Pathophys final review Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

Describe eosinophilic esophagitis.

A

reaction due to T cell mediated response that causes strictures & patient may present with difficulty swallowing
eosinophils build up in lining of esophagus

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2
Q

Extrinsic asthma is when

A

reaction is triggered by an allergen; response by IgE

intrinsic asthma is triggered by non-allergic factors such as stress, cold air, infection, & airway manipulation.

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3
Q

Treatment of acute angioedema include

A

FFP (replace the deficient enzyme)

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4
Q

A type I allergic reaction is an

A

IgE anaphylaxis reaction of mast cells & basophils

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5
Q

The epinephrine dose for anaphylaxis is

A

1-10 mcg/kg IV bolus

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6
Q

Common allergens in the OR include:

A

latex, antibiotics, & rocuronium & succinylcholine (paralytics)

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7
Q

Latex allergies present

A

in ~30 minutes (can take up to this long) because it has to cross through the skin

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8
Q

The following antibiotics are cross-reactive

A

penicillin & cephalosporin

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9
Q

Treatments for anaphylaxis include:

A

beta 2 agonists
corticosteroids
epinephrine
antihistamines

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10
Q

Can you give propofol for patients who have anaphylaxis reaction to eggs?

A

yes

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11
Q

True or false, the FDA requires all latex products to be marked.

A

True

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12
Q

How does cricoarytenoid joint arthritis affect our anesthetic and what is it?

A

cricoarytenoid joint arthritis is when the cricoarytenoid joint is malpositioned and stiff
might need to downsize our tube
can occur in rheumatoid arthritis & lupus
may present without clinical symptoms

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13
Q

Graft versus host disease may develop

A

1 month after bone marrow transplants

and conditions seen may include diarrhea, elevated liver enzymes & skin conditions

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14
Q

A HMEF filter should be used with patients who have

A

an infectious disease such as

SARS or active TB

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15
Q

Anesthetic considerations for scleroderma include

A

pHTN, difficult IV access, difficult intubation due to limited mouth opening, systemic HTN, at risk for aspiration because off hypotonia of LES, renal dysfunction

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16
Q

Lupus is an

A

autoimmune disease of T & B lymphocyte hyperreactivity

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17
Q

The four types of lupus include:

A

systemic lupus- affects the whole body, autoimmune disease
drug-induced lupus- goes away when trigger is stopped
cutaneous lupus- reactive to UV light, cutaneous changes, pigment changes, & loss of hair
neonatal lupus- from moms antibodies attacking baby- most serious result for neonates is heart block

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18
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome is

A

acquired hypercoagulability leading to embolism
symptoms may include blood clots PE, MI, CVA
related to SLE

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19
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is an

A

autoimmune, morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes

symmetrical & involves inflamed synovium

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20
Q

Describe atlantoaxial instability.

A

involves C1 & C2- need inline stabilization to prevent severance of the spinal-cord
may occur in RA

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21
Q

Sinusoids are where

A

the portal vein & hepatic artery come together to feed hepatocytes

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22
Q

If you have a clot in the celiac artery, then you have

A

poor perfusion to the hepatic artery, stomach, spleen, & pancreas

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23
Q

Arterial blood flow is dependent on

A

metabolic demand & autoregulation

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24
Q

The portal vein supplies

A

50% of the livers O2 requirement

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25
Blood flow to the liver has
low resistance & high flow
26
Kuppfer cells are responsible for
absorbing bacteria & cleaning the blood
27
Bridging fibrosis leads to
decreased portal vein blood flow
28
The following may decrease hepatic artery blood flow
alpha 1 adrenergic beta blockers hypotension
29
When high pressure in the right atrium exists, the liver is affected because
it produces back pressure in the liver so it expands to 0.5 to 1 L and acts as a blood reservoir
30
Pores in the sinusoids are
very permeable & allow easy pass of fluid & protein so lymph is similar to plasma
31
Glucose is stored as
glycogen
32
Increased hepatic vascular pressure can cause
fluid transudation into the abdominal cavity "liver sweating"--> ascites
33
_____ is indicated in hepatic encephalopathy
ammonia
34
Glycogen is a
readily available source of glucose that does not contribute to intracellular osmolality
35
Phase 1 reactions include
oxidation & halothanation
36
Phase 2 reactions include
glucuronidation & conjugation
37
Conjugation works by
making products more water soluble so they can be excreted
38
How does the liver store iron?
apoferritin + iron--> ferritin
39
Describe the formation of bilirubin.
hemoglobin--> globin + heme--> Fe + pyrrole rings--> biliverdin--> free bilirubin--> bilirubin + albumin
40
_____ bilirubin is toxic to the liver
Conjugated
41
Obstructive jaundice can be due to
gallstone, malignancy or damage to hepatic cells
42
Tests that measure the livers synthetic function include
serum albumin, PT, cholesterol, pseudocholinesterase
43
The liver has a large functional reserve
therefore lab tests may be normal in the presence of cirrhosis
44
The serum transaminase measurement reflects
hepatocellular integrity as opposed to liver function | - tests are not sensitive or specific
45
_______ is a more specific liver function test than AST
alanine aminotransferase
46
_______ is the NMBD of choice for patients with liver disease
Cisatricurium
47
The most common cause of cholestasis is
extrahepatic obstruction & can be due to gallstones, stricture, & tumor in the bile duct intrahepatic obstruction is from liver damage
48
Mechanisms responsible for ascites include
portal hypertension "sweating" sodium retention hypoalbuminemia
49
Hepatorenal syndrome is characterized by
``` progressive oliguria avid Na+ retention azotemia intractable ascites high mortality ```
50
With chronic hepatitis, the lab tests may
show only mild elevation of serum aminotransferases & these correlate poorly with severity of disease
51
The most common cause of acute drug induced hepatitis is
alcohol
52
In acute hepatitis, elevated _____ do not correlated well with the degree of cellular necrosis
transaminases
53
Classify chronic persistent hepatitis, chronic lobular hepatitis, and chronic active hepatitis
chronic persistent hepatitis- eventually resolves and does not progress to cirrhosis; inflammation & preservation of normal cellular architecture chronic lobular hepatitis- resolves with acute exacerbations, does not progress to cirrhosis; characterized by foci of inflammation & cellular necrosis in the lobules chronic active hepatitis- chronic hepatic inflammation with destruction of cellular architecture; evidence of cirrhosis
54
The sphincter of Oddi is affected by
opioids & can cause false positive cholangiograms fentanyl is the worst offender can give glucagon or naloxone to fix it
55
The most common cause of postoperative jaundice is
over-production of bilirubin due to reabsorption of a large hematoma or RBC breakdown following transfusion
56
Hepatic blood flow is decreased by
PEEP, high mean airway pressures, & hypoxemia- best if patient breathes spontaneously
57
All volatile agents decrease
portal blood flow- greatest with halothane, least with isoflurane
58
With intrahepatic or parenchymal dysfunction, we see increased
conjugated bilirubin, increased aminotransferases, no change in alk phosph, prolonged PT, decreased albumin
59
IgE mediated type 1 hypersensitivity involve
mast & basophil degranulation
60
_____ & ______ are not effective treatments in acute episodes of bradykinin mediated/hereditary angioedema
catecholamines & antihistamines
61
Conjugated bilirubin is not conjugated by _____ but it is conjugated by ______ & ______
oxidation | glucuronide & sulfate