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Oral pathology > Patient Management > Flashcards

Patient Management Flashcards

1
Q
  • Age ________ - infant, not responsible for actions
  • Age ________- competent
  • Age ________ - responsible
  • Minors younger than ______ can give implied consent or
    assent but not actual consent
A
  • Age 1-7 -infant, not responsible for actions
  • Age 8-14 - competent
  • Age 15-17 - responsible
  • Minors younger than 18 can give implied consent or
    assent but not actual consent
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2
Q

Rapport is a Mutual sense of _____ and ________

A

trust and openness

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3
Q

Empathy is a reflection and showing _________

A

Reflection and showing understanding

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4
Q

__________ questions allow patient to explain
what is important to them

A

Open-ended questions

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5
Q

__________ questions direct the patient to
respond a certain way, DO NOT USE

A

Leading

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6
Q

_____________ questions ask patient to respond from a list of choices

A

Laundry questions

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7
Q

__________ questions elicit more specific
information

A

Closed ended

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8
Q

Probing questions is used to

A

gather additional information

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9
Q

Antecedent

A

factor that facilitates behavior

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10
Q

not considering behavior change comes under_______ stage

A

Precontemplation

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11
Q

Which stage requires suppport?

A

Action

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12
Q

cognitive perception that you
can execute behaviors necessary for a given
situation

A

Self-efficacy

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13
Q

Perceived susceptibility to given

A

disease or problem

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14
Q

prompts to engage or not engage in certain behavior

A

Cues to action

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15
Q

Negative punishment

A

do a bad thing and
remove a good stimulus

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16
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

Negative reinforcement= do a good thing and
remove a bad stimulu

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17
Q

making a behavior that has a higher probability of being performed contingent on a behavior that has a lower probability of being performed

A
  • Premack Principle
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18
Q

setting small attainable goals and rewarding
yourself after each step is called

A
  • Shaping
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19
Q

Motivational Interviewing OARS stands

A

OARS= open questions, affirmations, reflective
listening, summarizing

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20
Q

not ready to change is called _________ talk

A

Sustain talk

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21
Q

__________ Pain Rating Scale is
particularly useful for the ongoing assessment
of pain experience in children

A

Wong-Baker Faces

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22
Q
  • Pain is a complex phenomenon involving
    ___________
A

cognition and emotion

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23
Q

Pharmacologic Pain Management
* Rx
– Mild-
– Moderate-
– Severe-

A

Pharmacologic Pain Management
* Rx
– Mild ibuprofen or acetaminophen
– Moderate ibuprofen and acetaminophen
– Severe ibuprofen and/or acetaminophen
and opioid

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24
Q
  • Nitrous Oxide
    – Sensation before onset -
    – Side effect -
A
  • Nitrous Oxide
    – Sensation before onset - tingling
    – Side effect - nausea
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25
Q

DMFT is a reversible/irreversible measure

A

Irreversible

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26
Q

Gingival Index
* 0=
* 1=
* 2=
* 3=

A

Gingival Index
* Uses four surfaces on six indicator teeth
* 0= normal gingiva
* 1= mild inflammation
* 2= moderate inflammation
* 3= severe inflammation, ulcerated tissue with tendency
toward spontaneous bleeding

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27
Q

Periodontal Index
– 0=
– 1=
– 2=
– 3=
– 4=

A

Periodontal Index
– 0= healthy
– 1= bleeding
– 2= calculus
– 3= shallow pockets
– 4= deep pockets

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28
Q

ECC
Mostly occurs in ages _________
Mostly involves

A

Mostly occurs in ages 3 to 5
Mostly involves maxillary incisors and molars

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29
Q

_________ is optimal amount of flouride

A

1 ppm (1mg fluoride per liter of water)= 2ml

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30
Q

1 ml of flouride is _______mg

A

0.5 mg F

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31
Q

Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF) gel has
pH ___ and ____% fluoride

A

pH 3.0 and 1.23% fluoride

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32
Q

Stannous Fluoride _____ taste and _________ tooth staining

A

Astringent taste and extrinsic tooth staining

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33
Q

TOXIC DOSE IS ________

A

TOXIC DOSE IS
5MG/KG

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34
Q

LETHAL DOSE IS ________
FOR AN ADULT

A

LETHAL DOSE IS 5G FOR AN ADULT

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35
Q
  • Hand wash= _______ seconds minimum
  • Flush ultrasonic= _________ seconds minimum
A
  • Hand wash= 15 seconds minimum
  • Flush ultrasonic= 20-30 seconds minimum
36
Q

Hep B
* ____% risk of transmission after percutaneous
injury
* Postexposure prophylaxis includes _________ and
_______________

A

30%
vaccine and possibly immunoglobulin

37
Q

Hep C
* _________% risk of transmission after percutaneous
injury
Postexposure prophylaxis is ______

A

1.8%
now available

38
Q

HIV
* ____% risk of transmission after percutaneous
injury
* Postexposure prophylaxis is a course of
_________

A

0.3%
antivirals

39
Q

Patient with active TB should not be seen for
__________ dental care

A

elective

40
Q

Regulates transportation of dental waste from
dental offices is amnaged by ______ agency

A

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

41
Q

Sterilization
* Destruction of all life forms including__________

A

Sterilization
* Destruction of all life forms including bacteria,
viruses, and spores

42
Q

Minimum exposure periods for sterilization of wrapped healthcare supplies are ______min and ______degree centigrade

A

minimum exposure periods for sterilization of wrapped healthcare supplies are 30 minutes at 121°C (250°F) in a gravity displacement sterilizer.”

43
Q

Moist heat destroys bacteria by __________
of proteins

A

denaturation

44
Q

Dry heat sterilization
– ______˚C for ____ min
– Only ________objects can be sterilized by this method due to high
temperatures
– Dry heat destroys bacteria by
__________ of proteins

A

Dry heat sterilization
– 160˚C for 60 min
– Only glass or metal objects can be
sterilized by this method due to high
temperatures
– Dry heat destroys bacteria by
coagulation of proteins
– Best preservation of cutting edges

45
Q

– Best preservation of cutting edges

A

Dry heat sterilization

46
Q

Glutaraldehyde
– Cold solution used for __________ items

A

heat-sensitive items

47
Q

Disinfection
* Used on _________ objects
* Spores are not destroyed in this
process, but _________ is
Let it sit for ___ minutes and then
wipe

A

Inanimate
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Let it sit for 10 minutes and then wipe

48
Q
  • Quaternary ammonium compounds (quats) à
    disrupt cell membrane and lethal to a wide
    variety of organisms except _________
A

endospores, TB, and non-enveloped viruses

49
Q

Spaulding Classification System
1. Critical= contacts ______
– Requires
– Examples are
2. Semi-critical= contacts
– Minimum of
– Examples are
3. Noncritical= contacts
– Requires
– Examples include

A

Spaulding Classification System
1. Critical= contacts sterile tissue or vascular
system
– Requires sterilization
– Examples are needles
2. Semi-critical= contacts mucosa
– Minimum of high-level disinfection but sterilization if
material is heat stable
– Examples are mouth mirror
3. Noncritical= contacts skin
– Requires disinfection
– Examples include blood pressure cuffs

50
Q
  • Acute mercury toxicity affects include:
A
  • Acute mercury toxicity
    – Muscle weakness (hypotonia)
    – Loss of hair (alopecia)
    – Weight loss/GI disorders
    – Exhaustion
51
Q

Airborne Particles
* Splatter= visible _______µm, fall within ______feet of
patient’s mouth, can carry __________
pathogens
* Aerosols= invisible _____µm, can only carry _________

A

Airborne Particles
* Splatter= visible ≥50µm, fall within 3 feet of
patient’s mouth, can carry blood-borne
pathogens
* Aerosols= invisible <50µm, remain floating in air
for hours, can only carry respiratory infections

52
Q
  • Hearing loss develops slowly over time and
    can be caused by_____
A

≥90dB

53
Q

Water Lines
* EPA requires _____ CFU of heterotrophic
bacteria per mL of water
flush waterlines in the

A

≤500
flush waterlines in the morning and after each patient.

54
Q

_________ Association color and number
– Blue= ________hazard and number_____
– Red= ______ hazard and number_________-
– Yellow= ________ and number _________
– White=

A

National Fire Protection Association color and number
– Blue= health hazard
– Red= fire hazard
– Yellow= reactivity of chemical
– White= required PPE

55
Q
  • Copayment=
A
  • Copayment= predetermined rate you pay at time of
    care
56
Q
  • Deductible=
A

what you need to pay before insurance
starts kicking in

57
Q

Coinsurance=

A

percentage of charge that you pay

58
Q

Premium=

A

monthly amount you pay to have insurance

59
Q

Third-Party Payers include:

A

Third-Party Payers
– Usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR)
– Table of allowances
– Fee schedule

60
Q

Fee-for-service
– Dentist is paid per

A

Procedure

61
Q

dentist is paid flat fee for each patient seen

A

Per capita

62
Q

Leading payer for dental treatment

A

Fee-for-service

63
Q
  • Sliding scale fee
A

Cost of treatment is adjusted based on patient income and ability to pay

64
Q

Dentist is paid predetermined fixed amount before treatment is provided

A

Prospective reimbursement (FQHC)

65
Q

code changed to a less complex or lower
cost procedure than was reported

A

Downcoding

66
Q

the combining of distinct dental procedures

A

Bundling

67
Q

Government Health Programs

A

– Medicare
– Medicaid
– Children’s Health Insurance Program (CHIP)
– Indian Health Service (HIS)
– Veterans Health Administration (VHA)

68
Q
  • Private Health Coverage
A
  • Private Health Coverage
    – Consumer-driven
  • Private fee-for-service
  • Flexible spending account (FSA)
  • Health savings account (HSA)
    – Managed care
  • HMO
  • PPO
69
Q
  • Insurance option that limits coverage to
    medical care provided through specific
    providers who are under contract of __________ organization.
A

Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)

70
Q

In Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) doctors are paid on ________ plan

A

capitation plan

71
Q

Centers for Disease Control
and Prevention (CDC)
* Provides

A

Centers for Disease Control
and Prevention (CDC)
* Provides oral health surveillance, dental
infection control, community water
fluoridation, cancer and tobacco-related
issues, and support for state oral health
programs

72
Q

Ryan White CARE Act -

A

Ryan White CARE Act à funds medical and
dental care for people who have HIV/AIDS

73
Q

Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) functions

A
  • National Health Service Corps (NHSC)= and
    provides loan repayment for health
    professionals who work in underserved
    communities (FQHC)
  • Ryan White CARE Act à funds medical and
    dental care for people who have HIV/AIDS
74
Q

Abuse and neglect
* Child=
* Adult=
* Elderly=
* Disabled=

A
  • Child= report immediately to social services
  • Adult= ideally ask them alone first (autonomy) and then report (beneficence) to DHHS
  • Elderly= report immediately
  • Disabled= report immediately
75
Q
  • The use of an open dental operatoryis not recommended in the treatment of ___________ patients.
A

autistic

76
Q

itchiness, warm sensations, hypotension, airway constriction, and tachycardia are symptoms of _______

A

Anaphylaxis

77
Q
  • Hepatitis B viruses can live on a surface for up to ______week.
  • Hepatitis C can live on a surface for up to ______ weeks.
  • M. tuberculosiscan survive on surfaces for _________. Influenza Atypically lasts around _________ on surfaces outside the body.
    HIV- It lasts on surfaces for a __________.
A
  • Hepatitis B viruses can live on a surface for up to one week.
  • Hepatitis C can live on a surface for up to six weeks.
  • M. tuberculosiscan survive on surfaces for months. Influenza Atypically lasts around 24 - 48 hours on surfaces outside the body.
    HIV- It lasts on surfaces for a matter of minutes to hours.
78
Q

Administration control is a

A

change the way people work

79
Q

Engineering control

A

Isolate people from the hazard

80
Q
  • The best disinfection method for a digital radiographic sensor covered with a disposable hygienic barrier is to spray and wipe with ___________.
A

70%isopropyl alcohol

81
Q

.Chlorinecompounds such asLysolandbleachare typically used for ___________
* Phenol compounds are the best type of chemical disinfectantfor _____________

A

.Chlorinecompounds such asLysolandbleachare typically used for spills of human body fluids
* Phenol compounds are the best type of chemical disinfectantfor smooth surfaces

82
Q

*__________ are effective tools to address the eating habits of those with a high caries risk

A

Diet journals

83
Q

Common signs and symptoms of bulimia nervosainclude tooth erosion on ________

A

palatal surfaces of maxillary teeth and occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth

84
Q

prescribing __________ppm fluoride toothpaste is appropriate in bulimia nervosa.

A

5000 ppm

85
Q
  • _____________ is a caries risk tool that considers risk factors, protective factors, and clinical features of caries.
A

CAMBRA

86
Q

How often, at minimum, should an office spore test its autoclave for proper heat sterilization?

A

Weekly

87
Q
A

Oral pathology (14 decks)

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