Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Inflammation and Immunity > Pathoma and Extra Studying > Flashcards

Pathoma and Extra Studying Flashcards

1
Q

What binds to CD8 on the MHC I?

A

Alpha 3 subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is this?

A

Caseating Granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can Th17 cells be involved in fungal defense?

A

They secrete IL-17 which can effect neutrophils to fight fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is characteristic of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome other than the WASP defect?

A

Failure to mount an IgM response. Triad (Pyogenic infections, eczema, and thrombocytopenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two main moderators of pain in acute inflammation?

A

Bradykinin and PGE2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an important characteristic of LAD?

A

Recurrent bacterial infections that lack pus - because pus is fluid with dead neutrophils within

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are two diseases that present with Noncaseating granulomas?

A

Sarcoidosis and Crohns disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of inflammation is necrosis associated with?

A

Acute inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why are CD25 polymorphisms associated with MS and Type I diabetes?

A

Treg cells are dependent on CD25 for survival, and polymorphisms in these can lead to ineffective signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Would a MPO deficiency yield a normal or abnormal NBT test?

A

It would yield a normal test because the MPO deficiency is downstream of what is actually being tested - thus the NBT test would appear normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is this?

A

A giant cell - characteristic of a granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is this?

A

Non caseating granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is CD27?

A

A plasma cell marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the test for Rheumatoid factor?

A

This tests the levels of Ab directed at the Fc portion of IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the test of anti-CCP?

A

ELISA for antibodies against CCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is CD14?

A

The TLR on macrophages that binds to LPS on gram negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Neutrophils within the crypts of the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the three ways mast cells can become activated?

A

Tissue trauma, IgE crosslinking, and Complement C3a and C5a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A FoxP3 mutation is known as what syndrome?

A

IPEX Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is occurring in the light staining region of the thymus?

A

This is where DP T cells are being tested and selected for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Graves disease is characterized by what?

A

Activating auto abs to thyroid stimulating receptors. Hyperthyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the defining characteristic of microscopic polyangiitis?

A

Auto abs to myeloperoxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is CD56?

A

An NK cell marker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the main chemical mediators that Th1 cells secrete?
IL-2 and IFN-gamma
26
What is the genetic predisposition for RA?
HLA-DRB1
27
What is the main role of Th17 cells?
These are induced by cytokines TGF-beta and IL-6. These have a large role in mucosal and cutaneous immunity - especially in the gut. When thinking mucosal immunity also think IgA
28
What is the role of LTC4, LTD4 and LTE4?
These work in vasoconstriction, bronchospasm and increasing vascular permeability
29
What is the importance of Hagemann Factor?
Import in gram negative sepsis and DIC. Microbes can directly activate this and lead to clotting
30
What disease is characterized by frequent falls due to gait abnormalities and vascular abnormalities?
ATM - DNA repair enzyme defect leading to no VDJ recombination
31
What is Sialyl Lewis x?
It binds to the selectins and is important in rolling
32
What upregulates the cellular adhesion molecules (E-selectins) on endothelial cells?
TNF and IL-1
33
What is the dark staining region in the thymus?
The cortex where T cells are maturing from DN to DP
34
An aggregation of epitheloid histiocytes is known as?
Granuloma
35
36
What induces E-selectin?
TNF and IL-1
37
What are the main chemical mediators that Th2 cells secrete?
IL-10 - Inhibits Th1 response IL-4 - IgE class switching IL- 5 Eosinophil response and differentiation of B cells
38
What is Autoimmune lymphoproliferative characterized by?
No Fas:FasL binding in the periphery leading to accumulation of lyphocytes
39
What are patients with CVID at increased risk for?
Autoimmune diseases and lymphoma risk
40
What are the two ways that B cells can be activated?
Ag binds to the IgM or IgD receptor on the surface of the B cell - this will become an IgM secreting plasma cells B cell recognizes Ag - internalizes the Ag and presents it on MHC class II to CD4 T cells. This will allow for class switching and further differentiation
41
What is the role of bradykinin?
Vasodilation, vascular permeability and pain
42
What is responsible of the delayed response after mast cell activation?
Leukotrienes
43
What is important about the age of onset of CVID?
Patient tend to be asymptomatic until later into their 30s and 40s
44
What is characteristic of polyarteriitis nodosa?
Hepatitis Viral Antigens resulting in systemic vasculitis
45
What is going to be occurring at the sites of RA?
Macrophages and neutrophils are destroying the tissue at the site
46
Is mycobacteria intracellular or extracellular?
Intracellular - requiring a Th1 response
47
What are the opportunistic infections associated with CGD?
Staph and aspergillus
48
Crohn's disease is characterized by what?
Abnormal response to get microflora possibly due to defective NOD pathway signaling
49
What induces P-selectin?
Histamine
50
What do cellular adhesion molecules bind to?
Integrins on leukocytes (LFA)
51
Pleural effusion
52
What is the cause of margination in acute inflammation?
Increased vasodilation moves neutrophils from the center of the blood to the periphery because of decreased blood flow rates
53
What is this an image of?
Caseous Necrosis with central calcification
54
What is the key cell in granulomatous inflammation?
Epitheloid histiocytes (macrophage with abundant pink cytoplasm)
55
What causes the rolling of leukocytes?
Selectins on the surface of endothelial cells
56
What binds to CD4 on MHC II?
Beta 2 subunit
57
What is this an image of?
Non-caseating granuloma
58
What are the main chemoattractants for neutrophils?
LTB4, C5a, and IL-8
59
What are the main moderators of fever?
Macrophages release IL-1 and TNF-alpha which goes to the hypothalamus
60
What is the underlying cause of SLE and what can it lead to?
Auto Abs against nuclear material. This can lead to Ag:Ab complexes depositing in multiple tissues. This will activate complement and lead to lower levels of complement components
61
How does complement mediate Ag:Ab clearance?
When Abs are bound to their Ag this is a signal for C1q to bind. Eventually the C3 convertase will form and cleave C3 to C3a and C3b. C3b will then opsonize the complex and allow for macrophages to digest it. C3b can also bind to CR1 on the RBC. This binding will carry the Ag:Ab complex to the spleen where it will be cleared by macrophages.
62
What are the two top criteria for SLE?
Malar or discoid rash, usually upon exposure to sunlight
63
How does sun exposure lead to a rash in SLE?
UV light will induce apoptosis in keratinocytes and the release of nuclear material. The antibodies will then recognize the nuclear material and mount an immune response against it.
64
What is Sjogren Syndrome?
Type IV Hypersensitivity that results in the destruction of the Salivary and Lacrimal glands.
65
What is the main criteria for Sjogren Syndrome?
Dry eyes
66
What is the underlying cause of Scleroderma?
High levels of fibrosis in multiple tissues. There are auto Abs for DNA topoisomerase I. Skin issues are important. Tight skin due to underlying fibrosis
67
What is the CREST criteria with Scleroderma?
C - calcinosis R - Raynaud phenomenom E - esophageal dysmotility due to fibrosis S - Sclerodactyly T - Telangiectasias
68
What is this an image of in the mouth?
Sjogren's Syndrome - lymphocyte infiltrate Type IV hypersensitivity
69
What do NSAIDs inhibit?
These inhibit prostaglandin formation which mediates vasodilation
70
Leukotriene E 4 , platelet-activating factor, and thromboxane A 2 have?
Vasoconstrictive properties?
71
A 77-year-old woman experiences a sudden loss of consciousness, with loss of movement on the right side of the body. Cerebral angiography shows an occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery. Elaboration of which of the following mediators will be most beneficial in preventing further ischemic injury to her cerebral cortex? ## Footnote A Bradykinin B Leukotriene E 4 C Nitric oxide D Platelet-activating factor E Thromboxane A 2
C Nitric oxide Endothelial cells can release nitric oxide to promote vasodilation in areas of ischemic injury.
72
What is the role of Kallikrein?
Kallikrein may aid in generation of bradykinin and plasmin, but participates just in complement C5a generation.
73
What is the role of prostaglandin E2?
Fever and Pain
74
Thromboxane does what?
Aids in vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation
75
How do glucocorticoids inhibit wound healing?
Glucocorticoids inhibit wound healing by impairing collagen synthesis.
76
CD14 is?
TLR4
77
CD21 is?
CR2
78
What is CD45?
Tyrosine phosphatase of TCR and BCR
79
What is multiple myeloma?
Cancer of plasma cells. Can result in bone breaks. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown origin
80
What is the stroma of the thymus?
Epithelial reticular cells

Inflammation and Immunity (51 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions