descent to Procedural Altitude if cleared

Answer 158

Used to clear PADD that prevents ETOPS operation. Verification Process can be: 1. A non-ETOPS flight (may be a normal revenue flight), without MINIMUM time 2. A non-revenue flight such as a ferry flight, or air test, without MINIMUM time 3. The initial segment of an ETOPS flight prior to the aircraft entering the ETOPS segment of the route, with a MINIMUM time of 90 min to allow sufficient time for the crew to evaluate the serviceability of the aircraft system(s) When the verification is completed on an ETOPS flight, the commander must contact CX Maintenace control via ACARS after the completion of the first 90 min of flight, and prior to entering the ETOPS segment, with the results of the verification. 8.6.1.4: Post flight enter in AML "Verification Flight carried out satis". If the verification result is unsatisfactory, crew shall inform ATC and IOC then request follow second CFP to re-route via a non-ETOPS route. Further verification flight will be required following further maintenance action. If re-routing to destination is not feasible, IOC will be contacted to determine the diversion airport. Crew shall load a fuel that permit a re-route to a non-ETOPS route, while ensuring the aircraft landing weight limit is not exceeded if the shorter ETOPS route is operated.

Answer 159

White (and lock wired): Permanent circuit breaker collars are applied to system that are deactivated under KA configuration, not listed in AML. Red (and NOT lock wired): Temporary circiut breaker collars to allow dispatch under provision of MEL, listed in ADD section of AML. DSC-24-10-20 Green: Monitored on ECAM. When out for more than 1 min, will trigger ECAM C/B TRIPPED Warning. DSC-24-10-20 Black: NOT Monitored by ECAM. DSC-24-10-20 Yellow: MUST be pulled when flying on Batteries only. Non-standard colour: Due spares availability, AML entry will be made for fitting the correct collar at the earliest opportunity.

Answer 160

Operating crew may review AML for recurring defects and if require additional information, contact CX Engineering. If inbound crews experience technical defect of a significant nature, the defect MUST be direclty reported to Cathay Engineering ASAP to schedule repair and maintenance work.

Answer 161

It is within the authority of the Commander to acept a defect WITHOUT consulting a ground engineer after the doors are closed, provided the defect does NOT require a (m) procedure and is covered in the MEL. If a failure occurs during the taxi phase before the start of the takeoff roll, any decision to continue the flight shall be subject to pilot judgement and good airmanship. the applicable ECAM/FCOM Procedure shall be actioned and the Commander should refer to the MEL before any decision to continue the flight is taken.

Answer 162

On ground: Contact IOC, CX Engineering via mobile phone, VHF, ACARS, HF through Stockholm Radio. Review MEL, CFDS, or CX ENG(QA) will approve another airline's ground engineers to carry out repair on KA's aircraft using Temporary Authorization or Article 11(1) Dispatch. Airborne: Contact IOC, CX Engineering via VHF, ACARS, HF through Stockholm Radio. If diversion is required an airfield with engineering facilities, good communications and with flights to HKG should be considered.

Answer 163

Signed by appropriately licensed engineer if maintenance work and / or minor adjustment has been performed on a flight or engine control system.

Answer 164

Company approved procedure approved by HKCAD that gives privilege to MQA/QASM or Duty QA Engineer to temporarily authorize an engineer to issue a CRS when there is NO appropriately qualified engineer available. Subject to individual engineer's current authorization coverage Restricted to tasks which do NOT require complex testing Certifying staff's experience and license MUST be obtained and passed to CX QA for review and filing CX Temporary Authorization Number MUST be entered int he CRS of AML CX Engineering instructions and / or appropriate maintenance manuals shall be used and reference in the AML At Departure Station: Commander will write details of the defect Engineer will complete "Action Taken" with AMM Reference Engineer will sign CRS with CX Temporary Authorization \*If engineers carries out the required work but does not feel comfortable to certify the maintenance performed then Temporary Authorization should NOT be granted and an Article 11(1) Dispatch may be considered. Upon Arrival at HK: Commander will write "Aircraft dispatched under Temporary Authorization. Refer to LP XX ITEM X". All the maintenance activities that have been certified under Temporary Authorization must be rechecked and AML entries made.

Answer 165

Permits an aircraft to be dispatched for flight following maintenance action, but WITHOUT a CRS, after consultation with Cathay Engineer and informing Duty Operations Manager (DOM). An aircraft defect or un-serviceability allowable under the MEL that does NOT require any (m) action does not fall within Temporarily Authorization or Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O. Such a defect is to be entered in the AML and transferred as a (P)(S)ADD as applicable fromt he MEL. Pilot are NOT permitted to carry out (m) Procedures as detailed in the MEL/CDL and / or AMM unless the maintenace required is of a MINOR nature and specifically requested to do so by CX Engineering. (e.g. Pulling C/Bs, Visual inspectinos and use of MCDU, AIDS, CFDS to interrogate sub-systems.) However final responsibility / prerogative to undertake such tasks rests with the Commander. CX Engineering only advice whether Article 11(1) is possible and the finally decision rests solely with Commander after taking into consideration to the airworthiness of the aircraft. The aircraft must be flown to the "nearest place" (May be considered to be HK) at which a CRS can be signed. In the event of an en-route diversion or diversion from the intended destination, it is permissible to fly more than 1 sector to reach the place where the CRS can be signed. \*Operations Dispensation / Maintenance Concession allow operations OUTSIDE the scope of MEL (permitted by CX Engineering) and is NOT relevant to Article 11(1) Dispatch which the flight has been followed by maintenance action. At Departure Station: Commander will write details of the defect and any maintenance work carried out along the the words "A/C dispatched under AN(HK)O Article 11(1)." under "action taken" column with his / her ERN. AML Entry at CRS is to be issued: Commander write "A/C dispatched under AN(HK)O Article 11(1). No CRS issued. Please refer LP XX." CAR shall be annotated to advise the aircraft was dispatched under Article 11(1). Commander must submit a written report (Article 11(1) Dispatch Form) within 5 days to CX QA (Engineering) and copied to Technical Manager (Airbus). All tasks are to be reassessed by qualified engineers at HKG or manned station.

Answer 166

Permitted to be carried out by commander after Temporary Authorization or Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O provided that A second qualified engineer is NOT available Only a MINOR adjustment is involved The crew member is qualified on the aircraft type Inspection generally includes Checking the affected control system for freedom of movement and correct direction of movement Security and safety locking of the disturbed component

Answer 167

Authority given on completion of Ground Training Course. Qualification MUST be renewed each time the pilot changes type. Authority to carry out a PFC: A320/1 Pilots: At Unmanned Stations ONLY A330 Pilots: At Unmanned Stations as a result of diversion or unforeseen circumstances PFC does NOT include replenishment of hydraulic fluid or Engine/IDG oil. However the Commander is responsible for ensuring the oil, hydralulic and APU uplift block in the AML is completed. AML Entry: 1. "Pre flight check required" / "PFC required" in "Defect" Block 2. "Pre flight check carried out" / "PFC carried out" with a signature including ERN in the "Action Taken" Block 3. Oil, hydralulic and APU Uplift Block is Completed

Answer 168

Applicable to: 1. ALL manned stations EXCEPT HKG 2. Unmanned stations where a Riding Engineer is carried NOT Applicable to: Aircraft overnights Commander is responsible for: 1. Ensuring OCT Check has been carried out 2. Ensuring AML has been completed correctly Qualified Aircraft Mechanics will: 1. Conduct a walk around check and carry out aircraft refuelling 2. Review the AML for any Defects, For Info Entries, PADD / SADD / ADDs 3. Ensure an Engineer is notified to cover any required maintenance and / or certification action Licensed Aircraft Engineers (LAE) will: 1. Respond only when requested or required 2. Following any extended maintenance or overnight, carry out a walk around check 3. Sign the Aircraft Release

Answer 169

1. Warnings or cautions on the EWD 2. Flags on PFD or ND 3. Failure indications seen on SD pages 4. Observed Faults (e.g. Logo Light) 5. Class 2 Messages shown under "Maintenance" on the STATUS page, when the flight is terminating at a manned station 6. Cases of Hard (Suspected or Actual) Landings, Overweight Landings, overspeeds or other aircraft exceedences, Bird Strikes, Hail Strikes, Lightning Strikes, Severe Turbulence or High Lateral Loads, Engine Slush Ingestion, Flight in Severe-Icing, Dust Storms, Volcano Ash Conditions ad Fluid spillages regardles of whether the station is manned or unmanned 7. Any occurence of Smoke or Smell 8. If an entry requires submission of ASR / MOR, enter "ASR / MOR Raised" 9. If a Commander raised any PADD / SADD / ADD, make a "For Info" Entry 10. "Nil Defects" annotated in "TI" 11. "For Info" annotated in "TI" (e.g. self-cleared ECAM), and only for sectors entered inbound to HKG or Manned Stations, which requires a comment in the Action Taken Column, but NO CRS Required \*Post Flight Report (PFR) should be placed in the AML and there is NO requirement to annotate any faults indicated on the PFR resulted from flight crew action (e.g. fuel pumps off for cross feeding)

Answer 170

AML Defect Entry Required 1. Manned Stations * Licensed Aircraft Engineer (LAE) / Riding Engineer will meet the aircraft and rectify or defer the defect * LAE Sign the Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) * LAE Sign Released for Flight Block * LAE/Mechanic completes the OIL QTY / Uplift Block * LAE/Mechanic enters "OCT required" in the AML Defect Column * LAE/Mechanics enter "OCT Carried Out" in the Action Taken Column (Does not require a signature or CRS) 1. Unmanned Stations (Considerations following the following order) * Inform IOC CX Engineering * CFDS Procedure * Defect Rectification and Dispatch under Temporary Authorization * Send a qualified engineer from a buddy station (AML Completion as per Manned Station) * Defect Deferral in accordance with the MEL * Defect Rectification and Dispatch under Article 11(1) * Any pulled CB(s) required by an (o) procedure does NOT require Article 11(1) Dispatch Condition. But the AML action taken column must refer to the pulled CB(s) and an additional (P)(S)ADD raised to this effect. * Whenever a defect is deferred to a PADD that affects the Landing Capability for LVO, indicated by a "L" in the MEL item, an additional PADD entry will need to be raised by crew to state the current AUTOLAND Capability. * Crew completes the OIL QTY / Uplift Block * Crew enters "PFC required" in the AML Defect Column Crew enter "PFC Carried Out" in the Action Taken Column with signature and ERN AML Defect Entry NOT Required 1. Manned Stations * Crew enter "Nil Defects" int he AML Defect Column. * Mechanic will meet the aircraft, check the AML for required maintenance action * Mechanic enter "Nil Noted" in the AML Action Taken Column (Does not require a signature or CRS) * Mechanic completes the OIL QTY / Uplift Block * Mechanic enters "OCT Required" in the AML Defect Column * Mechanic enters "OCT Carried Out" in the AML Action Taken Column (Does not require a signature or CRS) 1. Unmanned Stations * Crew complets the OIL QTY / Uplift Block * Inbound Crew enters "Pre-flight Check Required" in the AML Defect Column * Outbound Crew enters "Pre-flight Check Carried Out" in the AML Action Taken Column, including the signature and ERN.

Answer 171

AML Entry is made CX Engineering is advised through IOC (Phone or SATCOM or ACARS) ASR is submitted \*If DMU (Data Management Unit, AIDS) is u/s the aircraft maybe AOG until DFDR (Digital Flight Data Recorder) is read. (NOT QAR, Quick Access Recorder) If a suspected Hard Landing at an unmanned station is confirmed by CX Engineering to NOT exceed limits then dispatch may be considered under Article 11(1). \*From Fleet Office Newsletter, QAR A320 1.75 g, A330 1.5 g (Practically, which indicates that the Company starts monitoring from this threshold, thus at least a SUSPECTED HARD LANDING entry should be made to cover the ass.) \*AMM states that a LOAD \<15\> Report was NOT to be used to confirm if a hard / overweight landing had occured, which is identified by the Trigger Code "1000". (Practically stay cautious with code "1000") \*Flow Chart "DMU Load Report Available" means there is an AUTOMATICALLY generated Load Report after the landing, NOT the Load Report equipment was fitted and serviceable.

Answer 172

Lesser Check (a maintenance check up to and including A Check) must be valid at the time of pushback and must NOT expire before reaching the next destination where the required lesser check can be performed. A320/1 48HR Check: 48 Hours Weekly Check: 8 Days A Check: 500 Hours 2A Check: 1,000 Hours 4A Check: 2,000 Hours C Check: 15 Months A330: 36HR Check: 36 Hours Weekly Check: 7 Days A Check: 500 Hours 2A Check: 1,000 Hours 4A Check: 2,000 Hours C Check: 15 Months

Answer 173

Notify Commander and Ground Engineer Immediately Flammable Liquid: Do NOT continue to use or operate any electrical system Local Station Management notify the appropriate authorities depending on nature Engineering Personnel conduct an inspection in accordance with procedure SADD raised Minimize Exposure or Evacuate Aircraft (If deemed necessary) If spillage CANNOT be positively identified Ground Engineer to obtain a sample of the substance in a clean jar and forward the sample via ENG (QA) in HK to Technical Services for analysis If not possible, Cargo shall be requested to obtain the chemical data sheet for the substance from the shipper and send to ENG (QA) If spillage CAN be positively identified A copy of the shipping documentation to be faxed to ENG (QA) +852 2321 8496

Answer 174

At least 1 pilot MUST be qualified in order to carry out a procedure CAR MUST be annotated and addresssed to Technical Manager (Airbus)

Answer 175

Only results of a PLANNED Autoland are to be recorded. An auto-approach carried out to \>80' plus Manual Landing is NOT a planned Autoland. Unsatisfactory touchdown are: Longitudiinal touchdown earlier than a point on the runway 200' from the threshold (End of Piano Key) OR beyond the end of the touchdown zone lighting (3000' from the threshold) Lateral touchdown with outboard landing gear more than 70' from runway centreline (A320 outboard landing gear from centreline 12'6") (Touchdown in excess of 1/4 RWY Width from Centreline)

Answer 176

If the incoming Aircraft Commander fails to record the details of any defects arising, and/or sign the AML, the out-going commander CANNOT accept the aircraft until an assessment is made of the aircrafts airworthiness state. IOC contact any of the remaining crew members in desending order of seniority (IOC will contact DOM to determine whether the crew should be disturbed if crew rest will be affected) Certifying Engineer shall be informed and an assessment is required The out-going Aircraft Commander may accept the aircraft as being airworthy in the normal manner once the AML has been signed by the certifying AME. (There is NO legal requirement specifically prohibit the aircraft from being available for flight should the Signature and Data be missing) The in-coming Aircraft Commander shall be requested to complete the AML at Line Operations when next in HK.

Answer 177

No more than 1 part or 1 combination of parts of 1 system may be missing, except otherwise specified. Parts of DIFFERENT systems may be simulataneously missing, unless otherwise specified. Missing parts may introduce performance penalties that are CUMULATIVE. MEL shall NEVER been less restrictive than MMEL. Although the concept of Rectification Interval does not exist for CDL, all CDL items are not allowed to be left unrectified for an unlimited period of time except some items which a specific time limit is required in the dispatch condition. It is company policy that every effort be made to maintain 100% serviceabiliy with rectification beig initiated at the first practical opportunity. An aircraft must NOT be dispatched with multiple MEL / CDL items inoperative without the commander having first determined that any interface or interrelationship between inoperative systems or components will NOT result in a degradation in the level of safety and / or undue increase in crew workload. The exposure to additional failures during continued operation with inoperative systems or components must also be considered.

Answer 178

Engineering Organization and Maintenance Procedures Manual (EOMP): Procedures used in CX Engineering Department Maintenance Concessions: Authority issued by CX Engineering for an appropriately authorized engineer to accept a limited number of aircraft systems or components or parts which do NOT wholly comply with the relevant requirements of the approved technical publications (e.g. MEL, CDL) but nevertheless do meet an acceptable level of airworthiness in a particular case. Support Operational Dispensations. Followed with SADD. Base Deferred Defects (BDD): Any defect which does not change the operational drills or procedures for flight, NOT visible to Flight Crew or Ground Engineer, safety NOT affect and is NOT airworthiness related. Usually raised after A/2A check. Design Deviation Order (DDO): Provide a control procedure for the authorization of work on an aircraft or its components, which is URGENT in nature and deviates from existing approved drawings, limits, specifications, procedures etc. Issued by technical services Design Organization. Normal method of short / long term authorization beyond the definition of a Maintenance Concession. Not visible to flight crew (Tracked as BDD) unless a DDO results in an SADD, then a copy of the DDO should be within the Miscellaneous section of the AML. Maintenance ADd (MADD): NOT a deferred defect and has NO AML control card. Used when CX Engineering require work to be carried out to progress a repetitive defect, perform a fleet inspection or investigate an MOR incident. Only visible in AML when they are ACTIONED. Non Routine Card (NRC): Use to record and certify work carried out, which can be routine, non-routine or of special nature, and could include any duplicate inspections required. Used in HKG and XMN, can cover aircraft check inspection findings and rectifications which may NOT appear in the AML. Continuatino Work Sheet (CWS): Similar to NRC, but with FULL ITEMISED details of work carried out.

Answer 179

Training Flights - Final decision to carry out actual training flight and the responsibility for adherence to Company instruction described in the Operation Manual in general and Part D, remains with the designated Commander. Test Flights - Performed by Minimum Flight Crew assigned by Flight Operations Manager, and if required, with engineers, mechanics or inspectors on board. Technical Department shall give flight crew briefing on the reason of test flight, test program, how the preceding work may influence the airworthiness of the aircraft. Delivery Flights - Flight flown from seller's facility to the airline or vice versa. Non-revenue passengers may be carried with full insurance coverage and normal crew complement, if this is NOT excluded on Certificate of Airworthiness and Certification of Registration (i.e. a "ferry permit" only permits flight crew and engineers.) Ferry Flights - Flights to position aircraft for maintenance, with minimum crew and permits reduced airworthiness as per Operations Manual or the Authority. Demonstration Flights - Sale/Advertising purpose or to demonstrate flight characteristics, may be a flight with journalists and customers. MUST follow SOP. Requires full and normal crew complement. Positioning Flights - Flight to position aircraft to an aerodrome for commercial operations, with at least minimum flight crew and MUST follow SOP, only crewmembers of the company may be transported on the way to or from flight duty (dead head). Commander nominates one crewmember to be responsible for cabin safety checks. Safety demonstration may be avoid if all person on board are familiar with the demonstration of their use.

Answer 180

Planned or actual level AT OR BELOW FL100 - No Oxygen Required Planned or actual level ABOVE FL100 but NOT ABOVE FL250 1. Passenger Oxygen, using Cabin Fixed Oxygen System (15 min except HTF 13 min) + Portable Oxygen Bottles * All passengers for the duration that the cabin exceeds 12,000' - Minimum 10 min * 10% of passengers for the duration that the cabin exceeds 10,000' - Minimum 30 min 1. Crew Oxygen: Using Cockpit Fixed Oxygen System, For the duration that the cabin exceeds 10,000' - Minimum 30 min 2. Cabin Staff: Using Cabin Fixed Oxygen System (15 min except HTF 13 min) + 15 min supply from PBE, For the duration that the cabin exceeds 10,000' - Minimum 30 min, Planned or actual level ABOVE FL250 1. Passenger Oxygen, using Cabin Fixed Oxygen System (15 min except HTF 13 min) + Portable Oxygen Bottles * All passengers for the duration that the cabin exceeds 15,000' - Minimum 15 min * 30% of the passengers for the duration that the cabin exceeds 12,000' but does NOT exceed 15,000', 10% of the passengers for the duration that the cabin exceeds 10,000' but does NOT exceed 12,000': First Aid Oxygen MUST be available for independent and simulataneous use of 2% of passengers, or 2 passengers, whichever is greater, for the entire period that the cabin altitude exceeds 8,000' following a decompression 1. Crew Oxygen - Using Cockpit Fixed Oxygen System, For the duration that the cabin exceeds 10,000' - Minimum 2 Hours 2. Cabin Staff - Using Cabin Fixed Oxygen System (15 min except HTF 13 min) + 15 min supply from PBE, For the duration that the cabin exceeds 10,000' - Minimum 2 hr + Individual Portable Supply of Oxygen for 15 min \*Guidance on oxygen requirements will be given in route brief for any flight with safety altitude above 10,000'. LIM-35 Cockpit Fixed Oxygen System 1. Protection after loss of cabin pressure, with mask regulator on NORMAL (diluted oxygen): * During an Emergency Descent: For ALL Cockpit Members for 13 min * During cruise at FL100: For 2 Flight Crewmembers for 107 min 1. Protection in case of smoke, with 100% oxygen, For ALL Cockpit Members for 15 min at a cabin altitude of 8000'

Answer 181

1. Handling Agent will be responsible for Passenger Welfare and Payments 2. Refreshments, means or accommodation will be provided in accordance with the published scale 3. Commander maintain close liaison to Handling Agent with Departure Time, Embarking and Disembarking of Passengers

Answer 182

1. Commander is reponsible for passenger welfare or liaison 2. Refreshments, meals or accomodation will be provided in accordance witht he scale published 3. If credit facilities to NOT exist, commander to contact IOC via telephone, SITA or TELEX 4. Commander should make decision on disembarkation, provisino of meals or accomodation based on guidelines and minimizaing damage to Company Image 5. Any mention of compensation should be AVOIDED when communicatinng to passengers 6. Delay up to 20 min - Snacks / Cookies and Drinks; Up to 60 min - Sandwiches; Up to 105 min - Hot Meal. There is no point of informing passengers that sandwiches will be available if the restaurant is not capable of producing this service. 7. If a main meal is served prior to arrival, a main meal should NOT be provided on the ground unless the delay time extends into the next meal period. [0500-0900](tel:0500-0900): Breakfast; 1100-1400: Lunch; 1800-2100: Dinner 8. Consideration should be given to whether passengers should be served on board during delay if a main meal has been provided for use on next sector. 9. Commander MUST be consulted if passengers are allowed to leave the airport environs for meal when catering is NOT available 10. If meal service will extend into the time of the rescheduled departure, a main meal should be provided on board the aircraft to be served to passengers AFTER departure and a substantial refreshment offered to passengers on ground.

Answer 183

Delivering carrier causing missed connection is responsible for passenger's expenses incurred att he transfer point, including hotel accommodation, mean and transportation. Flight irregularities include delayed flight, cancellation, diversion, but do NOT include weather conditions, poitical reasons/strikes, airport closure. KA will offer any passenger with confirmed booking with: 1. Refreshment/Meals in accordance with the scale. 2. Hotel accomodation if delay exceeds 6 hours or night stop is involved. (Local passengers with the possibility of returning to their home are excluded, but are provided with reasonable transportation costs from airport to home) 3. Delay message facilities (SITA or Telex as available) 4. One long distance call for max. 3 min. 5. Airport tax. It is permissible for passengers to leave a flight at diversion airport provided the CIQ authorities agree. Passengers' bags must be offloaded. Commander MUST bear in mind that in PRC the authorities may NOT permit the flight to depart for the original destination if SOME of the passengers have disembarke and the flight may then be committed to return to HKG. Commander should advice in PA interline passengers who are delayed overnight or diverted to HK may have HK entry visa problems which will be dealt by CX AHQ.

Answer 184

IF POSSIBLE disembark passengers to transit lounge. Duty Free Bars will be sealed by cabin staff or deposited in a bonded store (offered by Resident Inflight caterers) if the airccraft is to be left unattended by KA staff. If not available security guarding have to be arranged or if feasilbe, seal the aircraft doors.

Answer 185

Notional weights instead of individual actual weights will be used. It is the responsibility of the Commander to inform Flight Despatch at the earliest possible time during planning stage, if there is a potential limitation to the payload and to advise the likely MZFW. At outstations, if ACARS is not available, MZFW should be passed to handling agent using CFD Despatch Copy. It is the responsibility of the outstation staff to decide, in the event of limited payload, which passengers and baggage/cargo is accepted.

Answer 186

An e-cigarette or any device that resembles a cigarette, pipe or cigar is NOT allowed to be used onboard, but is allowed to be brought onboard. In case of passenger smoke in toilet, FA1 is to establish where the cirgarette was disposed and it has been extinguished, then report to Captain the cause of a smoke warning, passenger's name and seat number. Smoking Passenger is considered as committed a violation of the Aviation Security Ordinance and is considered "Unruly". If Passenger does not comply with Cabin Crew's instruction to stop, threat level 1 is considered and actions are escalated as appropriate. CSR MUST be filed.

Answer 187

Personal Electronic Devices (PED) may be used in "AIRPLANE MODE" during ALL phases of flight, except when LVP are in force. FA1 MUST be informed no later than 10,000' if a LVP Approach is to be conducted so that Cabin Crew can ensure that all electronic devices are switched off for landing. Critical Medical-PEDs such as Portable Oxygen Concentrator and Respirator are exempted from this equipment. Use of Mobile Phones and Personal Electronic Devices in "TRANSMITTING MODE" may be permitted whent he aircraft is stationary during prolonged departure delays or waiting for parking/gate position upon arrival. A further announcement MUST be made to ensure that the applicable restrictions are complied with prior to takeoff. \*For aircraft equipped with an approved on-board Wi-Fi system, PED Wi-Fi functions may be enabled when directed by Cabin Crew provided the PED remains in "AIRPLANE MODE". Small handheld PEDs WITHOUT connectivity such as mini-video players, electronic games, music players, digital cameras and camcorders may be used during ALL phases of flight. Larger PEDs such as laptops and notebooks MUST be turned OFF and STOWED in approved stowages during taxi, takeoff and landing. Charging of PEDs is PROHIBITED during taxi, takeoff, landing and during abnormal or emergency conditinos. Radio Frequency Transmitters such as CB radios and radio controlled toys and devices need to be COMPLETELY switched OFF from the time the doors close prior to takeoff until the aircraft door is opened after the aircraft has landed. Cabin Crew seeing any passenger using electronic equipment contrary to rules, or in a manner which is causing distress to other passengers, shall request the passenger to refrain from using the equipment. If a passenger ignores this request they are to be considered "unruly".