Pathology Review Q's Flashcards
PATHO Lectures: 1. Pathology of Bone Healing (1-14) 2. Pathology of Autoimmune diseases: Systemic Lupus Erythematous (26-43) 3. Genetic Basis of Orthopedic diseases (44-79) 4. Pathology of Arthriris (80-99) (165 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following fractures would most likely lead to an infection?
a. greenstick
b. spiral
c. transverse
d. compound
e. pathological fracture
A
d. compound
2
Q
Which of the following fractures occur due to minimal trauma?
a. greenstick
b. spiral
c. transverse
d. compound
e. pathological fracture
A
e. pathological fracture
3
Q
Which of the following can be seen in an x-ray?
a. soft callus
b. hard callus
c. cartilaginous callus
A
b. hard callus
4
Q
In which of the following patients does fracture healing take longer?
a. 14 year old girl
b. 35 year old man
c. 55 year old diabetic women
A
c. 55 year old diabetic women
5
Q
Which of the following occurs due to overuse?
a. traumatic fracture
b. stress fracture
c. pathological fracture
A
b. stress fracture
6
Q
Which of the following phases is when callus formation occurs?
a. reactive phase
b. remodeling phase
d. reparative phase
A
d. reparative phase
7
Q
Which of the following stimulates angiogenesis?
a. transforming growth factor
b. platelet derived growth factors
c. fibroblast growth factors
d. insulin like growth factors
e. bone morphogenetic proteins
A
c. fibroblast growth factors
8
Q
Which of the following is used clinically to enhance fracture healing?
a. transforming growth factor
b. platelet derived growth factors
c. fibroblast growth factors
d. insulin like growth factors
e. bone morphogenetic proteins
A
e. bone morphogenetic proteins (BMP)
9
Q
Which of the following stimulates bone resorption?
a. transforming growth factor
b. platelet derived growth factors
c. fibroblast growth factors
d. insulin like growth factors
e. bone morphogenetic proteins
A
b. platelet derived growth factors
10
Q
Which of the following degrades collagen?
a. thyroid hormones
b. leukotrienes
c. prostaglandins
d. angiogenic factors
e. metalloproteinases
A
e. metalloproteinases
11
Q
Which of the following inhibits osteoclast activity?
a. thyroid hormones
b. leukotrienes
c. prostaglandins
d. angiogenic factors
e. metalloproteinases
A
c. prostaglandins
12
Q
How do osteons communicate with the medullary cavity?
a. through haversian systems
b. through volkmann canals
c. through central canal
A
b. through volkmann canals
13
Q
T/F: woven bone deposition can be seen on x-ray
A
false, it can only be seen when its getting turned into lamellar bone
14
Q
Which stage of fracture healing can last the longest?
a. reactive phase
b. remodeling phase
d. reparative phase
A
b. remodeling phase
several years
15
Q
Which of the following affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints more?
a. osteoarthritis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
A
a. osteoarthritis
16
Q
Which of the following affects the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints more?
a. osteoarthritis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
A
b. rheumatoid arthritis
17
Q
Which of the following correctly analyzed the synovial fluid test?
a. when the synovial fluid has pus, it means rheumatoid arthritis
b. when the synovial fluid has a high cell count, it means septic arthritis
c. when the synovial fluid has very low glucose, it means rheumatoid arthritis
d. when the synovial fluid has crystals, it means septic arthritis
A
b. when the synovial fluid has a high cell count, it means septic arthritis
A&C= Septic D= gout or pseudogout
18
Q
How are the kidneys affected in rheumatoid arthritis?
A
amyloid build-up, medications, vasculitis, or associated diseases of RA, such as nephrotic syndrome
19
Q
Rheumatoid arthritis patient comes in with very dry mouth. Which is more likely?
a. amyloidosis
b. Sjogren’s syndrome
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. SLE
A
b. Sjogren’s syndrome
20
Q
What HLA molecule is associated with Rheumatoid arthritis?
A
HLA-DRB1
HLA-DR1, HLA-DR4, HLA-DR10, HLA-DR14
21
Q
What is “pannus” and why does it form in Rheumatoid arthritis?
A
Pannus is an abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue or granulation tissue. Inflammation and exuberant proliferation of the synovium leads to the formation of pannus and destruction of cartilage, bone, tendons, ligaments, and blood vessels.
22
Q
What is Rice-body formation? What disease is it associated with?
A
it’s a nonspecific response to chronic synovial inflammation. Rice bodies appear as grains of polished rice, they’re composed of an acidophilic collagenous center and are encased in fibrin. Associated with RA.
23
Q
Which Rheumatoid patients are more likely to get Rheumatoid nodules?
A
ones with high RF value Rheumatoid factors (RFs) are IgM's against IgG's
24
Q
What are Rheumatoid nodules made up of?
A
fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by epitheloid cells
25
Give 2 reasons why Rheumatoid patients get anemia?
1. the inflammation causes hepcidin levels to increase
| 2. the NSAIDs we give them cause GI bleeding
26
Which type of immunoglobulin is made by the body to attack itself in Lupus?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
c. IgM
| IgM's against IgG's
27
Which of the following is least specific to lupus?
a. Alopecia
b. photosensitivity
c. Discoid rash
d. Malar rash
a. Alopecia
28
Which of the following lupus types primarily affects the skin?
a. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE
b. Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)
b. Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)
29
which of the following is a strong chemotactic of neutrophils?
a. C5a
b. C6
c. C7b
d. C8
a. C5a
30
What's a Lichenoid reaction?
a reaction similar to lichen planus, meaning it causes swelling and irritation in the skin, hair, nails and mucous membranes
31
Describe SLE cases with follicular plugs
a. acute
b. chronic
b. chronic
32
T/F: all SLE patients have kidney disease
false, they all have immune complexes but that doesn't necessarily mean disease
33
describe the relationship between lupus progression and subepidermal basement membrane thickness
a. inversely proportional
b. directly proportional
b. directly proportional
34
What's an indicator of mesangial lupus?
a. 2-3 cells per mesangium area
b. 4-5 cells per mesangium area
c. 7-8 cells per mesangium area
c. 7-8 cells per mesangium area
35
What is endocapillary?
An occlusion of capillary lumens due to cellular proliferation and endothelial cells edema
36
How do we measure capillary proliferation?
a. subepithelial deposits
b. subendothelial deposits
b. subendothelial deposits
37
dense hyaline deposits in glomeruli is a sign of
Proliferative Glomerulonephritis (wire loop)
38
crescentic glomerulonephritis is which type of kidney disease?
a. acute
b. chronic
a. acute
| treat urgently
39
SLE patient has to get dialysis treatments weekly because of his non-functioning kidney. What type of lupus did this become?
Diffuse sclerosing lupus
40
What's the most common pulmonary manifestation of SLE?
Pleurisy; its when the pleura (which lines the inner side of the chest cavity and surrounds the lungs) becomes inflamed
41
What's the most common cardiac manifestation of SLE?
Pericarditis
42
A nonbacterial endocarditis that is seen in association with SLE is called
Libman–Sacks endocarditis
| may cause vegetation of mitral valve
43
Why do some SLE patients have spontaneous abortions?
reduced blood to fetus
44
Which of the following is derived from hematopoietic cells?
a. osteoblast
b. osteocytes
c. osteoclast
c. osteoclast
45
Which of the following makes osteoid (which later becomes an ossification center)?
a. osteoblast
b. osteocytes
c. osteoclast
a. osteoblast
46
In which of the following does the osteoclast and osteoblast work in the same surface?
a. bone modeling
b. bone remodeling
b. bone remodeling
| in modeling they work on different sides, that's how the shape changes
47
A defect in which of the following causes skeletal deformities?
a. bone modeling
b. bone remodeling
a. bone modeling
48
Which of the following occurs in a basic multicellular unit (BMU)?
a. bone modeling
b. bone remodeling
b. bone remodeling
49
What balances the electroneutrality of H+ in the lacunae?
Cl-
50
What's true about the carbonic anhydrase II pump?
a. it removes H+ from lacunae
b. it uses ATP
c. its encoded by CA3 gene
b. it uses ATP
51
What's the function of the cement line that's produced after resorption?
osteoblast adherance
52
Which of the following stops bone loss?
a. RANKL
b. OPG
c. both
b. OPG
53
Which of the following is inhibited by estrogen?
a. RANKL
b. OPG
a. RANKL
54
When are osteoclasts more active?
a. high RANKL and low OPG
b. high OPG and low RANKL
a. high RANKL and low OPG
55
What occurs when WNT signals increase?
a. increase bone resorption
b. increase bone formation
b. increase bone formation
56
Which of the following causes suppression of bone resorption?
a. high RANKL / OPG ratio
b. low RANKL / OPG ratio
b. low RANKL / OPG ratio
57
Which of the following does WNT signaling inhibit?
a. chondrocyte formation
b. osteoclast formation
c. osteoblast formation
d. osteocyte formation
b. osteoclast formation
58
Which is caused by multifactorial causes?
a. OI
b. primary osteoporosis
c. osteopetrosis
b. primary osteoporosis
59
In which of the following are you more likely to find low bone mineral density?
a. OI
b. primary osteoporosis
c. osteopetrosis
a. OI
60
Which OI type is more severe?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7
c. 3
61
OI that is autosomal dominant is caused by mutations of which genes?
COL1A1
| COL1A2
62
Which OI type is characterized by dark sclera?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7
b. 2
63
Which TWO OI types are autosomal recessive?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7
f. 6
&
g. 7
64
Which OI type is characterized by a triangluar face and very short stature?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7
c. 3
65
Which OI type causes the angle of inclination to be less than 120 degrees?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7
g. 7
| it causes coxa vara
66
sclerotic dense lines in the X ray of a patient with OI indicates which of the following?
a. high resporption area
b. new bone formation
b. new bone formation
67
Which of the following increases the risk of osteomyelitis?
a. osteoporosis
b. osteopetrosis
b. osteopetrosis
68
T/F: autosomally dominant osteopetrosis is more severe than the recessive osteopetrosis
false, its more benign
69
Why does osteopetrosis increase the risk of osteomyelitis?
due to the decreased vascularity
70
Which of the following leads to a quantitative osteoclast disorder?
a. TCIRG1
b. TNFSF11
c. SNX10
d. CLCN7
b. TNFSF11
TNFSF11 and TNFSF11A genes encode for RANKL and RANK respectively
71
Albers-Schönberg disease is
a. recessive
b. dominant
b. dominant
72
Which mutation affects Cl- luminal concentration?
a. TCIRG1
b. TNFSF11
c. SNX10
d. CLCN7
d. CLCN7
73
Which mutation affects the V-ATPase pump of lysosomes?
a. TCIRG1
b. TNFSF11
c. SNX10
d. CLCN7
a. TCIRG1
74
Which of the following encodes the beta subunit of CIC-7?
a. TCIRG1
b. TNFSF11
c. SNX10
d. OSTM1
d. OSTM1
75
What seals the lacunae under the osteoclast?
actin rings
76
A mutation in which of the following delocalizes endosomes?
a. TCIRG1
b. TNFSF11
c. SNX10
d. OSTM1
c. SNX10
77
Bone deficiency in the femur is a common complication of
a. type 1 osteopetrosis
b. type 2 osteopetrosis
c. type 3 osteopetrosis
b. type 2 osteopetrosis
78
Which gene is associated with osteopetrosis with rickets and osteomalacia?
a. TCIRG1
b. TNFSF11
c. SNX10
d. CA2
a. TCIRG1
79
Which gene is associated with osteopetrosis and renal tube acidosis?
a. TCIRG1
b. TNFSF11
c. SNX10
d. CA2
d. CA2
80
T/F: osteoarthritis is not primarily an inflammatory condition
True
81
Patient comes in with an accumulation of homogentisic acid. Which is most likely?
a. ankylosing spondylitis
b. psoriatic arthritis
c. reiter's syndrome
d. alkaptonuria
e. enteropathic arthritis
f. gout
g. pseudo-gout
d. alkaptonuria
82
Patient comes in with arthritis, conjunctivitis, and cervicitis. Which is most likely?
a. ankylosing spondylitis
b. psoriatic arthritis
c. reiter's syndrome
d. alkaptonuria
e. enteropathic arthritis
f. gout
g. pseudo-gout
c. reiter's syndrome
83
Patient comes in with Calcium pyrophosphate crystals. Which is most likely?
a. ankylosing spondylitis
b. psoriatic arthritis
c. reiter's syndrome
d. alkaptonuria
e. enteropathic arthritis
f. gout
g. pseudo-gout
g. pseudo-gout
84
Patient is HLA-B27 positive. Which is most likely?
a. ankylosing spondylitis
b. psoriatic arthritis
c. reiter's syndrome
d. alkaptonuria
e. enteropathic arthritis
f. gout
g. pseudo-gout
a. ankylosing spondylitis
85
Patient comes in with pigmentation of sclera, skin, and urine. Which is most likely?
a. ankylosing spondylitis
b. psoriatic arthritis
c. reiter's syndrome
d. alkaptonuria
e. enteropathic arthritis
f. gout
g. pseudo-gout
d. alkaptonuria
86
Describe the water and proteoglycan content of the cartilage of a patient with osteoarthritis.
a. increased water content, increased proteoglycan content
b. increased water content, decreased proteoglycan content
c. decreased water content, increased proteoglycan content
d. decreased water content, decreased proteoglycan content
b. increased water content, decreased proteoglycan content
| aggregation also decreases in osteoarthritis patients
87
Which rheumatoid patient has a better prognosis?
a. seronegative
b. seropositive
a. seronegative
88
What's the likelihood that a rheumatoid patient would get nodules?
a. 5%
b. 15%
c. 25%
d. 55%
c. 25%
89
T/F: rheumatoid nodules are only found in rheumatoid patients
false, patient with rheumatic fever and SLE also get them
90
Patient comes in with arthritis and a white flakey rash. Which is most likely?
a. ankylosing spondylitis
b. psoriatic arthritis
c. reiter's syndrome
d. alkaptonuria
e. enteropathic arthritis
f. gout
g. pseudo-gout
b. psoriatic arthritis
91
Patient comes in with arthritis and an inflammatory bowel condition. Which is most likely?
a. ankylosing spondylitis
b. psoriatic arthritis
c. reiter's syndrome
d. alkaptonuria
e. enteropathic arthritis
f. gout
g. pseudo-gout
e. enteropathic arthritis
92
Which is true?
a. all people with gout also have hyperuricaemia
b. all people with hyperuricaemia also have gout
a. all people with gout also have hyperuricaemia
93
Patient comes in complaining of toe pain every winter. Which is most likely?
a. tuberculous arthritis
b. gout
c. reiter's syndrome
d. lyme arthritis
e. gout
94
tophi is the hallmark of what disease?
gout
95
tophi is made up of urate crystals surrounded by what cells?
macrophages
96
Patient comes in with knee swelling. You suspect a bacterial infection, what must you do?
Treat him immediately. The knee can get ruined by bacterial infections in a couple of days. (this was said in class)
97
Patient comes in with a target rash and a fever. Which is most likely?
a. tuberculous arthritis
b. gout
c. reiter's syndrome
d. lyme arthritis
d. lyme arthritis
98
Patient complains of a stiff back and a granuloma (necrosis in it). Which is most likely?
a. tuberculous arthritis
b. gout
c. reiter's syndrome
d. lyme arthritis
a. tuberculous arthritis
99
What does green turbid synovial fluid usually mean?
bacterial
100
Where is the most common site for soft tissue tumors?
a. upper extremity
b. lower extremity
c. head and neck
b. lower extremity
| thigh
101
Rhabdomyosarcoma is most common in
a. children
b. young adult
c. adult
d. elderly
a. children
102
Which of the following genes cause Gardner syndrome when defective?
a. APC
b. P53
c. NF1
d. FOXO1
e. HMGA2
a. APC
103
Which of the following causes tumors to grow on nerves?
a. Li-fraumeni syndrome
b. Neurofibromatosis
c. Gardner syndrome
b. Neurofibromatosis
104
Which of the following genes cause Li-fraumeni syndrome when defective?
a. APC
b. P53
c. NF1
d. FOXO1
e. HMGA2
b. P53
105
Which is usually superficial?
a. lipoma
b. liposarcoma
a. lipoma
106
Which of the following genes cause Neurofibromatosis when defective?
a. APC
b. P53
c. NF1
d. FOXO1
e. HMGA2
f. RB1
c. NF1
107
Which is painless?
a. lipoma
b. liposarcoma
a. lipoma
108
Which of the following leads to the presence of multiple polyps in the colon?
a. Li-fraumeni syndrome
b. Neurofibromatosis
c. Gardner syndrome
c. Gardner syndrome
109
Which has an irregular outline?
a. lipoma
b. liposarcoma
b. liposarcoma
110
Which is encapsulated?
a. lipoma
b. liposarcoma
a. lipoma
111
Which of the following leads to a predisposition to a wide range of cancers. Due to a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene TP53?
a. Li-fraumeni syndrome
b. Neurofibromatosis
c. Gardner syndrome
a. Li-fraumeni syndrome
112
Which of the following has spaces lined by benign plump endothelial cells?
a. humanguima
b. angiosarcoma
a. humanguima
113
Which of the following is caused by polyvinyl chloride?
a. humanguima
b. angiosarcoma
b. angiosarcoma
| it causes hepatic angiosarcoma
114
Which of the following can cause death via metastasis?
a. leiomyoma
b. leiomyosarcoma
b. leiomyosarcoma
115
Which of the following has spindle cells of different sizes?
a. leiomyoma
b. leiomyosarcoma
b. leiomyosarcoma
pleomorphic spindle cells
116
the soft tissue of leiomyoma looks normal under the microscope, how can you identify it?
cells are normal but the architecture is different. it's multidirectional
117
Which has round tumor cells with little cytoplasm?
a. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
b. embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
c. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma
a. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
118
Which is a low-grade tumor that develops new, high-grade cells?
a. well-differentiated liposarcoma
b. myxoid liposarcoma
c. pleomorphic liposarcoma
d. dedifferentiated liposarcoma
d. dedifferentiated liposarcoma
119
Which has the worst prognosis?
a. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
b. embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
c. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma
c. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma
| large multinucleated cells
120
Which has normal-looking skeletal muscles?
a. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
b. embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
c. pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma
b. embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
121
Whats true about bone cancers?
a. they are more malignant tumors than benign ones
b. a child is more likely to get a malignant tumor
c. the eldery are more likely to get a malignant tumor
c. the eldery are more likely to get a malignant tumor
122
Which cancer is more likely to be in the epiphysis of long bones?
a. ewing sarcoma
b. osteosarcoma
c. chondroblastoma
d. osteochondroma
c. chondroblastoma
| & giant cell tumor
123
Which cancer is more likely to be in the epiphysis of long bones?
a. ewing sarcoma
b. osteosarcoma
c. giant cell tumor
d. osteochondroma
c. giant cell tumor
| & chondroblastoma
124
Where is Ewing sarcoma most likely to occur?
a. diaphysis
b. epiphysis
c. metaphysis
a. diaphysis
125
Where is osteosarcoma most likely to occur?
a. diaphysis
b. epiphysis
c. metaphysis
c. metaphysis
126
Which of the following has a sun-burst appearance on X ray?
a. osteoid osteoma
b. osteosarcoma
c. Ewing sarcoma
b. osteosarcoma
```
sun-burst= osteosarcoma
sun-ray= Ewing sarcoma
```
127
Mutation of which gene causes retinoblastoma?
a. APC
b. P53
c. NF1
d. FOXO1
e. HMGA2
f. RB1
f. RB1
128
Which of the following leads to a formation of Codman's triangle?
a. osteoid osteoma
b. osteosarcoma
b. osteosarcoma
129
Which of the following would have a sclerotic rim and a lytic center?
a. osteoid osteoma
b. osteosarcoma
b. osteosarcoma
130
Which of the following appears to have Lace like a neoplastic bone?
a. osteoid osteoma
b. osteosarcoma
b. osteosarcoma
131
Who is most likely to get chondrosarcoma?
adults or elderly
132
Which chondrosarcoma is more likely to be malignant?
a. proximal
b. distal
a. proximal
| distal chondrosarcoma= likely benign
133
Xray shows popcorn calcification. Whats the diagnosis?
chondrosarcoma
134
Who is most likely to get Ewing sarcoma?
children from 10-15
135
Which of the following has a sun-ray/onion skin appearance on X ray?
a. chondrosarcoma
b. Ewing sarcoma
b. Ewing sarcoma
136
Prostate (and breast) cancer tend to produce what kind of bone lesion?
a. lytic lesions
b. sclerotic lesions
b. sclerotic lesions
| unusual hardening of bone
137
What's more likely to be positive in a patient with Ewing sarcoma?
a. CD31
b. CD34
c. CD99
d. D2-40
c. CD99
138
Which is more likely to lead to rhabdomyosarcoma?
a. EWS-FLI1
b. P53
c. NF1
d. FOXO1
e. HMGA2
d. FOXO1
139
Which is more likely to lead to Ewing sarcoma?
a. EWS-FLI1
b. P53
c. NF1
d. FOXO1
e. HMGA2
a. EWS-FLI1
140
PAX3 and PAX7 gene mutations lead to which cancer?
Rhabdomyosarcoma (FOXO1 gene too)
141
PAX3 and PAX7 gene mutations lead to which cancer?
Rhabdomyosarcoma (FOXO1 gene too)
142
CD31 and CD34 are markers for what kind of cells?
endothelial markers (ex/ angiosarcoma)
143
desmin and myoD1 are positive in which cancer
Rhabdomyosarcoma (myogenic regulatory proteins)
144
Patient comes in with scaly red rash, Elevated serum CK, and atrophy in muscle. What's the most likely diagnosis?
a. polymyositis
b. dermatomyositis
c. osteoarthritis
d. rheumatoid arthritis
b. dermatomyositis
145
Patient had a bilateral hip replacement surgery, femur head had ivory-like bone surface. What's the most likely diagnosis?
a. polymyositis
b. dermatomyositis
c. osteoarthritis
d. rheumatoid arthritis
c. osteoarthritis
| ivory-like surface is rough and doesn't have cartilage on it
146
Patient had joint pain and stiffness of the proximal IP joints. What's the most likely diagnosis?
a. polymyositis
b. dermatomyositis
c. osteoarthritis
d. rheumatoid arthritis
d. rheumatoid arthritis
147
```
This patient developed acute knee arthritis following an acute lobar pneumonia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Hyperuricemia
B- Septic arthritis
C- Rheumatoid arthiritis
D- Hemarthrosis
E- Osteoarthritis
```
B- Septic arthritis
148
```
60 y/o patient has round nodules on left ear. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Hyperuricemia
B- Septic arthritis
C- Rheumatoid arthiritis
D- Hemarthrosis
E- Osteoarthritis
```
A- Hyperuricemia
149
40-year-old lady has swelling on her forearm. It was soft, mobile and painless. Whats the most likely diagnosis?
a) Lipoma
b) Liposarcoma
c) Leiomyoma
d) Leiomyosarcoma
a) Lipoma
150
a tumor of brown adipose tissue is called
Hibernoma
151
Whats a fibroid made out of?
smooth muscle
152
Tumor Xray revealed Codman's triangle and a sunburst appearance. Biopsy revealed lace-like osteoid pattern. Whats the diagnosis?
a) Angiosarcoma
b) Osteoclastoma
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Chondrosarcoma
e) Ewing sarcoma
c) Osteosarcoma
153
Xray shows a lytic lesion in the lower end of femur involving the epiphysis. Biopsy shows giant cells.
a) Angiosarcoma
b) Osteoclastoma
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Chondrosarcoma
e) Ewing sarcoma
b) Osteoclastoma
| AKA giant cell tumor
154
A well defined, encapsulated tumor has spindle cells, with cigar-shaped nuclei. What tumor is it?
a) Angiosarcoma
b) Hemangioma
c) Leiomyoma
d) Liposarcoma
c) Leiomyoma
155
A deeply seated tumor was incised. Cells of different sizes where found, as well as lipoblasts. Whats the diagnosis?
a) Lipoma
b) Leiomyosarcoma
c) Leiomyoma
d) Liposarcoma
d) Liposarcoma
156
Patient previouslu had a tumor that was cured via radioation therapy. Recently, another tumor that has a blue/red collor appeared. Whats most likely?
a) Angiosarcoma
b) Leiomyosarcoma
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Chondrosarcoma
e) Ewing sarcoma
a) Angiosarcoma
| Angiosarcoma has a relationship with radiation therapy
157
Which is a lytic tumor?
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Ewing sarcoma
b. Ewing sarcoma
158
Which of the following is described as having chickenwire vasculature?
a) Lipoma
b) Liposarcoma
c) Leiomyoma
d) Leiomyosarcoma
b) Liposarcoma
159
Patient had a tumor with a blue hue that had a popcorn appearance on X-ray. What's most likely?
a) Angiosarcoma
b) Leiomyosarcoma
c) Osteosarcoma
d) Chondrosarcoma
e) Ewing sarcoma
d) Chondrosarcoma
160
40-year-old lady has swelling on her forearm. It was soft, mobile and painless. Whats the most likely diagnosis?
a) Lipoma
b) Liposarcoma
c) Leiomyoma
d) Leiomyosarcoma
a) Lipoma
161
Factor 8 marker was along a tumor. Which cell is it an indicator of?
endothelial cell marker
| along with CD31 and CD34
162
80 year old comes in complaining of bleeding even though she had menopause years ago. Biopsy showed hyperchromatic nuclei and atypical cells, whats most likely?
a) Angiosarcoma
b) Hemangioma
c) Leiomyoma
d) Liposarcoma
d) Liposarcoma
| bleeding in a post-menopausal woman usually means necrosis and hemorrhage, indicating Liposarcoma
163
Codman's triangle indicates
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Ewing sarcoma
a. Osteosarcoma
164
Which is a sclerotic tumor?
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Ewing sarcoma
a. Osteosarcoma
| sclerotic= make more bone
165
Onion skin indicates
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Ewing sarcoma
b. Ewing sarcoma
