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farm 2 > past retake retake > Flashcards

past retake retake Flashcards

1
Q

Pathogen of destructive rhinitis:

o OHV-1
o OHV-2
o OHV-3
o OHV-5

A

o OHV-2 (Herpesvirusà Malignant catarrhal fever)

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2
Q

What is responsible for the development of grazing
pulmonary edema?

o Switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture
o Lupinus spp. in the hay
o C. perfringens
o Bovine parainfluenza virus

A

o Switching from poor quality pasture to rich pasture (increase of proteins in feed)

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3
Q

What treatment would you use for foamy fermentation bloating?

o Sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation
o Probing, drinking 5 liters of 10% vinegar
o Feed withdrawal for 3 Days
o No treatment, euthnasia

A

o Sounding, foaming, flaxseed, hay supplementation

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4
Q

What is characteristic of grazing pulmonary edema?

o Sudden formation, may affected animals
o Chronic course
o Only young animal affected
o High fever

A

o Sudden formation, may affected animals)
(sudden onset, only adults)

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5
Q

Enzoonotic bronchopneumonia in calves:

o Chronic disease
o Spontaneous recovery from higher fever
o Complex pathological disease
o Usually associated with hypothermia

A

o Complex pathological disease

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6
Q

Which statement is false about enzootic pneumonia in calves?

o Multifactorial disease
o Predisposing factors play a major role in its development
o Always an acute disease
o Brochodilators

A

o Always an acute disease

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7
Q

Pathogen of bovine lungworm:

o Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
o Dictyocaulus filaria
o Dictyocaulus eckerti
o Dictyocaulus viviparus

A

o Dictyocaulus viviparus

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8
Q

What is not subject of notification?

o Sheep-goat smallpox
o Is the sticky lung of cattle
o Scabies
o Infectious bovine laryngitis and tracheitis

A

o Infectious bovine laryngitis and tracheitis

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9
Q

Gentle feeding to restore rumen pH?

  • Easily fermentable carbohydrates in large quantities
  • Feeding sugars (e.g. molasses)
  • It is mainly hay containing high quality fibers
  • Industrial by-products eg. extracted soybean meal
A
  • It is mainly hay containing high quality fibers
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10
Q

Substance formed from carbohydrates during rumen digestion?

  • Volatile fatty acids
  • Ketone substances
  • Long chain fatty acids
  • Fats
A
  • Volatile fatty acids
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11
Q

Peripheral blood for measuring beta-hydroxy butyric acid?

  • Arterial blood only in a closed blood collection system
  • Only the v. blood collected from jugularis
  • Blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement
  • If peripheral blood is not suitable, blood should be taken from the central vein
A
  • Blood taken from the tail vein is suitable for measurement
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12
Q

Which clinical parameter is useful for early detection of the disease on herd level?

  • Brinal condition
  • Milk production
  • Majority
  • Anorexia
A
  • Milk production
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13
Q

Optimal pH range of rumen:

  • 7.0-7.5
  • 5.5-6.3
  • 7.2-8.0
  • 6.3- 7.1
A
  • 6.3- 7.1
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14
Q

In subacute rumen acidosis, the pH range of the rumen is

  • 2.2 - 2.3
  • 3.3 - 3.4
  • 4.4 - 5.5
  • 5.5-6.5
A
  • 4.4 - 5.5
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15
Q

Time required to restore subclinical rumen acidosis

  • 1 day
  • 3-5 days
  • 2-3 weeks
  • 2-3 months
A
  • 2-3 weeks
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16
Q

Clinical signs of acute rumen acidosis?

  • Occasionally Kussmaul -type dyspnoea
  • Tachycardia
  • Nystagemus
  • Exsiccoiss
A
  • Occasionally Kussmaul -type dyspnoea
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17
Q

Drugs used in the treatment of acute rumen acidosis?

  • MgOxide (500g, p.os)
  • Fluid therapy depending on the degree of dehydration (Drench or iv)
  • Rumen transfusion
  • Ionophore antibiotic therapy p.os
A
  • Fluid therapy depending on the degree of dehydration (Drench or iv)
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18
Q

Prevention of rumen acidosis

  • Feeding of high lignite feeds
  • Feeding rumen buffers
  • Propylene glycol intake
  • Ammonium chloride diet
A
  • Feeding rumen buffers
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19
Q

Not used in the therapy of clinical ketosis?

  • gluconeoplastic substances
  • glucose
  • glucocorticol
  • gamithromycin
A
  • gamithromycin
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20
Q

What is true for free gas bloat?

  • Excessive amounts of butterfly green fodder can also cause feeding
  • When foaming, little foamy content can be obtained
  • Probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes
  • His prognosis is unfavorable
A
  • Probing and medical treatment are also available for diagnostic purposes
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21
Q

Peripartal insulin resistance in ruminants:

  • Can be measured under stable conditions by HEC test
  • The derived index, which can be measure on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK
  • If the blood sugar level is less than 3 mmol/liter
  • It develops 3 months after calving
A
  • The derived index, which can be measure on the basis of the blood parameters is indicated by, for example RQUICK
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22
Q

Diagnosis of subclinical ketosis?

  • Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
  • Determination of RQUICKI derived value
  • measurement of insulin from peripheral blood
  • determination of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) from peripheral blood
A
  • Measurement of BHB concentration from peripheral blood
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23
Q

In the treatment of calving paralysis (milk fever), the administration of calcium compounds is recommended
as follows:

  • Oral
  • Intraperitoneal
  • Subcutaneously
  • Intravenously
A
  • Intravenously
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24
Q

Symptoms of subclinical hypoglycemia:

  • causes bed rest
  • does not cause bed rest
  • Diseases around childbirth become more common
  • May reduce the amount of milk produced during lactation
A
  • Diseases around childbirth become more common
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25
Q

Treatment of clinical hypocalcemia (calving paralysis):

  • Calcium gluconat iv
  • Ca-phosphate per os
  • Ca-sulfate iv
  • Ca-nitrate iv
A
  • Calcium gluconat iv
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26
Q

What is the consistency of the ruminal content in case of anterior functional stenosis?

  • Foamy, cream-like
  • watery
  • doughy
  • solid
A
  • Foamy, cream-like
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27
Q

Which orifice is the cause of blocked passage in the case of posterior functional stehosis?

  • Reticulo-abomasal orifice
  • Cardia
  • Pylorus
  • Reticulo-omasal orifice
A
  • Pylorus
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28
Q

What is the consequence of the ruminal reflux?

  • In all cases, it causes rumen acidosis
  • Hyperchloraemia
  • The concentration of Cl-ion in the rumen increases
  • Metabolic acidosis
A
  • The concentration of Cl-ion in the rumen increases
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29
Q

Which solution is preferred to use in abomasal displacement?

  • Hannover method
  • Ventral paramedian abomasopexia
  • Utrecht method
  • Laparoscopy (1 step form)
A
  • Laparoscopy (1 step form)
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30
Q

Which statement is true for rolling technique in case of abomasal displacement?

  • Fast, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated inoculation of the stomach are high (50-70%)
  • rapid, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated inoculation of the stomach are low (5-7%)
  • rapid, simple and invasive technique, but the changes of repeated vaccination stomach position changes are low (5-7%)
  • Rapid, simple and non-invasive technique, but the incidence of recurrence is quite high (50-70%)
A
  • Rapid, simple and non-invasive technique, but the incidence of recurrence is quite high (50-70%)
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31
Q

What method is providing the abomasal life-long fixation:

  • Fastening with non-absorbent thread
  • Fastening with absorbent thread
  • Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis and then adhesions
  • Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes general peritonitis and then congestion
A
  • Fixation with non-absorbable thread, which causes local peritonitis and then adhesions
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32
Q

What is characteristic of the Hanoverian method used to resolve the abomasal displacement?

  • Upright, paramedian laparotomy
  • Standing left flank laparotomy
  • Standing right flank laparotomy
  • Pseudo 6, but does not apply laparotomy
A
  • Standing right flank laparotomy
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33
Q

What is the consequence of abomasal displacement?

  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Hyperchloraemia
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Paradox alkaluria
A
  • Hypokalaemia
34
Q

Which anesthesia technique results in scoliosis?

  • Distal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
  • Proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
  • Inverted L paralumbar anesthesia
  • Epidural anesthesia
A
  • Proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block
35
Q

Which vertebra is the last palpable transverse process belong to in a cow?

  • L4
  • L3
  • L5
  • L6
A
  • L5
36
Q

Which nerves (N) are blocked with the use of proximal lumbar paravertebral anaesthesia?

  • NT13, NL1 and NL2
  • NL1, NL2 and NL3
  • NT13, NL1 and NL3
  • NT13, NL2 and NL3
A
  • NT13, NL1 and NL2
37
Q

What is the place of low caudal epidural anesthesia?

  • Between the last sacral (S5) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
  • between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2) (coccygococcygeal)
  • Between the last sacral (S4) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
  • Between the last sacral (S6) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (2)
A
  • Between the last sacral (S6) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (2)
38
Q

What is the place of High caudal epidural anesthesia?

  • Between the last sacral (S5) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
  • between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2) (coccygococcygeal)
  • Between the last sacral (S4) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
  • Between the last sacral (S6) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (2)
A
  • Between the last sacral (S5) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1)
39
Q

Which of these statements is true for xylazine in cattle?

  • Horses are 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than cattle
  • A cow is as sensitive as a horse
  • Cattle is 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
  • None of them is true
A
  • Cattle is 10 times more sensitive to xylazine than horses
40
Q

Which is not true for flunixin?

  • Sedative
  • Analgesic
  • Anti-pyretic
  • Anti-endotoxin
A
  • Sedative
41
Q

What are the benefits of combining lidocaine with xylazine during epidural anesthesia?

  • Response delayed 1 to 2 hours
  • Excellent anesthesia in a smaller area
  • No sedation along with the anesthesia
  • None of them
A
  • None of them
42
Q

In which species do you expect to see the side effects of lidocaine?

  • Cow
  • Small ruminants
  • Both of them
  • None of them
A
  • Small ruminants
43
Q

What is NOT a physiological narrowment of the soft birth canal

  • The bifurcation
  • The cervix
  • The remaining tissue of the hymen
  • The vulva
A
  • The bifurcation
44
Q

How do we get the direction of the traction (linea directiva)?

  • We add the half point of the half point of the vertical diameters of the pelvis
  • We connect the highest and the lowest point of the pelvis
  • We take the force showing from the half point of the vertical dimeters of the pelvis to the tuber ischiadicum
  • The force from the deepest point of the pelvis showing to tuber isciadicum
A
  • We add the half point of the half point of the vertical diameters of the pelvis
45
Q

Which cattle corpus luteum is called mature corpus luteum?

  • Above 3mm
  • Above 5-10 mm
  • Above 17- 20mm
  • Above 35-45mm
A
  • Above 17- 20mm
46
Q

he presence of the fetus is:

  • The size of the fetus
  • The ratio between the maternal and the fetal pelvical diameter
  • The presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus
  • The vital signs of the fetus
A
  • The presentation, the position and the posture of the fetus
47
Q

The presentation of the fetus means:

  • The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
  • The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
  • The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
A
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
48
Q

Normal presentation is:

  • Ventral oblique
  • Longitudinal posterior
  • Ventral back
  • Harms’s presentation
A
  • Longitudinal posterior
49
Q

The overall prognosis of abnormal presentation:

  • In horses good, in cattle guarded
  • In cattle good, in horses guarded
  • In every species it’s good
  • In every species it’s guarded or bad
A
  • In every species it’s guarded or bad
50
Q

The position of the fetus is:

  • The situation of the head and the extremices to the body of the fetus
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
  • The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
  • The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
A
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus
51
Q

The normal position is:

  • Dorsal upright
  • Ventral upright
  • extended position
  • Flexed position
A

Dorsal upright

52
Q

The posture of the fetus is:

  • The maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam that of the fetus
  • The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
  • The placement of the fetus in the soft birth canal
A
  • The longitudinal axis of the dam that of the fetus
53
Q

The posture of the fetus is normal if:

  • Extended before parturition
  • Extended at parturition
  • Flexed at parturition
  • Always flexed
A
  • Extended at parturition
54
Q

Abnormal posture of the fetus:

  • Ventral abdominal
  • Dorsal abdominal
  • Oblique abdominal
  • unilateral hip flexion
A

-unilateral hip flexion

55
Q

It is true to cattle twin pregnancy?

  • Most twin pregnancies are monozygotic
  • Occurrence of twins are 25% related to all birth
  • Usually, they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles
  • Twins are less likely to abort
A
  • Usually, they are occurring from the ovulation of co-dominant follicles
56
Q

The cause of the rising rate of cattle twin pregnancy:

  • The wide use of reproductive hormones through to be cause
  • The increased milk production
  • The effect of some special cattle breeds it thought to be the cause
  • Rigorous genetic connection is though to cause
A
  • The increased milk production
57
Q

What is the loss rate in cattle pregnancies between day 30 and 60 (100% is the number of pregnant animals
at day 30)?

  • 25-35%
  • 35-45%
  • 15-25%
  • 5-15%
A
  • 35-45%
58
Q

Prognosis of the displacement of the pregnant uterus:

  • Good
  • Moderate
  • Guarded
  • Poor
A
  • Moderate
59
Q

Choose the CORRECT statement from the followings, concerning to uterine torsion of the cow:

  • Precervical tosion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
  • Postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palpation
  • Precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
  • By manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
A
  • Precervical torsion can only be palpated via rectal palpation
60
Q

What is the basis of obstetrical lubricants?

  • NADP
  • Methyl-malonil-coenzym A
  • Methyl-cellulose
  • Metil. Starch
A
  • Methyl-cellulose
61
Q

What is the general incision technique for CS in a cow?

  • Skin and subskin à internal oblique muscleà external oblique muscleà transverse muscle àperitoneum → abdominal cavity
  • Skin and sub skin à external oblique muscle àinternal oblique muscle → transverse muscleà peritoneumà abdominal cavity
  • Skin and subskinà transverse muscle à internal oblique muscle à external oblique muscle à peritoneumà abdominal cavity
  • Skin and subskin à transverse muscle à external oblique muscle à internal oblique muscle à peritoneum à abdominal cavity
A
  • Skin and sub skin à external oblique muscle àinternal oblique muscle → transverse muscleà peritoneumà abdominal cavity
62
Q

In what position would a C-section or a rumenotomy be performed in cattle in most cases?

  • In lateral recumbency using right flank approach
  • In standing restraint using right flank approach
  • In lateral recumbency using left flank approach
  • In standing restraint using left flank approach
A
  • In standing restraint using left flank approach
63
Q

In standing restraint using left flank approach

  • Horizontal
  • Vertical
  • Oblique: caudo-ventral
  • None of them
  • Unilateral hip flexion
A
  • Oblique: caudo-ventral
64
Q

Not a consequence of low blood carotene level in cattle

  • Impaired milk production
  • Decreased hair growth
  • Impaired immune function
  • Bad reproductive parameters
A
  • Decreased hair growth
65
Q

Not a possible cause of placental retention:

  • Lack of uterine contractions postpartum e.g; hypocalcemia
  • Detachment disorder due to placental oedema e.g; infectious causes
  • Certain mechanic causes eg; septum in the vagina
  • High blood carotene level peripartum.
A
  • High blood carotene level peripartum.
66
Q

Cattle retained placenta:

  • Is diagnosed after 2-4hours after calving
  • Is diagnosed after 12-24 hours after calving
  • Is diagnosed after 1-6h after calving
  • Is diagnosed after 48-72h after calving,.
A
  • Is diagnosed after 12-24 hours after calving
67
Q

Which drugs can be used in the therapy of the bacterial complications of cattle involution?

  • Antibiotics
  • Uterine relaxing drugs
  • NSAIDS
  • Immuno modulation drugs
A
  • Antibiotics
68
Q

Which statement is not true to cattle metritis?

  • Fever is always a clinical sign
  • Reddish- brown discharge from the vagina characterizes the disease
  • Enlarge uterus is characterizing the disease
  • Peripheral shock is always characterizing the disease
A
  • Peripheral shock is always characterizing the disease
69
Q

Which is the following IS true regarding the activity of cows

  • It decreases around the time of calving
  • It increases in lame animals
  • It increases significantly in animals in heat
  • It is not affected by diseases
A
  • It increases significantly in animals in heat
70
Q

Which of the following parameters shows an increase before calving?

  • Activity
  • Reticuloruminal pH
  • Reticulioruminal temperature
  • Rumination time
A
  • Activity
71
Q

Which of the following is NOT routinely used for the detection of rumination in cows?

  • Abdominal harness
  • Reticuloruminal bolus
  • Neck collar sensor
  • Ear-tag senors
A
  • Abdominal harness
72
Q

Which of the following diseases does not cause a decrease in rumination time?

  • Pneumonia
  • LDA
  • Puerperal metritis
  • Subclinical mastitis
A
  • Pneumonia
73
Q

Which of the following is false for reticuloruminal temperature?

  • It is affected by heat stress
  • Is increases in milk fever
  • It increased if the animal has fever
  • It has a circardian rhythm
A
  • Is increases in milk fever
74
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding the 4-point nerve block in cattle?

  • It is less frequently used than the intravenous anesthesia of foot
  • It is practical when veins are hard to find due to severe cellulitis
  • One of its main complications is nerve damage around the injection sites
  • It is easily to administrated due to the loose tissue around the lower parts of foot
A
  • It is easily to administrated due to the loose tissue around the lower parts of foot
75
Q

What can be the consequence of a white line abscess?

  • Inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint
  • Laminitis
  • Separation of the whole hoof capsule
  • CODD
A
  • Inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint
76
Q

What’s the disadvantage of ZnS04 as a footbathing solution?

  • Carcinogen
  • Toxic to small ruminants
  • Has to be used as a stand-in solution
  • Hard to acquire
A
  • Has to be used as a stand-in solution
77
Q

Which pathogen causes interdigital dermatitis?

  • D. nodosus
  • F. necrophorium
  • T. pygenes
  • S. aureus
A
  • D. nodosus
78
Q

Which of the following is not a main predisposing factor for laminitis in cattle:

  • Calving
  • Exposure to E.coli
  • Heat stress
  • Subacute ruminal acidosis
A
  • Exposure to E.coli
79
Q

Which of the following is false regarding laminitis in cattle?

  • It is characterized by the separation of the pedal bone from the hoof wall
  • It is more likely for the pedal bones to sink than to rotate
  • It can be treated with regular foot bath
  • One of its main complications can be white line disease
A
  • It can be treated with regular foot bath
80
Q

Which of the following methods is not used for the definite diagnosis of the septic arthritis of the DIP joint?

  • Manual palpation of DIP joint
  • Sampling of the DIP joint
  • Ultrasound of the dorsal pouch of the DIP joint
  • X-ray of the DIP joint
A
  • Manual palpation of DIP joint
81
Q

Which of the following techniques is not used for the resection of the DIP joint?

  • Bulbar approach
  • Axial approach
  • Solar approach
  • Abaxial approach
A
  • Axial approach

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