Peads Flashcards

1
Q

What are the complications of measles?

A

Measles complications: MEASLES: Myocarditis Encephalitis (subacute sclerosing panecephalitis) Appendicitis Laryngitis Early Death (lol) Shits (Diarrhoea)

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2
Q

What is the most common pathogen causing sepsis in neonate before 72 hours and after 72 hours old?

A

<72 hours = Group B strep (agalactiae). Often contracted from the vagina of mum during delivery.

> 72 hours =

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3
Q

Which viral exanthema is most likely to cause a febrile seizure?

A

Roseola infantum dur to high rising fever

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4
Q

How do you know a child is no longer infectious with Parvovius?

A

When the rash appears, the child is no longer infective

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5
Q

What antibiotic is used in whooping cough within 21 days of onset to reduce infectivity?

A

Clarithromycin

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6
Q

Which abx is used for urosepsis in kids?

A

Broad spec (tazosin)

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7
Q

A child has a febrile confusion. What is the chance this will now happen again?

A

30-40%

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8
Q

How do you manage a febrile convulsion which is lasting more than 5 mins?

A

After protecting the child from injury, give emergency benzodiazepine rescue medication, either buccal or rectal diazepam.

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9
Q

What is the prognosis of Epilepsy with centro-temporal spikes (childhood Rolandic epilepsy)?

A

Most outgrow this around puberty

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10
Q

Which herpes virus causes roseola infantum?

A

Human herpes virus 6

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11
Q

How do you classify a simple and complex febrile convulsion?

A

Simple febrile convulsion = one seizures and less than 5 mins

Complex = lasting >5 mins or occurring multiple times within a short period (24hours)

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12
Q

What is the management of status epilepticus

A

Updated 2023 NICE guidelines:

  1. Give a benzodiazepine (buccal midacolam or rectal diazepam) immediately as first line in communit OR IV lorazepam if IV and resus equipment readily available
  2. If seizures does not stop within 5 minutes of first does, give second dose of benzodiazapine
  3. If seizures do not stop after 2 doses of benzodiazapine, give IV levetiracetam, IV phenytoin or IV sodium valproate. Levetiracetam is the best.
  4. If does not respond to second line treatment, consider trying another second line treatment option under expert guidance.
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13
Q

What are ash leaf molecules (hypopigmentation) and shagreen patch (leathery patch) common skin features of?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

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14
Q

What is condition does Rectal suction biopsy confirm?

A

Hirchsrpungs disease

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15
Q

On digital rectal examination, removal of a gloved finger leads to explosive passage of stool.
What condition is this indicative of?

A

Hirschprungs disease

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16
Q

What is Phrens sign?

A

Differentiates between testicular torsion and epididymitis.

Lifting the scrotum supposedly relieves pain from epididymitis but not testicular torsion.

This test isn’t really used anymore as Doppler USS is much more reliable.

17
Q

What does the heel prick test for CF measure?

A

Immunoreactive trypsinogen

18
Q

What type of rash is extremely common in patients with infectious mononucleosis taking amoxicillin?

A

Morbilliform Eruption

an erythematous maculopapular rash and excoriations are noted across her trunk and upper arms.

19
Q

Baby is vomiting after being laid flat and arching back and bringing knees up to chest. What condition is this characteristic of?

A

GORD

20
Q

What is double bubble a sign of?

A

Duodenal atresia - caused by a distended and air filled stomach and small bowel

21
Q

What is the criteria for giving a child a micturating cystourethrohram?

A

Any child under the age of 6 months with recurrent UTIs should be referred for MCUG to rule out vesicouretic reflux.

22
Q

What is the normal range of puberty for a boy?

A

9-14
Before the age of 9 is precocious puberty. After 14 is delayed.

23
Q

What does transposition of the great vessels look like on X-ray?

A

Egg on a string appearance

24
Q

What is the most common cardiac defect in children of T1DM or T2DM mothers?

A

Transposition of the great vessels

25
Q

What cancers does having untreated coeliac disease increase the risk of?

A

Lymphoma and small bowel adenocarcinomas