past retake retake Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

Pathogen of destructive rhinitis:

o OHV-1
o OHV-2
o OHV-3
o OHV-5

A

o OHV-2 (Herpesvirusà Malignant catarrhal fever)

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2
Q

What is responsible for the development of grazing
pulmonary edema?

o Switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture
o Lupinus spp. in the hay
o C. perfringens
o Bovine parainfluenza virus

A

o Switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture (increase of proteins in feed)

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3
Q

What treatment would you use for foamy fermentation bloating?

o Sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation
o Probing, drinking 5 liters of 10% vinegar
o Feed withdrawal for 3 Days
o No treatment, euthnasia

A

o Sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation

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4
Q

What is characteristic of grazing pulmonary edema?

o Sudden formation, may affected animals
o Chronic course
o Only young animal affected
o High fever

A

o Sudden formation, may affected animals)
(sudden onset, only adults)

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5
Q

Enzoonotic bronchopneumonia in calves:

o Chronic disease
o Spontaneous recovery from higher fever
o Complex pathological disease
o Usually associated with hypothermia

A

o Complex pathological disease

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6
Q

Which statement is false about enzootic pneumonia in calves?

o Multifactorial disease
o Predisposing factors play a major role in its development
o Always an acute disease
o Brochodilators

A

o Always an acute disease

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7
Q

Pathogen of bovine lungworm:

o Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
o Dictyocaulus filaria
o Dictyocaulus eckerti
o Dictyocaulus viviparus

A

o Dictyocaulus viviparus

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8
Q

What is not subject of notification?

o Sheep-goat smallpox
o Is the sticky lung of cattle
o Scabies
o Infectious bovine laryngitis and tracheitis

A

o Infectious bovine laryngitis and tracheitis

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9
Q

Gentle feeding to restore rumen pH?

  • Easily fermentable carbohydrates in large quantities
  • Feeding sugars (e.g. molasses)
  • It is mainly hay containing high quality fibers
  • Industrial by-products eg. extracted soybean meal
A
  • It is mainly hay containing high quality fibers
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10
Q

Substance formed from carbohydrates during rumen digestion?

  • Volatile fatty acids
  • Ketone substances
  • Long chain fatty acids
  • Fats
A
  • Volatile fatty acids
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11
Q

Peripheral blood for measuring beta-hydroxy butyric acid?

  • Arterial blood only in a closed blood collection system
  • Only the v. blood collected from jugularis
  • Blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement
  • If peripheral blood is not suitable, blood should be taken from the central vein
A
  • Blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement
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12
Q

Which clinical parameter is useful for early detection of the disease on herd level?

  • Brinal condition
  • Milk production
  • Majority
  • Anorexia
A
  • Milk production
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13
Q

Optimal pH range of rumen:

  • 7.0-7.5
  • 5.5-6.3
  • 7.2-8.0
  • 6.3- 7.1
A
  • 6.3- 7.1
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14
Q

In subacute rumen acidosis, the pH range of the rumen is

  • 2.2 - 2.3
  • 3.3 - 3.4
  • 4.4 - 5.5
  • 5.5-6.5
A
  • 4.4 - 5.5
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15
Q

Time required to restore subclinical rumen acidosis

  • 1 day
  • 3-5 days
  • 2-3 weeks
  • 2-3 months
A
  • 2-3 weeks
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16
Q

Clinical signs of acute rumen acidosis?

  • Occasionally Kussmaul -type dyspnoea
  • Tachycardia
  • Nystagemus
  • Exsiccoiss
A
  • Occasionally Kussmaul -type dyspnoea
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17
Q

Drugs used in the treatment of acute rumen acidosis?

  • MgOxide (500g, p.os)
  • Fluid therapy depending on the degree of dehydration (Drench or iv)
  • Rumen transfusion
  • Ionophore antibiotic therapy p.os
A
  • Fluid therapy depending on the degree of dehydration (Drench or iv)
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18
Q

Prevention of rumen acidosis

  • Feeding of high lignite feeds
  • Feeding rumen buffers
  • Propylene glycol intake
  • Ammonium chloride diet
A
  • Feeding rumen buffers
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19
Q

Not used in the therapy of clinical ketosis?

  • gluconeoplastic substances
  • glucose
  • glucocorticol
  • gamithromycin
A
  • gamithromycin
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20
Q

What is true for free gas bloat?

  • Excessive amounts of butterfly green fodder can also cause feeding
  • When foaming, little foamy content can be obtained
  • Probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes
  • His prognosis is unfavorable
A
  • Probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes
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21
Q

Peripartal insulin resistance in ruminants:

  • Can be measured under stable conditions by HEC test
  • The derived index, which can be measure on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK
  • If the blood sugar level is less than 3 mmol/liter
  • It develops 3 months after calving
A
  • The derived index, which can be measure on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK
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22
Q

Diagnosis of subclinical ketosis?

  • Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
  • Determination of RQUICKI derived value
  • measurement of insulin from peripheral blood
  • determination of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) from peripheral blood
A
  • Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
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23
Q

In the treatment of calving paralysis (milk fever), the administration of calcium compounds is recommended
as follows:

  • Oral
  • Intraperitoneal
  • Subcutaneously
  • Intravenously
A
  • Intravenously
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24
Q

Symptoms of subclinical hypoglycemia:

  • causes bed rest
  • does not cause bed rest
  • Diseases around childbirth become more common
  • May reduce the amount of milk produced during lactation
A
  • Diseases around childbirth become more common
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25
Treatment of clinical hypocalcemia (calving paralysis): - Calcium gluconat iv - Ca-phosphate per os - Ca-sulfate iv - Ca-nitrate iv
- Calcium gluconat iv
26
What is the consistency of the ruminal content in case of anterior functional stenosis? - Foamy, cream-like - watery - doughy - solid
- Foamy, cream-like
27
Which orifice is the cause of blocked passage in the case of posterior functional stehosis? - Reticulo-abomasal orifice - Cardia - Pylorus - Reticulo-omasal orifice
- Pylorus
28
What is the consequence of the ruminal reflux? - In all cases, it causes rumen acidosis - Hyperchloraemia - The concentration of Cl-ion in the rumen increases - Metabolic acidosis
- The concentration of Cl-ion in the rumen increases
29
Which solution is preferred to use in abomasal displacement? - Hannover method - Ventral paramedian abomasopexia - Utrecht method - Laparoscopy (1 step form)
- Laparoscopy (1 step form)
30
Which statement is true for rolling technique in case of abomasal displacement? - Fast, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated inoculation of the stomach are high (50-70%) - rapid, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated inoculation of the stomach are low (5-7%) - rapid, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated vaccination stomach position changes are low (5-7%) - Rapid, simple and non-invasive technique, but the incidence of recurrence is quite high (50-70%)
- Rapid, simple and non-invasive technique, but the incidence of recurrence is quite high (50-70%)
31
What method is providing the abomasal life-long fixation: - Fastening with non-absorbent thread - Fastening with absorbent thread - Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis and then adhesions - Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes general peritonitis and then congestion
- Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis and then adhesions
32
What is characteristic of the Hanoverian method used to resolve the abomasal displacement? - Upright, paramedian laparotomy - Standing left flank laparotomy - Standing right flank laparotomy - Pseudo 6, but does not apply laparotomy
- Standing right flank laparotomy
33
What is the consequence of abomasal displacement? - Metabolic acidosis - Hyperchloraemia - Hypokalaemia - Paradox alkaluria
- Hypokalaemia
34
Which anesthesia technique results in scoliosis? - Distal lumbar paravertebral nerve block - Proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block - Inverted L paralumbar anesthesia - Epidural anesthesia
- Proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
35
Which vertebra is the last palpable transverse process belong to in a cow? - L4 - L3 - L5 - L6
- L5
36
Which nerves (N) are blocked with the use of proximal lumbar paravertebral anaesthesia? - NT13, NL1 and NL2 - NL1, NL2 and NL3 - NT13, NL1 and NL3 - NT13, NL2 and NL3
- NT13, NL1 and NL2
37
What is the place of low caudal epidural anesthesia? - Between the last sacral (S5) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1) - between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2) (coccygococcygeal) - Between the last sacral (S4) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1) - Between the last sacral (S6) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (2)
- Between the last sacral (S6) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (2)
38
What is the place of High caudal epidural anesthesia? - Between the last sacral (S5) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1) - between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2) (coccygococcygeal) - Between the last sacral (S4) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1) - Between the last sacral (S6) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (2)
- Between the last sacral (S5) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
39
Which of these statements is true for xylazine in cattle? - Horses are 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than cattle - A cow is as sensitive as a horse - Cattle is 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses - None of them is true
- Cattle is 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
40
Which is not true for flunixin? - Sedative - Analgesic - Anti-pyretic - Anti-endotoxin
- Sedative
41
What are the benefits of combining lidocaine with xylazine during epidural anesthesia? - Response delayed 1 to 2 hours - Excellent anesthesia in a smaller area - No sedation along with the anesthesia - None of them
- None of them
42
In which species do you expect to see the side effects of lidocaine? - Cow - Small ruminants - Both of them - None of them
- Small ruminants
43
What is NOT a physiological narrowment of the soft birth canal - The bifurcation - The cervix - The remaining tissue of the hymen - The vulva
- The bifurcation
44
How do we get the direction of the traction (linea directiva)? - We add the half point of the half point of the vertical diameters of the pelvis - We connect the highest and the lowest point of the pelvis - We take the force showing from the half point of the vertical dimeters of the pelvis to the tuber ischiadicum - The force from the deepest point of the pelvis showing to tuber isciadicum
- We add the half point of the half point of the vertical diameters of the pelvis
45
Which cattle corpus luteum is called mature corpus luteum? - Above 3mm - Above 5-10 mm - Above 17- 20mm - Above 35-45mm
- Above 17- 20mm
46
he presence of the fetus is: - The size of the fetus - The ratio between the maternal and the fetal pelvical diameter - The presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus - The vital signs of the fetus
- The presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus
47
The presentation of the fetus means: - The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus - The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis - The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity - The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
- The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
48
Normal presentation is: - Ventral oblique - Longitudinal posterior - Ventral back - Harms's presentation
- Longitudinal posterior
49
The overall prognosis of abnormal presentation: - In horses good, in cattle guarded - In cattle good, in horses guarded - In every species it's good - In every species it's guarded or bad
- In every species it's guarded or bad
50
The position of the fetus is: - The situation of the head and the extremices to the body of the fetus - The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus - The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis - The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
- The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
51
The normal position is: - Dorsal upright - Ventral upright - extended position - Flexed position
Dorsal upright
52
The posture of the fetus is: - The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis - The longitudinal axis of the dam that of the fetus - The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus - The placement of the fetus in the soft birth canal
- The longitudinal axis of the dam that of the fetus
53
The posture of the fetus is normal if: - Extended before parturition - Extended at parturition - Flexed at parturition - Always flexed
- Extended at parturition
54
Abnormal posture of the fetus: - Ventral abdominal - Dorsal abdominal - Oblique abdominal - unilateral hip flexion
-unilateral hip flexion
55
It is true to cattle twin pregnancy? - Most twin pregnancies are monozygotic - Occurrence of twins are 25% related to all birth - Usually, they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles - Twins are less likely to abort
- Usually, they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles
56
The cause of the rising rate of cattle twin pregnancy: - The wide use of reproductive hormones through to be cause - The increased milk production - The effect of some special cattle breeds it thought to be the cause - Rigorous genetic connection is though to cause
- The increased milk production
57
What is the loss rate in cattle pregnancies between day 30 and 60 (100% is the number of pregnant animals at day 30)? - 25-35% - 35-45% - 15-25% - 5-15%
- 35-45%
58
Prognosis of the displacement of the pregnant uterus: - Good - Moderate - Guarded - Poor
- Moderate
59
Choose the CORRECT statement from the followings, concerning to uterine torsion of the cow: - Precervical tosion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation - Postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palpation - Precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation - By manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
- Precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
60
What is the basis of obstetrical lubricants? - NADP - Methyl-malonil-coenzym A - Methyl-cellulose - Metil. Starch
- Methyl-cellulose
61
What is the general incision technique for CS in a cow? - Skin and subskin à internal oblique muscleà external oblique muscleà transverse muscle àperitoneum → abdominal cavity - Skin and sub skin à external oblique muscle àinternal oblique muscle → transverse muscleà peritoneumà abdominal cavity - Skin and subskinà transverse muscle à internal oblique muscle à external oblique muscle à peritoneumà abdominal cavity - Skin and subskin à transverse muscle à external oblique muscle à internal oblique muscle à peritoneum à abdominal cavity
- Skin and sub skin à external oblique muscle àinternal oblique muscle → transverse muscleà peritoneumà abdominal cavity
62
In what position would a C-section or a rumenotomy be performed in cattle in most cases? - In lateral recumbency using right flank approach - In standing restraint using right flank approach - In lateral recumbency using left flank approach - In standing restraint using left flank approach
- In standing restraint using left flank approach
63
In standing restraint using left flank approach - Horizontal - Vertical - Oblique: caudo-ventral - None of them - Unilateral hip flexion
- Oblique: caudo-ventral
64
Not a consequence of low blood carotene level in cattle - Impaired milk production - Decreased hair growth - Impaired immune function - Bad reproductive parameters
- Decreased hair growth
65
Not a possible cause of placental retention: - Lack of uterine contractions postpartum e.g; hypocalcemia - Detachment disorder due to placental oedema e.g; infectious causes - Certain mechanic causes eg; septum in the vagina - High blood carotene level peripartum.
- High blood carotene level peripartum.
66
Cattle retained placenta: - Is diagnosed after 2-4hours after calving - Is diagnosed after 12-24 hours after calving - Is diagnosed after 1-6h after calving - Is diagnosed after 48-72h after calving,.
- Is diagnosed after 12-24 hours after calving
67
Which drugs can be used in the therapy of the bacterial complications of cattle involution? - Antibiotics - Uterine relaxing drugs - NSAIDS - Immuno modulation drugs
- Antibiotics
68
Which statement is not true to cattle metritis? - Fever is always a clinical sign - Reddish- brown discharge from the vagina characterizes the disease - Enlarge uterus is characterizing the disease - Peripheral shock is always characterizing the disease
- Peripheral shock is always characterizing the disease
69
Which is the following IS true regarding the activity of cows - It decreases around the time of calving - It increases in lame animals - It increases significantly in animals in heat - It is not affected by diseases
- It increases significantly in animals in heat
70
Which of the following parameters shows an increase before calving? - Activity - Reticuloruminal pH - Reticulioruminal temperature - Rumination time
- Activity
71
Which of the following is NOT routinely used for the detection of rumination in cows? - Abdominal harness - Reticuloruminal bolus - Neck collar sensor - Ear-tag senors
- Abdominal harness
72
Which of the following diseases does not cause a decrease in rumination time? - Pneumonia - LDA - Puerperal metritis - Subclinical mastitis
- Pneumonia
73
Which of the following is false for reticuloruminal temperature? - It is affected by heat stress - Is increases in milk fever - It increased if the animal has fever - It has a circardian rhythm
- Is increases in milk fever
74
Which of the following statements is false regarding the 4-point nerve block in cattle? - It is less frequently used than the intravenous anesthesia of foot - It is practical when veins are hard to find due to severe cellulitis - One of its main complications is nerve damage around the injection sites - It is easily to administrated due to the loose tissue around the lower parts of foot
- It is easily to administrated due to the loose tissue around the lower parts of foot
75
What can be the consequence of a white line abscess? - Inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint - Laminitis - Separation of the whole hoof capsule - CODD
- Inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint
76
What's the disadvantage of ZnS04 as a footbathing solution? - Carcinogen - Toxic to small ruminants - Has to be used as a stand-in solution - Hard to acquire
- Has to be used as a stand-in solution
77
Which pathogen causes interdigital dermatitis? - D. nodosus - F. necrophorium - T. pygenes - S. aureus
- D. nodosus
78
Which of the following is not a main predisposing factor for laminitis in cattle: - Calving - Exposure to E.coli - Heat stress - Subacute ruminal acidosis
- Exposure to E.coli
79
Which of the following is false regarding laminitis in cattle? - It is characterized by the separation of the pedal bone from the hoof wall - It is more likely for the pedal bones to sink than to rotate - It can be treated with regular foot bath - One of its main complications can be white line disease
- It can be treated with regular foot bath
80
Which of the following methods is not used for the definite diagnosis of the septic arthritis of the DIP joint? - Manual palpation of DIP joint - Sampling of the DIP joint - Ultrasound of the dorsal pouch of the DIP joint - X-ray of the DIP joint
- Manual palpation of DIP joint
81
Which of the following techniques is not used for the resection of the DIP joint? - Bulbar approach - Axial approach - Solar approach - Abaxial approach
- Axial approach