Patho Exam 3 Flashcards
(201 cards)
1
Q
Unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage
A
Pain
2
Q
Pain that results from injury to tissues
A
Nociceptive pain
3
Q
Two types of nociceptive pain
A
Somatic and visceral
4
Q
Injury to somatic issues (bones joints muscles)
A
Somatic pain
5
Q
Injury to visceral organs (small intestines)
A
Visceral pain
6
Q
Results from injury to peripheral nerves, response poorly to opioids
A
Neuropathic pain
7
Q
Conscious experience of pain
A
perception
8
Q
Pain impulses are enhanced by ______
A
prostaglandins, substance P (make nerve endings more sensitive to pain)
9
Q
Brain suppresses pain by using endogenous opioid compounds such as:
A
endorphins/ enkephalins
10
Q
what integrates and interprets pain sensations
A
parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex
11
Q
what governs the emotional response to pain
A
cingulate gyrus
12
Q
relay station- (to and from periphery)- “OUCH! thats a 10 on pain scale!”
A
thalamus
13
Q
learning and memory- “don’t forget you did that, idiot”
A
hippocampus
14
Q
treating the excruciating pain with narcotics not only activates the pain control system but also activates the dopaminergic reward system
A
Amygdala/nucleus accumbens
15
Q
sudden onset pain, usually subsides once treated
A
acute pain
16
Q
persistent or reoccurring, lasts 3-6 months, often difficult to treat
A
chronic pain
17
Q
Areas of skin that send their sensory
information into specific spinal cord segments, visceral structures share these sensory afferents with skin areas
A
dermatomes
18
Q
maximal intensity of the visceral pain are in the _____/______ areas, up neck, down inner arm
A
retrosternal/ percordial
19
Q
Arises from internal organs such as the
intestine, bladder and heart, tumor involvement or obstruction
A
visceral pain
20
Q
radiated from origin to different site
A
referred pain
21
Q
drugs that relieve pain without causing the loss of consciousness
A
analgesics
22
Q
most effective pain relievers available
A
opioids
23
Q
Increasing the dose beyond the upper limit provides no greater analgesia
A
Analgesic ceiling
24
Q
most dangerous acetaminophen interaction
A
alcohol
25
hepatotoxicity of acetaminophen can be reversed with ________
acetylcysteine
26
Works by preventing the hepatotoxic metabolites of acetaminophen from forming
acetylcysteine
27
Bad-tasting with odor of rotten eggs, Vomiting of oral dose common, Available in IV
acetylcysteine
28
overdose of acetaminophen
hepatic necrosis
29
hepatic necrosis symptoms
hepatic failure, coma, death
early symps: N/V, diarrhea, sweating, abdominal pain
30
Inhibits cyclooxygenase and has antiinflammatory,
analgesic, and antipyretic actions
ibuprofen
31
Adverse effects of NSAIDs
heartburn, ulceration and GI bleeding, acute renal failure, CV risk, MI, Stroke, thrombotic event
32
Opium was used primarily as a sedative and
as a
treatment for diarrhea
33
3 classes of opioid receptors
Mu, Kappa, Delta
34
Mu receptors:
Analgesia, respiratory depression,
euphoria, sedation, decrease GI motility and
physical dependence
35
Kappa receptors:
Analgesia, decrease GI motility
and sedation
36
the prototypical opioid and is used as
the standard of comparison for all other opioids
morphine
37
Other strong opioid agonists :
Fentanyl, Hydromorphone
38
moderate to strong opioid agonists:
Codeine, oxycodone, hydrocodone
39
Relieves pain without affecting other senses (for
example, sight, touch, smell, and hearing), no loss of conciousness
morphine
40
AE of morphine
resp. depression, constipation, orthostatic hypotension, urinary retention, cough suppression, increased ICP, Euphoria/dysphoria, sedation
41
State in which an abstinence syndrome will occur if the dependence-producing drug is abruptly withdrawn; it is NOT equated with addiction
Physical dependence
42
Drug use that is inconsistent with medical or social norms
abuse
43
Behavior pattern characterized by continued use of a psychoactive substance despite physical, psychologic, or social harm
addiction
44
Large organ behind stomach, Exocrine & endocrine gland, Role in regulation of
glucose homeostasis
pancreas
45
Hormone secreting part of pancreas
islets of Langerhans
46
4 Types of cells: pancreas
alpha, beta, delta, F cells
47
make & secrete glucagon
alpha cells
48
make and secrete insulin
beta cells
49
alpha cells, breakdown for energy
glucagon
50
beta cells, storage of excess energy
insulin
51
glucagon secreted
from pancreas (alpha)
hypoglycemia
52
Provides fuel through glycogenolysis,
breakdown of glycogen into glucose, Causes liver to release glucose to
tissues, increases BG
glucagon
53
aka dextrose, Primary source of energy in body, simplest form of carb, circulates in blood to meet requirements for quick energy
glucose
54
low BG level, Confusion, irritability,
tremors, sweating; coma and death
hypoglycemia
55
high BG level, polyuria, polydipsia,
polyphagia, weight loss, fatigue
hyperglycemia
56
Secreted from pancreas, Goes to liver, Breaks down glycogen into
glucose
glucagon
57
Storage of glucose in the liver
glycogen
58
Source of energy, Stored in liver as glycogen
glucose
59
Daily secretion of insulin
40-50 U
60
Increased _____ release when food is
digested
insulin
61
Balance of glucagon & insulin fail, Issues with insulin supply or poor use of available insulin
diabetes mellitus
62
Leading cause of adult blindness, end stage renal disease, & lower limb amputation, More that half have hypertension & high cholesterol
DM
63
Hgb A1C 6.5% or HIGHER=
- random glucose of 200mg/dL or HIGHER
DM
64
Measures glycosylated hemoglobin as a percentage of total Hgb
hemoglobin A1C
65
ADA normal < ____%
5.7%
66
ADA hgbA1C goal for patient
with diabetes < __-__%
6.5-7%
67
Autoimmune disorder, antibodies developed against b cells, Lack of insulin production/ production of defective insulin, B cell destruction for months before symptoms
Type 1 DM
68
Type 1 DM: 3 P's
polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
69
Body cannot get glucose; breaks down
fat & protein- attempt for energy
weight loss in DM type 1
70
Body cells lack needed energy from
glucose
weakness/fatigue in Dm type 1
71
insulin resistance and/or inadequate insulin secretion, Combination of inadequate insulin secretion,
insulin resistance, ineffective use of insulin, pancreas makes SOME insulin
type 2 Diabetes mellitus
72
Distinction between type 1 and type 2 = presence of ______ ___
endogenous insulin
73
S/S of hyperglycemia- appear when 50-
80% of Beta cells are
no longer secreting
insulin
type 2 DM
74
autoimmune destruction, No endogenous insulin, Juvenile onset; < 20, normal insulin receptors and insulin treatment
Type 1 DM
75
overweight, age, family hx,
genetic, Normal to high insulin; then reduced, Decreased or defective receptors
treatment of weight loss, diet/exercise, oral meds, maybe insulin
type 2 DM
76
_____ restores patient’s ability to:
* Metabolize carbs, fats, & proteins
* Store glucose in the liver
* Convert glycogen to fat stores
insulin
77
number of units of insulin per milliliter
concentration
78
Deliver long and rapid/short acting insulin
basal-bolus insulin
79
long – acting insulin to keep BG from
fluctuating
basal
80
Rapid acting insulin to mimic burst
insulin in response to ↑ BG levels
bolus
81
2 different insulins: 1 intermediate & 1
rapid/short acting
fixed-combination insulins
82
Simulate varying levels of endogenous
insulin that occur naturally, mealtime and basal coverage
fixed-combo
83
when mixing insulin,
first draw up regular or rapid acting insulin (clear), then intermediate or NPH insulin (cloudy)
84
Method to correct blood glucose levels;
Sub-q doses of rapid/short acting insulin
adjusted based on BG levels
sliding-scale insulin
85
main cause of uncomplicated, community-acquired UTIs and cause of less than 50% of hospital-acquired UTIs
E. coli
86
blood flow to kidneys through _____ artery, out though ____
afferent, efferent
87
80-85% of nephrons lie in _____ cortex
renal
88
basic functioning unit of kidney, 1.5 million per
kidney in normal birth weight individuals
nephron
89
_____ artery arises from the aorta, dividing into smaller branches, all forming an ______ arteriole
renal, afferent
90
Afferent arteriole divides into a capillary
network:
glomerulus
91
80% of electrolytes get reabsorbed at the ______
Proximal convoluted tubule:
92
at the descending Loop of Henle, ____ gets reabsorbed
water, some sodium, urea, other solutes
93
at the ascending Loop of Henle, _____ gets reabsorbed
chloride, sodium
94
causes are factors external to kidneys that reduce renal blood flow (cause is BEFORE kidneys)
prerenal
95
prerenal causes:
severe dehydration, heart failure, decrease CO
96
t/f: acute kidney failure is typically reversible
true
97
Decreases glomerular filtration rate, causes oliguria, Autoregulatory mechanisms attempt to preserve blood flow
prerenal
98
Causes include conditions that cause direct damage to kidney tissue, (occurs IN the kidney)
intrarenal
99
____ Results from prolonged ischemia- can cause acute
tubular necrosis.
intrarenal
100
Inflammation of glomerulus usually autoimmune
intrarenal
101
Results from ischemia, nephrotoxins, or sepsis. epithelial cells that dont get oxygen, they start to slough off causing obstruction
acute tubular nephrosis
102
_____ causes include Benign prostatic hyperplasia, Prostate cancer, Calculi, Trauma, Extrarenal tumors
(occurs AFTER kidneys)
postrenal
103
First line drugs for all patients with volume overload. Watch electrolytes!!
diuretics
104
Furosemide (Lasix) is a _____ diuretic
loop
105
Hydrochlorothiazide is a _____ diuretic
thiazide
106
Spironolactone is a _____ diuretic
potassium-sparing
107
works at ascending loop of henle, puts sodium and chloride back into tubule system, causing ostmotic effect because water (and electrolytes) always follows sodium
Furosemide diuretic
108
most of electrolytes taken back in (reabsorbs the most), produces most diuresis
proximal convuluted tubule
109
distal convoluted tubule only takes back in ___% of electrolytes
10%
110
Blockade of sodium and chloride
reabsorption into body, allow into tube then into toilet
diuretics
111
Acts on ascending loop of Henle to block reabsorption
furosemide
112
if given furosemide PO, ___ mins, IV, ___ mins
60, 5
113
uses of furosemide
Pulmonary edema, Edematous states, Hypertension
114
Adverse effects of furosemide
Hyponatremia, hypochloremia, dehydration, Hypotension, Hyperuricemia, ototoxicity
115
Hormone produced by the adrenal gland; functional unit of the kidney it’s job is to conserve sodium and water and excrete potassium.
aldosterone
116
produced by the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary in response to osmoreceptors
located in the hypothalamus, fluid is held back (restricted)
Antidiuretic Hormone
117
t/f: Adh turns on by itself at night to stop from urinating all night long
true, if no Adh at night: nocturia
118
____ receptors on the distal tubule and collecting duct
Adh
119
kicks in around midnight with water conservation and reduced urination at night
Diurnal rhythm
120
excess hydrogen ions in blood=
acidic
121
bicarb level:
22-26
122
if kidney fails, Retention of water— causing what?
edema, weight gain, HTN
123
if _____ fails, also retention of urea (BUN), creatinine, Na+ (HTN), K+ (hyperkalemia, life threatening cardiac arrythmias), phosphorus(hyperphosphatemia)
kidney
124
plasma (serum) creatinine level:
0.5-1
125
Urea is a commonly used marker for the diagnosis of renal failure/kidney injury; by-product of protein metabolism (not produced at a constant rate)
BUN
126
BUN level
8-18 mg/dL
127
reasons for elevated BUN
decreased GFR, dehydration
128
is released from skeletal muscle at
a relatively constant state, is freely filtered at
the glomerulus, and is not reabsorbed or
metabolized by the kidneys
creatinine
129
if the kidneys are not filtering properly, ______ will be retained and the ____ ______will be
increased
creatinine, serum creatinine
130
Can be influenced by age, gender, muscle mass, diet,
concomitant diseases, & drugs
serum creatinine
131
The NIH Consensus recommends that
patients with chronic kidney disease be
referred to a renal team when the
serum creatinine begins to elevate.
132
determination of how much the glomerulus
filters; can be determined by how much
creatinine is CLEARED into the toilet (also
known as creatinine clearance)
glomerular filtration rate
133
5 fn of kidneys
-maintain fluid/electrolye balance
-maintain acid-base balance
-Vitamin D and calcium metabolism
-RBC production via hormone erythropoietin
-main BP via renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
134
a GFR of less than ___ mL/min represents a loss of more than half of normal kidney function
60
135
The kidney converts the vitamin D from
the skin and diet to the active form of vitamin D, also called
calcitriol
136
________ __ is necessary for the absorption
of calcium from the GI tract
vitamin D
137
Calcium and phosphorus must always be
“__ _____” in the blood
in balance
138
Normal Phosphorus level:
2.4-4.4mg/dL
139
Normal Calcium level:
8.6 -10.2 mg/dL
140
hypocalcemia causes:
Neuromuscular Excitability:
- tetany, paresthesias, hyperactive
DTRs, Trousseau’s sign,
Chovstek's sign, seizures
141
contraction of the hand and finger when blood flow occluded
Trousseau’s sign
142
elicited by tapping the facial nerve
Chovstek’s sign
143
Serum level greater than10.2 mg/dL
hypercalcemia
144
hypercalcemia causes:
malignancy and hyperparathyroidism, bone loss related to immobility
145
Manifestations of ________: Loss of cell membrane
excitability: fatigue, weakness, lethargy,
incoordination
hypercalcemia
146
when phosphorus levels go to high, _____ goes low
calcium
147
Most abundant intracellular cation, Extracellular concentrations are low
potassium
148
potassium level:
3.5-5
149
potassium lives inside or outside cell?
mostly inside, because levels are only 3.5-5
150
Conducting nerve impulses, Maintaining the electrical
excitability of muscle, Regulating acid-base balance
potassium
151
regulation of potassium levels Primarily by the ______
kidneys
152
Renal excretion increased by _______, also most diuretics
aldosterone
153
insulin is key to the ____, puts poatssium back into them
cells
154
Potassium uptake enhanced
alkalosis
155
Potassium exits cells
acidosis
156
Serum potassium levels less than 3.5 mEq/L
hypokalemia
157
Dosages for prevention: oral potassium
16-24 mEq/day
158
Dosages for deficiency: oral potassium
40-100 mEq/day
159
dont push ______, unless cannot take PO and if IV needed, dilute it and push SLOWLY
potassium
160
NEVER push _____ ________, results in cardiac arrest
potassium chloride
161
Contraindications to potassium (treatment for hypokalemia): do not use in patients predisposed to
hyperkalemia (severe renal impairment)
162
Excessive elevation of serum
potassium
hyperkalemia
163
causes of _______:
Severe tissue trauma
Acute acidosis (draws potassium out
of cells)
Misuse of potassium-sparing
diuretics
Overdose with IV potassium
hyperkalemia
164
Disruption of electrical activity of the
heart is a consequence of
- mild elevation:
severe elevation:
hyperkalemia
- 5-7
- 8-9
165
Noncardiac signs of hyperkalemia
Confusion, anxiety, dyspnea,
weakness or heaviness of legs,
numbness/tingling of hands/feet/lips
166
hyperkalemia treatment:
no food or meds with potassium
167
***Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
(Kayexalate) should not be given to a
patient with a ______ ____ because
bowel necrosis can occur. Auscultate
bowel sounds prior to administration.
paralytic ileus
168
Concentration within the cells much
higher than outside the cell. Plasma
Mg levels 1.5-2.4mEq/L
magnesium
169
Most bound to protein uncharged, Helps regulate neurochemical transmission and excitability of
muscle, Obtained from food, excreted in urine and stool
magnesium
170
Serum level less than 1.3 mg/dL
hypomagnesium
171
Causes of hypomagnesium
alcoholism, GI losses, enteral or parenteral
feeding deficient in magnesium, medications, burns
172
Manifestations of hypomagnesium
neuromuscular irritability, muscle
weakness, tremors, ECG changes and dysrhythmias,
alterations in mood and level of consciousness
173
Second most common infection, in sexually active young women and older adults in nursing homes
UTI
174
upper UTI in _______
-Acute pyelonephritis
-Acute bacterial prostatitis
kidneys
175
upper UTI in _______
-Acute pyelonephritis
-Acute bacterial prostatitis
kidneys
176
lower UTI in _____ and _____
-Acute cystitis
-Acute urethral syndrome
bladder and urethra
177
When the bladder fills, the distal end of the
______ closes to prevent urine from backing up
into the kidney
ureter
178
If this mechanism is not working properly
bacteria can reflux into the ureters and up to the
kidneys—
vesicoureteral reflux
179
Lower urinary tract infections
cytisis
180
Frequently the treatment of choice for oral
therapy of UTIs
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
(TMP/SMZ)
181
Suppress bacterial growth by
inhibiting tetrahydrofolic acid, a
derivative of folic acid or folate
sulfonemides and trimethoprim
182
Moderate
infection (treatment at home with
oral antibiotics)
mild pyelonephritis
183
Requires
hospitalization and IV antibiotics
severe pyelonephritis
184
Inflammation of the prostate caused by local
bacterial infection
- high fever, chills, malaise, myalgia, localized
pain, dysuria, nocturia, urinary urgency,
urinary frequency, urinary retention
Acute Bacterial Prostatitis
185
total inability to pass urine.
acute urinary retention
186
incomplete bladder emptying
despite urination.
chronic urinary retention
187
AE of trimethroprim/sulfamethoxazole
N/V, GI, rash, hyperkalemia
188
found on heart muscle; increases HR and strength of contraction
B1
189
skeletal muscle, bronchioles of lungs, arteries of legs, pilorection
B2
190
arteriole smooth muscle
a1
191
regulates CNS output of SNS; hypothalamus
a2
192
alpha-1 receptors
are also located on the smooth
muscle of the ______ gland
prostate
193
normal pH
7.35-7.45
194
normal CO2
35-45
195
normal bicarb
22-26
196
2 things that control pH
respiratory and metabolic; because kidneys hold onto bicarb, resp holds onto CO2
197
ROME:
Resp
Opposite
Metabolic
Equal
198
resp acidosis common for
COPD, CO2 builds up
199
drug OD, CO2 builds up, also
resp acidosis
200
too much CO2 let out, ex anxiety attack
resp alkalosis
201
breathe out/lose CO2, become
alkali
