2016 module exam Flashcards
anatomy (1-18) clinical skills (19-24) Biochemistry (25-28) Pathology (29-37) Physiology (38-44) Micro (45-56) Pharma (57-58) Radiology/Nuclear medicine (59-60) clinical (61)
1
Q
compression injury to ventral rami of C6 will to lead to sensory deficit of which area: A) axillary region B) medial side of the arm C) lateral side of the arm D) medial side of forearm E) Lateral side of forearm
A
E) Lateral side of forearm
2
Q
a man had an car accident and he had a fracture / injury in the arch of foot near cuboid bone. Which of the following is likely to be affected?
a) flexor hallucis longus
b) fibularis brevis
c) fibularis longus
d) tibialis anterior
e) tibialis posterior
A
b) fibularis brevis
3
Q
Fracture to which part of the humerus damages the radial nerve? A. Head of humerus B. Anatomical neck C. Surgical neck D. Medial epicondyle E. Lateral epicondyle F. Capitulum G. Shaft
A
G. Shaft
4
Q
Fracture to which part of the humerus damages the ulnar nerve? A. Head of humerus B. Anatomical neck C. Surgical neck D. Medial epicondyle E. Lateral epicondyle F. Capitulum G. Shaft
A
D. Medial epicondyle
5
Q
A 50-year-old male had an intervertebral prolapse and loss sensation of lateral leg, dorsal aspect of foot and big toe A) L3 B) L4 C) L5 D) S1 E) S2
A
C) L 5
6
Q
Which anatomical structure is commonly used to identify the correct knee aspiration entry point? A- Medial menisci. B- Quadriceps tendon. C- Patellar tendon. D- Popliteal tendon. E- Lateral menisci.
A
C- Patellar tendon.
7
Q
Which part of the femur develops from primary ossification center? A. Head B. Shaft C. Medial condyle D. Lateral condyle
A
B. Shaft
8
Q
36-year-old male present with a laceration in 1st web space, which structure is affected? a- radial artery b- deep radial nerve c- median nerve d- ulnar nerve
A
a- radial artery
9
Q
What muscle contracts in the weight-bearing limb to medially rotate the hip during walking? A. adductor magnus B. tensor facia lata C. obturator internus D. piriformis E. gluteus minimus
A
E. gluteus minimus
10
Q
Erb’s palsy occurs as a result of damage to which structure?
a. Superior trunk of brachial plexus
b. Inferior trunk of brachial plexus
A
a. Superior trunk of brachial plexus
11
Q
Radiograph showed injury of facet joint between L3-L4, which part of L4 spinal nerve will be compressed? A-Posterior cord B-Anterior cord C-Ventral rami D-Trunk E-Recurrent
A
D-Trunk
12
Q
Failure of fusion of vertebral arches leads to
a. Spina bifida
b. Scoliosis
c. Erb’s palsy
A
a. Spina bifida
13
Q
Failure of one half of the vertebra to develop leads to
a. Spina bifida
b. Scoliosis
c. Erb’s palsy
A
b. Scoliosis
14
Q
A patient with lumbar and thoracic compression fractures and kyphosis, what would have a high radiodensity in the x-ray?
A- cortical rim
B- spinous process
C- transverse process
A
A- cortical rim
15
Q
Surgical incision to relieve pressure on the spinal cord A- Transverse process B- Lamina C- IVD D- Articular process E- Pars interarticularis
A
B- Lamina
they remove it
16
Q
What's horizontal on the cervical vertebra? A- Transverse process B- Lamina C- IVD D- Articular process E- Pars interarticularis
A
A- Transverse process
or D
17
Q
Damage to the longitudinal thoracic nerve effects which muscle?
a. latissimus dorsi
b. rhomboid minor
c. rhomboid major
d. serratus anterior
A
d. serratus anterior
18
Q
What muscle is used to manually screw into a tree? A- Biceps brachi B- Triceps C- Hamstrings D- Quadriceps
A
A- Biceps brachi
question basically means what is used for supination
19
Q
Which degree of arc motion is painful during impingement syndrome? A-30-60 B-60-120 C-80-130 D-90-140 E- >90
A
B-60-120
20
Q
Why we should urgently treat a compound fracture?
A
Prevent infection
21
Q
What's the most appropriate clinical test for lateral collateral ligament complete tear? A- ballottement test B- Anterior drawer test C- Valgus test D- McCurry test E- Extension lag test F- Active and passive motion test G- Varus Test
A
G- Varus Test
22
Q
What's the most appropriate clinical test for effusion and tenderness in knee? A- ballottement test B- Anterior drawer test C- Valgus test D- McCurry test E- Extension lag test F- Active and passive motion test G- Varus Test
A
A- ballottement test
23
Q
What's the most appropriate clinical test for quadriceps tendon? A- ballottement test B- Anterior drawer test C- Valgus test D- McCurry test E- Extension lag test F- Active and passive motion test G- Varus Test
A
E- Extension lag test
24
Q
What is the most obvious upon inspection? A. 10-degree kyphosis B. Vertebral Fracture C. Osteomyelitis D. Thoracolumbar scoliosis
A
D. Thoracolumbar scoliosis
25
Which is the first step in collagen fibril formation?
A) procollagen triple helix formation
B) secretion if procollagen into ECM
C) cleavage of n and c terminus of procollagen
D) hydroxylation of proline residues
D) hydroxylation of proline residues
26
Why does copper deficiency result in defective collagen formation?
A. Reduced activity of lysyl oxidase
B. Reduced activity of prolyl hydroxylase
C. Cleavage of procollagen C and N terminal
D. Reduced glycosylation of lysine
A. Reduced activity of lysyl oxidase
27
Which is a contributing factor to osteoarthritis?
A. Reduced TIMPs
B. Reduced MMPs
C. Reduced ADAMTs
A. Reduced TIMPs
| Tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases are endogenous inhibitors of these metalloproteinases
28
```
In a family, the father has mitochondrial myopathy and the mother is normal and healthy, what is the chance that their sons will be affected?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 100%
D. 50%
```
A. 0%
29
Which can lead to enthesitis?
a. SLE
b. OA
c. infective arthritis
d. scleroderma
e. psoriatic arthritis
e. Psoriatic arthritis
30
Whats a characteristic of woven bone?
A- Regular collagen fibers
B- Irregular collagen fibers
B- Irregular collagen fibers
31
```
Method of choice for diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis
A. MRI
B. Fluoroscopy
C. CT
D. Nuclear imaging
E. Ultrasound
```
A. MRI
32
28 y/o female w/ known autoimmune disease complains of sore throat & knee pain. BVs show fibrosis & thickening. What is the underlying condition?
a. SLE
b. OA
c. infective arthritis
d. scleroderma
e. psoriatic arthritis
d. scleroderma
33
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A 30-year-old female presented with malar rash, myalgia, arthritis for 2 years. Which of the following mechanisms are associated with her condition?
A) infection
B) cytotoxic ab
C) anti glomerular basement membrane ab
D) immune complex formation
```
D) immune complex formation
34
A 45-year-old presented with retroperitoneal mass, diagnosed with liposarcoma. what is the histopathology of the lipoblasts?
a) small round cells
b) vacuolated cytoplasm, atypical nucleus
c) vacuolated cytoplasm, scalloped nucleus
d) spindle shaped with polymorphic nucleus
c) vacuolated cytoplasm, scalloped nucleus
35
which condition shows 'sun burst' on a plain x-ray?
a. fibrous dysplasia
b. multiple myeloma
c. osteochondroma
d. osteosarcoma
e. synovial sarcoma
d. osteosarcoma
36
```
which cell causes damage to the basement membrane of the kidney in a patient with SLE?
A- PMN
B- macrophage
C- T cell
D- perforin
```
A- PMN
37
A female with SLE and taking steroids for 6 months presented with knee pain with no past medical history or injury. What's most likely?
a) Idiopathic
b) Knee osteoarthritis
c) Gout osteoarthritis
d) Referred pain from hip
e) Missed traumatic injury
d) Referred pain from hip
38
30 obese, hypertensive, alcohol consumer man, had a pain in the first metatarsophalangeal joint (MTP), with swelling, what is the condition?
A- osteoarthritis
B- rheumatoid arthritis
C- gout attack
C- gout attack
39
which mechanism ensures unidirectional propagation of action potential?
a) temporary inactivation of Na/K ATPase pump
b) simultaneous closure of activation and inactivation gates of Na channels
c) depolarization after action potential passed the axon segment
d) hyperpolarization during refractory period
d) hyperpolarization during refractory period
40
What takes ca+ from the cytoplasm to the SR?
a. RYR
b. Serca
b. Serca
41
What's the next step after ATP is bound to myosin?
A-Myosin is generating force after releasing ADP+Pi
B-Myosin-actin binding sites are exposed after ATP hydrolysis
C-Myosin head is released from actin filament
D-Myosin is detached from myosin filament
E- Myosin back to high energy form
C-Myosin head is released from actin filament
42
What's the next step after ATP is hydrolyzed?
A-Myosin is generating force after releasing ADP+Pi
B-Myosin-actin binding sites are exposed after ATP hydrolysis
C-Myosin head is released from actin filament
D-Myosin is detached from myosin filament
E- Myosin back to high energy form
E- Myosin back to high energy form
43
Whats the next step after myosin has completed power stroke?
A-Myosin is generating force after releasing ADP+Pi
B-Myosin-actin binding sites are exposed after ATP hydrolysis
C-Myosin head is released from actin filament
D-Myosin is detached from myosin filament
E- Myosin back to high energy form
B-Myosin-actin binding sites are exposed after ATP hydrolysis
(not 100% sure. 2015 exam says "ATP binds to myosin head")
44
After tubocurarine administration, what will happen?
Postsynaptic potentials are inhibited, even in the presence of acetylcholine
45
```
Most likely microorganism for septic arthritis of prosthetic joint?
A-staph epidermidis
B-clostridium perfringens
C-hemophilus
D-pseudomonas aeruginosa
```
A-staph epidermidis
46
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Neutropenic patient with septate hyphae with narrow angles. Which organism caused this?
A- aspergillosis
B- mucormycoses
C- hemophilus
D- pseudomonas aeruginosa
```
A- aspergillosis
| non-septate hyphae branched at right angles: Mucor Septate hyphae branched at acute angles: Aspergillus
47
Male kidney transplant recipient living in Chicago developed systemic disease with cutaneous and bone lesions, and on culture there was broad-based budding. what is the pathogen?
A- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B- Blastomycosis
C- Hemophilus influenzae
B- Blastomycosis
48
2 yr old boy with acute pain, swelling, and tenderness on left thigh. Which organism is most likely to cause this?
A- Hemophilus influenzae
B- Hemophilus
C- Blastomycosis
A- Hemophilus influenzae
49
Test diagnostic for SLE?
98% of all people with systemic lupus have a positive ANA test, making it the most sensitive diagnostic test for confirming the diagnosis of the disease.
50
```
What inflammatory cytokine secreted by T cells that causes damage in rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Anti-nuclear antibody
B. TNF alpha
C. TNF gamma
D. Il-2
E. Il-4
F. IFN-Y
```
F. IFN-Y
51
```
What inflammatory cytokine secreted by macrophages that causes damage in rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Anti-nuclear antibody
B. TNF alpha
C. TNF gamma
D. Il-2
E. Il-4
F. IFN-Y
```
B. TNF alpha
52
A 23-year-old salesman with purulent urethral discharge and septic arthritis is likely to be affected by which of these pathogens?
N. Gonorrhea
53
A 20-year-old female with Sickle cell disease and bronchial asthma on corticosteroids with right hip pain.
?
| sickle cells may lead to osteonecrosis, and a common site is the femoral head
54
A 40 years old drug addict complains of fever and right knee swelling and knee pain while walking due to severe pain. Which is more likely?
a) septic arthritis
b) fracture
c) OA
d) RA
e) joint dislocation
f) gout attack
a) septic arthritis
55
```
an 18-year-old girl presented with fever, malaise, fatigue, arthritis and maculo-papular rash with lacy appearance. The maculo-papular rash has a "slap like" appearance on the face.
A- influenza
B- dengue virus
C- Rubella
D- fifth disease
E- hand, mouth and feet disease
F- Hepatitis B
```
D- fifth disease
56
```
A 20-year-old female presented with pain, lymph node swelling, macula-papular rash and arthritis, she has not completed her vaccine schedule, what is the causative organism?
A- influenza
B- dengue virus
C- Rubella
D- fifth disease
E- hand, mouth and feet disease
F- Hepatitis B
```
C- Rubella
57
What is the mechanism of methotrexate?
A) Metabolized to mercaptopurine which inhibits DNA
B) Inhibits IL2
C) Inhibits JAK
D) Competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase enzyme
D) Competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase enzyme
58
```
Which of the following is affected by aspirin?
A) Allopurinol
B) Prednisone
C) Probenecid
D) Celecoxib
E) Paracetamol
```
C) Probenecid
59
All 3 phases of bone scan are positive in bone scan in distal femur
A- Osteomyelitis
B- Cellulitis
A- Osteomyelitis
60
```
Which imaging modality is the best to see ACL and MCL?
A. MRI
B. Fluoroscopy
C. CT
D. Nuclear imaging
E. Ultrasound
```
A. MRI
61
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40-year-old male has difficulty with walking for 4 months. Recently he feels tightness in the thigh radiating to his foot when walking for more than 1 km after that he is forced to rest for 5 min*(should be 10-15min). He fell on his back 9 months ago at work. No history of smoking, night pain, or rest pain and no constitutional symptoms. On examination, neurological test was good, but had reduced spinal function on extension. What is the diagnosis?
A) bone metastatic tumor
B) intermittent claudication
C) osteoarthritis
D) spinal cord stenosis
E) fracture of vertebra
```
D) spinal cord stenosis
62
Rheumatoid arthritis, HLA is a significant risk factor along with what?
A. smoking
B. familial
C. female
A. smoking
