PastTest Flashcards

1
Q

Use of Riluzole?

A

Tx for ALS that modestly increases survival

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2
Q

_____ and ______ are drugs used in the treatment of cancer and can both cause coronary artery vasospasm.

A

5FU, capecitabine (orally available form of 5FU)

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3
Q

______ presents w/ features of SLE, systemic sclerosis and/or polymyositis. It is associated w/ anti-U1 RNP antibodies.

A

Mixed connective tissue disorder. Characteristic initial presentation is Raynaud’s phenomenon and myalgia.

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4
Q

This class of immunosuppressants used in organ transplant can cause renal damage (nephrotoxicity) by causing constriction of afferent and efferent renal arterioles.

A

Calcineurin inhibitors such as cyclosporine. They act by preventing IL-2 transcription.

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5
Q

The dorsal optic radiation linking the LGN to the superior portion of the visual cortex runs in the ______ lobe, while the Meyer’s loop liking the LGN to the inferior portion of the visual cortex runs in the ______ lobe.

A

parietal, temporal.

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6
Q

______ supplies the vestibular and cochlear nuclei (located in the pons)

A

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)

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7
Q

Schizophrenia symptoms (disorganized speech, delusions, hallucinations, disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative sxs) lasting 1-6 months =

A

Schizophreniform disorder. If it is less than a month it is called “brief psychotic disorder.”

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8
Q

When does the centrosome replicate in the cell cycle?

A

During S phase

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9
Q

Distinguish between TTP, hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) and DIC

A

Difference btwn TTP and DIC is that TTP has a normal PT/PTT and DIC doesn’t. HUS is for kids and TTP is for adults and HUS doesn’t have neurologic changes. All three can have petechiae.

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10
Q

Where does GI absorption of B12 take place?

A

Terminal ileum. Deficiency causes subacute combined degeneration of the cord and megaloblastic anemia.

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11
Q

Electron microscopy of minimal change will show…

A

Effacement or flattening of podocyte foot processes.

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12
Q

What is Cri-du-chat syndrome? What causes?

A

It is a congenital abnormality characterized by the findings on microcephaly, moderate to severe intellectual disability, high-pitched crying/mewing, epicanthal folds and cardiac abnormalities (most commonly VSD). It is caused by a congenital microdeletion of the short arm of chromosome 5.

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13
Q

Which hypertensive agents are preferred for use during pregnancy (i.e. for pre-eclampsia)?

A

hydralazine, labetalol, methyldopa, nifedipine

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14
Q

Sarcoidosis is characterized by what finding on bronchoalveolar lavage? What other things are characteristic of this disease?

A

Elevated CD4+/CD8+ ratio. Causes an interstitial lung disease, non-caseating granulomas of affected organs (most commonly lungs), associated w/ uveitis and parotid gland enlargement.

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15
Q

Hemochromatosis or iron overload can cause which two types of cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilated (more common) cardiomyopathy and restrictive cardiomyopathy.

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16
Q

Deficiency is what enzyme leads to Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

Deficiency in hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase. This is an X-linked disorder characterized by retardation and self-mutilation.

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17
Q

Which CN palsy is seen in association w/ idiopathic intracranial cranial hypertension?

A

CN VI palsy. Causes failure of abduction of the eyes. Note that this condition is most commonly seen in young, obese women, and that the fundoscopy exam will demonstrate papilledema.

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18
Q

What is the “pringle maneuver?”

A

It is where you clamp the free border of the lesser omentum (aka the hepatoduodenal ligament) and thus constrict the hepatic artery and portal vein. Useful in trauma to assess where peritoneal bleeding is coming from.

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19
Q

Leukemic cells that have thin projections of the cytoplasm will stain positive for what specific marker?

A

TRAP +. This is describing hairy cell leukemia.

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20
Q

What is TdT a marker of? In what condition is it positive?

A

TdT is a marker of pre-B and pre-T cells. It is positive in ALL.

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21
Q

Myotonic dystrophy (characterized by hypotonia, muscle wasting, and frontal balding, as well as increased risk of cataract formation and cardiac conduction defects) is characterized by which trinucleotide repeat of which gene?

A

CTG of DMPK gene

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22
Q

What is the finding of a CT brain in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

In advanced stage there is cerebral edema that can lead to effacement of sulci and loss of grey-white differentiation.

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23
Q

What is the pathophysiology of adrenoleukodystrophy? How does it present?

A

It is an X-linked disorder that causes disruption of metabolism of very long chain fatty acids (VLCFAs). This causes them to accumulate in the CNS and adrenal gland. It presents w/ cognitive impairment, gait ataxia, diffuse UMN signs, and adrenal insufficiency.

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24
Q

What is Dejerine-Roussy Syndrome?

A

This is aka thalamic pain syndrome. It is where there is an ischemic (not sure if it can be another type) infarct of the thalamus that then eventually leads to long-standing, residual pain at the site of sensory sxs when the infarct occurred.

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25
Q

Name the two possible infarct locations that can lead to isolated, contralateral sensory loss.

A

Thalamus and subcortical white matter

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26
Q

What are the causes of non-gap acidosis?

A

Hyperalimentation, addison disease, renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, acetazolamide, spironolactone, saline infusion. Think acronym HARDASS.

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27
Q

What does a characteristic finding of the CSF in MS pts?

A

Oligoclonal bands of IgG. This finding is specific, but not the most sensitive and as such the gold standard for dx is an MRI showing what matter lesions separated in space and time.

Additionally, myelin basic protein can be increased in the CSF of MS pts, particularly during periods of acute relapse.

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28
Q

What is the name of the drug that can be used in sickle cell pain crises that works by inhibiting ribonucleotide reductase?

A

Hydroxyurea. It can be also be used for melanoma and CML. It causes severe myelosuppression.

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29
Q

Bilateral schwannomas suggests a defect of what gene?

A

NF2 (neurofibromatosis type 2) (located on chromosome 22)

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30
Q

Some findings in CJDs in regards to EEG and CSF

A

EEG can show triphasic spike. CSF may show elevated 14-3-3 protein.

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31
Q

What is the equation for alveolar concentration of O2 (aka the alveolar gas equation)?

A

PAO2 = FiO2(Patm - PH20) - (PACO2/0.8)

*Note that if inspiring room are and at sea level, FiO2(Patm - PH20) = approximately 150 mm Hg

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32
Q

What is first line treatment for B-blocker overdose? How does it work?

A

Glucagon. It stimulated cAMP production independent of B-blockade and this leads to positive inotropic and chronotropic effects.

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33
Q

What is retinitis pigmentosa?

A

Progressive visual loss due to progressive cell death of the rod photoreceptors. Most commonly presents initially w/ difficulty seeing at night.

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34
Q

What is the clinical presentation of progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

Parkinsonism, cognitive decline, vertical saccades, poor response to levadopa.

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35
Q

What is Beck triad? When is it seen?

A

Triad of hypotension, distended neck veins and distant heart sounds. It is seen in cardiac tamponade.

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36
Q

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2b (MEN2b) is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in the RET oncogene. How does this disease present? And what is the treatment?

A

Presentation = medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, mucosal neuroma, marfanoid habitus and pheochromocytoma. Tx = curative or prophylactic thyroidectomy.

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37
Q

What is Bartter syndrome?

A

It is a congenital cause of hyperaldosteronism w/ adrenal cortex hyperplasia caused by a mutation in NKCC2 gene. This codes for the Na/K/2Cl transporter that is affected by loop diuretics.

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38
Q

What is the etiology of the punched out, lytic bone lesions that are seen in multiple myeloma?

A

Results from the production of osteoclast activating factors like IL6 and TNF made by the neoplastic plasma cells.

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39
Q

What is the name of the affected enzyme in acute intermittent porphyria? What builds up because of this?

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase. Porphobilinogen builds up.

40
Q

What are the preferred sites for needle decompression and chest tube placement respectively, in treatment of a tension pneuomothorax?

A

2nd intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line and 5th intercostal space at the mid-axillary line.

41
Q

Otosclerosis causes fixation of which bone in the ear?

A

The stapes leading to a conductive hearing loss. Per PasTest this is an AD condition w/ incomplete penetrance so it can skip generations and may appear as though there is no family history.

42
Q

Why are ACEIs contraindicated in bilateral renal stenosis?

A

Angiotensin causes efferent arteriole constriction at the kidney and thus admin of ACEIs can be renal protective in certain situations. However, if bilateral renal stenosis, the kidneys are largely dependent of angiotensin to maintain GFR. As such, ACEI use will cause GFR to crash and thus a dramatic increase in creatinine which is bad.

43
Q

What are the first trimester gestational findings in trisomy 21? How about the second trimester quad screen?

A

1st trimester: US shows increased nuchal translucency and hypoplastic nasal bone. There is also decreased serum PAPP-A and increased free beta-hCG.

2nd trimester quad screen: decreased alpha fetoprotein and estriol, increased B-hCG and inhibin A.

44
Q

What is the ventilation strategy in ARDS?

A

Low tidal volume ventilation at 6ml/kg based on ideal body weight.

45
Q

Which subsection of the hypothalamus drives satiety? How about hunger?

A

The ventromedial hypothalamus. Lesions lead to hyperphagia and obesity.

Lateral hypothalamus drives hunger.

46
Q

Which elements of the hypothalamus relate to temperature regulation? How so?

A

Anterior hypothalamus is responsible for cooling the body. Posterior hypothalamus is responsible for heating up the body.

47
Q

Diagnostic criteria for chylothorax variant of pleural effusion? How does this type of effusion arise?

A

Pleural fluid level of triglycerides > 110mg/dL or cholesterol:triglyceride ratio is < 1.

Arises from thoracic duct injury from trauma or malignancy.

48
Q

Common extra-renal complications of ADPKD?

A

Berry aneurysms that can lead to subarachnoid hemorrhage, liver cysts and mitral valve prolapse.

49
Q

What is the role of BMPR2 and what occurs when it is mutated?

A

BMPR2 inhibits vascular smooth muscle proliferation and so when it is mutated, this causes vascular smooth muscle proliferation. This can occur and cause the heritable form of pulmonary artery htn.

50
Q

Difference between the direct and indirect Coombs test?

A

Direct measures whether complement system factors or antibodies have bound to RBC surface antigens. Indirect measures whether or not there are antibody-antigen reactions?

I AM NOT SURE I HAVE THIS CORRECT. REVIEW.

51
Q

Criteria for complex region pain syndrome?

A

A syndrome of pain that arises in one limb after an initial event, but is disproportionate to that initial event. Criteria are:

1) continuing pain disproportionate to event
2) 1+ of vasomotor sxs, sensory changes, edema, motor dysfunction
3) signs: sensory changes, vasomotor, sudomotor/edema, motor/trophic
4) no other better dx that explains everything

52
Q

Presentation of ciguatoxin poisoning?

A

Toxin is in fish so pt will likely present having eaten fish recently. Presentation may include diarrhea, bradycardia and nerve palsy (not in symmetrical, descending pattern and no ocular involvement).

Supportive measures are the preferred treatment.

53
Q

Preferred treatment for mild to moderate C. Diff?

A

Metronidazole or oral vancomycin

54
Q

What is melanosis coli? What causes it?

A

Melanosis is a condition of black or brown pigmentation of the colon. Can be a reticular pattern w/ intervening segments of normal colon leading to what is known as a “toad back” appearance. Overall it is an incidental finding and does not really cause sxs.

It is caused by laxative abuse whose extent causes apoptosis of the colonic mucosa. This causes accumulation of macrophages digesting apoptotic debris and thus containing lipofuscin pigment which gives the black color to the colon.

55
Q

When is fixed splitting heard on cardiac auscultation?

A

During ASD due to L —> R shunt.

This condition is associated w/ RBBB and R axis deviation.

56
Q

What does a harsh, holosystolic murmur suggest?

A

VSD. Appreciated best at the apex of the heart.

57
Q

What is Brugada syndrome?

A

An AD genetic cardiac disorder that is more common in Asian males. It produces RBBB (sometimes dubbed pseudoRBBB) and ST elevations in V1-V3. Risk of tachy-arrhythmia and SCD.

58
Q

What is a Mallory-Weiss syndrome? Who is at risk for it?

A

Mucosal lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction due to severe vomiting. Alcohol use disorder and bulemia pts are at risk for it.

Boerhaave syndrome (a transmural rupture of the esophagus) is the extreme of this condition I believe and is a surgical emergency.

59
Q

What is the most common benign tumor of salivary glands?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma. It most commonly occurs in the parotid gland and is notorious for recurrence years after surgical removal due to irregular borders, lack of well-defined capsule and thus difficulty obtaining clear margins during surgery.

60
Q

What does lung histology show in ARDS?

A

A cellular infiltrate of neuts and lymphs with and eosinophilic exudate. Also hyaline membranes.

61
Q

What is Churg-Strauss syndrome?

A

Includes late onset asthma/allergic rhinitis, systemic vasculitis sxs (fever, malaise, weight loss, night sweats, rash, peripheral neuropathies, GI disturbances, etc.), and there is peripheral eosinophilia. p-ANCA can be elevated.

62
Q

What is the neurovasculature that runs through the cavernous sinus?

A

oculomotor nerve (CN3), trochlear nerve (CN4), abducens nerve (CN6), ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve, maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve. Also part of the internal carotid artery.

63
Q

What are the potential cardiac findings in cases of carcinoid tumor?

A

Tricuspid insufficiency, pulmonic stenosis (remember w/ acronym TIPS)

64
Q

What enzyme activity is measured and in what cells in order to confirm thiamine deficiency?

A

Transkelotase activity in RBCs.

65
Q

What is astereognosis?

A

Inability to identify things by touch.

66
Q

Tightened skin, potentially including masked face, and sporadic red spots on the skin’s surface indicates what condition?

A

Scleroderma. Red spots are telangiectasias.

67
Q

What is migratory thrombophlebitis? What are the typical causes?

A

It is redness and tenderness on palpation of extremities, from hypercoagulable state and then thrombi resolving. Called Trousseau sign.

Common cause is from adenocarcinoma of the pancreas or stomach cancer (overall it is usually malignancy that causes this).

68
Q

What is subclavian steal syndrome?

A

Caused by narrowing/stenosis of the subclavian artery. Basically you get signs of arterial insufficiency in the affected limb (lower BP, pallor, paresthesia, pain), as well as brainstem insufficiency signs (diplopia, dysarthria, etc.), especially when raising limb or high exertion.

69
Q

What is pseudocyesis?

A

Where a woman has the false belief that she is pregnant, with the accompanying signs and symptoms.

70
Q

How can HepC be related to labs that suggest nephrotic syndrome?

A

HCV is highly associated w/ cyroglobulinemia. The effects of this systemic vasculitis can be palpable purpura, arthralgia, weakness, neuropathy and glomerulonephritis.

71
Q

Nystagmus caused by vestibular impairment characteristically ________ w/ gaze directed toward the healthy side, and ________ w/ gaze directed toward the affected side.

A

worsens, diminishes or disappears

72
Q

Neural contents of the jugular foramen?

A

Vagus, spinal accessory and glossopharyngeal cranial nerves.

73
Q

When are crowdy type A inclusions seen in neurons?

A

Herpes simplex virus encephalitis

74
Q

Name of the LNs that drain the rectum? Anal canal below pectinate line? Sigmoid colon?

A

Internal iliac LNs. Inferior to the pectinate line they are drained by the superficial inguinal canal. Inferior mesenteric do the sigmoid colon.

75
Q

What is cataplexy? It occurs due to deficiency of _____ signaling in the locus ceruleus

A

Cataplexy = sudden and brief loss of muscle tone (sometimes everything, sometimes just some muscles leading to stuff like head bobbing or knee buckling). It is often provoked by emotion (laughing or crying). It’s from norepi deficiency in signaling.

76
Q

What is the characteristic presentation of necrotizing enterocolitis?

A

Occurs in premature, formula-fed infants w/ immature immune systems classically. Sxs include lethargy, refusal of feeds, abdominal distention, vomiting, diarrhea, SOB and/or hypotension.

77
Q

What is the presentation of Holt-Oram syndrome?

A

Absence of radius, polydactyl or hypoplastic thumb but no other skeletal abnormalities. May be an associated ASD.

78
Q

Which drugs are known to be associated w/ drug induced pancreatitis?

A

diuretics like HCTZ and furosemide, corticosteroids, valproic acid, didanosine

79
Q

The cephalic vein is on the ______ aspect of the forearm and the basilic on the _______ aspect of the forearm.

A

anterolateral, medial

80
Q

Before treating w/ levothyroxine in cases of panhypopituitarism, what is it important to check? What are you trying to prevent?

A

Check a cortisol. If low, want to be sure to to give glucocorticoids first so that you don’t precipitate adrenal crisis (further low cortisol in setting of increased metabolic demands from synthetic T4).

81
Q

What are the two essential components of autoimmune polyendocrinopathy-candidiasis-ectodermal dystrophy type 1? What distinguishes it from type 2?

A

hypoparathyroidism and mucocutaneous candidiasis.

In type two there is no chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis and the adrenal insufficiency is more pronounced.

82
Q

When is acute Budd-Chiari syndrome most commonly seen?

A

During pregnancy

83
Q

What is the treatment of choice for chronic HTN in pregnancy? What is a potential adverse consequence?

A

Alpha-methyldopa. Consequence is autoimmune hemolytic anemia producing spherocytsosis w/ positive direct Coombs test.

84
Q

What is the vertebral level at which the vagus nerve penetrated the diaphragm?

A

T10. Injury can cause HTN and tachycardia.

85
Q

What is the characteristic presentation of sclerodermal renal crisis?

A

Patients will present w/ accelerated HTN (sometimes with headaches and blurred vision) and renal insufficiency. UA may reveal proteinuria, granular casts and signs of hemolysis. There is thrombocytopenia and anemia due to this hemolysis.

RF include: male, African American, autoantibodies to RNA Polymerase, diffuse cutaneous SSc

86
Q

What drug is first line treatment for acute liver inflammation from hepatitis B (I think in a pt w/ chronic hepatitis).

A

Entecavir

87
Q

What are the suspected changes to central neural pathways that occur in delirium?

A

While poorly understood, it is suspected that it results from a relative excess of the dopaminergic pathways in the brain and a deficit of the acetylcholinergic pathways.

88
Q

True or false, Turner syndrome is associated w/ hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

A

True!

89
Q

Which antibodies are found in drug-induced lupus?

A

Anti-Justine antibodies and anti-nuclear antibodies

90
Q

What is the first line treatment for leishmaniasis?

A

Amphotericin B

Note that leishmaniasis will show amastigote filled macrophages on splenic aspirate (I saw this disease in a Haitian immigrant patient at preceptor!)

91
Q

Why can excessive vitamin C intake cause kidney stones?

A

Because excess vitamin C can be converted to oxalic acid and lead to the formation of calcium oxalate stones which are envelope shaped.

92
Q

What area of the gut is it most common for primary carcinoid tumors to arise in?

A

The midgut (distal duodenum to mid transverse colon).

93
Q

What are you looking for on an ECG in a patient who has acute renal failure?

A

You’re looking for peaked T waves b/c acute kidney failure prevents kidneys from being able to secrete K+ into the urine and can lead to hyperkalemia.

94
Q

Which anti-arrhythmic has a classic drug interaction that decreases digoxin clearance and displaces digoxin from tissue binding sites (potentially resulting in dig toxicity)?

A

Quinidine

95
Q

Where is immune complex deposition in bullous pemphigoid? How about in pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Bullous pemphi

96
Q

What are the adverse effects of amiodarone?

A

Adverse effects of amiodarone include interstitial pulmonary fibrosis, thyroid dysfunction (both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism), hepatitis, blue-gray skin pigmentation in sun-exposed areas, and corneal deposits.