Pathyophys final review part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What product carries the lowest risk for patients with hemophilia A?

A

desmopressin b/c it is synthetic rather than cryo and factor concentrates as they carry risk of infectious disease transmission

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2
Q

FFP contains

A

all of the clotting factors
does not have RBCs/Hgb so it does not increase oxygen carrying capacity & is not indicated for plasma volume augmentation

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3
Q

Cryoprecipitate contains

A

fibrinogen, VII, XIII, and vWF

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4
Q

Treatment of vWF can contain

A

desmopressin, factor VIII, cryo, & FFP

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5
Q

Erythropoietin is formed in the

A

kidneys

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6
Q

Methemoglobinemia producing oxidizing agents include

A

LAs, nitrates, & nitric oxide

nitrous oxide does not produce methemoglobinemia

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7
Q

Methemoglobinemia is a disorder characterized by

A

the presence of >1% metHb in the blood
methemoglobin is an oxidized form of hemoglobin (contains Fe3+ in place of Fe2+ in Hb) & has slightly greater affinity for oxygen due to its chemical structure

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8
Q

Double vision and worsening weakness can be indicative of

A

myasthenia gravis

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9
Q

The treatment of choice for myasthenia gravis is

A

anticholinesterase inhibitors

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10
Q

Describe the use of paralytics for patients with myasthenia gravis.

A

sensitive to rocuronium, resistant to succinylcholine

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11
Q

Anesthetic management of a patient with mitochondrial disease includes

A
no need to reduce opioid requirements 
regional & locals are controversial
avoid nitrous LR & propofol infusions
can still use volatiles
Ketamine> propofol for induction
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12
Q

______ should be avoided in patients with Parkinson’s

A

metoclopramide- dopamine antagonist

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13
Q

Any condition that decreases oxygen transport to tissues will stimulate

A

erythropoietin

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14
Q

Chronic blood loss is the result of

A

inability to absorb enough iron from the gut to make hemoglobin as rapidly as it is lost

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15
Q

Acute blood loss.

A

body replaces fluid portion of plasma in 1-3 days

RBCs within 3-6 weeks

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16
Q

There is clear evidence to support hemoglobin levels below ________ benefit from transfusion

A

6 mg/dL

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17
Q

The lifespan of RBCs is

A

120 days

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18
Q

Blood tests for hemolytic anemia include

A

increased immature erythrocytes, unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia/jaundice, increased lactate dehydrogenase, decreased haptoglobin

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19
Q

For patients with sickle cell, blood transfusion

A

before surgery desires more HbA than HbS

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20
Q

The sickle cell trait

A

does not increase morbidity & mortality

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21
Q

With erythroblastosis fetalis, the fetus is

A

RhD-antigen positive and the mother is RhD antigen negative

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22
Q

Rhesus factor is

A

a protein found on the surface of RBCs (antigen)

23
Q

Anesthetic risks for development of hemolysis for patients with G6PD deficiency includes

A

metoclopramide
penicillin
sulfa
methylene blue

24
Q

Concentrated polycythemia is a result of

A

dehydration, diuretics, or vomiting

25
Physiologic polycythemia
does not result in symptoms | its an environmental adaption
26
Polycythemia vera may be as high as 60-70% instead of normal & many die from
thrombus complications
27
Hemoglobin A is made up of
2 alpha & 2 beta
28
Methemoglobin is formed when
the iron in HB is oxidized from the ferrous (Fe2+) to the ferric (Fe3+) state
29
_________ is contraindicated in someone with G6PD deficiency
methylene blue
30
Anesthesia management for the patient with thalassemia includes
risk of difficult intubation due to oro-facial malformations, risk for infection-broad spectrum antibiotics, DVT prophylaxis, blood bank alerted that patient has thalassemia
31
Sickle cell disease is when
the amino acid valine is substituted for glutamic acid at one point in each of the 2 beta chains
32
Factor VIII level should be brought to at least
>50% prior to surgery
33
The half life of factor VIII is approximately
12 hours in adults, 6 in children
34
The treatment for hemophilia can include
FFP, cryo, TXA, desmopressin, & factor VIII concentratie
35
Treatment for vWF includes
FFP, cryo, & factor concentrate
36
Causes of DIC include
sepsis, burns, trauma, & obstetric complications
37
Blood tests in DIC show
low platelets, low fibrinogen, high INR & PT, High PTT, high d-dimer
38
In presenting hyperfibrinolysis DIC
give TXA with blood products
39
In presenting procoagulant DIC
consider anticoagulation first & blood product support for bleeding or invasive procedures
40
Upper motor neurons are
motor pathways that begin in the cerebral cortex & end in the ventral horn of the spinal cord
41
The corticospinal tract
supplies the voluntary muscles of the trunk & extremities
42
75-90% of the corticospinal tract
decussates in the medulla & forms the lateral corticospinal tract
43
The corticobulbar tract
supplies the voluntary muscles of the head & follows the corticospinal tract until they reach the brainstem
44
Lower motor neurons are
located in the brain stem or spinal cord
45
Lower motor neurons send axons out through
nerves in the peripheral nervous system to synapse & control skeletal muscles
46
The lower motor neurons that pass through the spinal nerves
primarily control muscles of the limbs & the trunk
47
The lower motor neurons that pass through cranial nerves
primarily control the skeletal muscles of the head & neck
48
The upper motor neuron motor cortex is
muscle groups affected minimal disuse muscle atrophy hypertonia spasticity & babinski
49
The lower motor neuron cortex involves
``` individual muscles may be affected marked muscle atrophy fasciculations decreased muscle stretch reflex hypotonia flaccidity ```
50
Cerebral palsy does not
cause progressive intellectual disability
51
This type of anesthetic technique should be avoided for patients with MS
spinal
52
Succinylcholine should be avoided in patients with
MS, Huntington's & LEMs
53
Treatment for myasthenia gravis includes
cholinesterase inhibitor
54
The difference between Duchenne's & Becker's is
the age of diagnosis