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9/2018 > Pedia MUST KNOWS > Flashcards

Pedia MUST KNOWS Flashcards

1
Q

Best initial treatment for RDS

A

Oxygen

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2
Q

Most effective treatment for RDS

A

Intubation and Exogenous surfactant administration

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3
Q

tachypnea usually observed in infants delivered via CS or NSD with rapud second stage of labor

A

Transient Tachypnea of the newborn

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4
Q

Anterolateral defect CDH

A

morgagni hernia

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5
Q

Posterolateral defect CDH

A

Bochdalek hernia

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6
Q

premature infants exposed to prolonged high-pressure mechanical ventilation and high concentrations of inspired oxygen

A

BPD

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7
Q

Pathological findings of BPD

A

alternating regions of overinflation and atelectasis, airway smooth muscle hypertrophy, squamous metaplasia of the airway epithelium, peribronchial fibrosis, constrictive obliterative bronchiolitis, and hypertensive pulmonary vascular changes

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8
Q

DOC for Sinusitis

A

Co-Amoxiclav x 14d

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9
Q

Known complications of GAHBS pharyngitis

A

Rheumatic fever

Post-strep GN

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10
Q

Walking pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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11
Q

Lobar consolidation

A

Pneumococcus

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12
Q

Hyperinflation with bilateral interstitial infiltrates and peribronchial cuffing

A

RSV

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13
Q

Prominent areas of cavitations and multiple pneumatocoeles

A

Staphylococcus

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14
Q

Right sided hilar adenopathy

A

PTB

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15
Q

Tx Pyloric stenosis

A

Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

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16
Q

Imaging test of choice for diagnosing Malrotation

A

Upper GI series

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17
Q

Tx of Malrotation

A

Ladd procedure

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18
Q

Intussusception is associated with what infection?

A

Adenovirus/Rotavirus Infection

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19
Q

Gold standard for Dx of Hirschprung disease

A

Rectal Suction Biopsy

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20
Q

Only causes (3) of Renal insufficiency that causes decrease in C3

A

PSGN
MPGN
Lupus Nephritis

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21
Q

Strawberry skull

A

Trisomy 18

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22
Q

Most important primary treatment of IgA nephropathy

A

Blood pressure control

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23
Q

Major complication of nephrotic syndrome

A

Infection

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24
Q

Most frequent type of infection assoc with nephrotic syndrome

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

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25
Q

Most common bacteria causing SBP in nephrotic syndrome

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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26
Q

Single best test in diagnosing APSGN

A

Anti-DNAse antigen

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27
Q

T or F

Acyclovir is routinely given to patients with varicella infection

A

False

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28
Q

Acyclovir is most effective in treating varicella infection if given within ____ hrs from the onset of ____

A

24

Rash

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29
Q

Active vaccine for varicella can be given within ____ of exposure to modify course

A

5 days

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30
Q

Major Criteria For Rheumatic Fever

A 
Joints (arthritis)
Oh ny heart (myocarditis)
Nodules (subcutaneous)
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham Chorea
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31
Q

Minor Criteria for Rheumatic Fever

A 
Fever
Risk factor
Arthralgia
Prolonged PR
Elevated Acute phase reactants
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32
Q

Major Criteria for Infective Endocarditis

Duke’s Criteria

A

Blood culture

ECG findings

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33
Q

Minor criteria for infective endocarditis

A 
Fever
Immunologic (GN, Osler, Roth, RF)
Vascular (Janeway, Emboli, Aneurysm, pulmonary infarct)
ECG
Predisposing condition
Microbiological evidence
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34
Q

ORS composition

A 
Glc 75 
Na 75
Cl 65
K 20
Citrate 10
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35
Q 
Growth deficiency
Hypertension
Flat nose
Low set ears
Micrognathua
Limb position defect
Impaired renal function, hyponatremia
Heoatic fibrosis
A

Potter’s syndrome (Oligohydramnios Complex)

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36
Q

Indications for Rifampicin

A

TB

Prophylaxis for Meningococcemia and acute epiglotittis

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37
Q

Endotracheal tube drugs

A

Lidocaine
Atropibe
Naloxone
Epinephrine

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38
Q

Best single Ab titer to document skin infection

A

DNAse B antigen

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39
Q

MCC HUS

A

E. Coli

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40
Q

MCC of SBP

A

E. Coli

S. Pneumoniae

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41
Q

Upper limit of normal protein excretion in healthy children

A

150 mg/day

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42
Q

Edema
Proteinuria
Hypoalbuminemia
Hyperlipidemia

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

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43
Q

Oliguria
Hypertenson
Hematuria
Azotemia

A

Nephritic Syndrome

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44
Q

MC complication of Measles

A

Acute Otitis media

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45
Q

MC death in Measles

A

Pneumonia

46
Q

MC complication in Mumps

A

Meningoencephalitis

47
Q

Essential for Low BW infants

A

Cystine
Arginine
Taurine

48
Q

MC esophageal disorder in children of all ages

A

GERD

49
Q

PPI of choice for infants

A

Esomeprazole

50
Q

Fully Immunized child

A 
BCG1
HepB3
DPT3
Polio3
HiB3
RV3
PCV3
Measles1
51
Q

MCC thrombocytopenic purpura in Childhood

A

ITP

52
Q

MC inherited bleeding disorder

A

Von Willebrand Disease

53
Q

Aplastic anemia with microcephaly, microphthalmia, hearing loss, limb abnormalities

A

Fanconi Anemia

54
Q

Long term sequelae of bacterial meningitis

A

Hearing loss

55
Q

Pure red cell aplasia

A

Diamond-Blackfan Syndrome

56
Q

MCC nonbilious vomiting

A

Pyloric stenosis

57
Q

Surgical procedure for pyloric stenosis

A

Ramstedt pylorotomy

58
Q

Most frequent congenital GI anomaly

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

59
Q

Age for definitive procedure for hirschprung

A

6-12 months

60
Q

Appropriate time to surgically correct cleft palate

A

3 months

61
Q

MCC intestinal obstruction between 3 months to 6 years old

A

Intussusception

62
Q

Parts of brain affected by HSV

A

Frontal and temporal limbic system

63
Q

Heterophile Ab in EBV

A

Paul-Bunnel Antibodies

64
Q

Syndrome associated with Infectious Mononucleosis with symmetric rash on cheeks

A

Gianotti-Crosti Syndrome

65
Q

Isolation of Polio Virus

A

End of 1st week- Blood
End of 2nd week- Throat
End of 3rd week- Feces
Uncommon- CSF

66
Q

Viral cause if neuronal destruction of braimstem and medulla

A

Rabies virus

67
Q

Histologic findings of rabies virus in the brain

A

Negri bodies

68
Q

DOC for Rabies

A

Co-Amoxiclav 40 mkd x 7 days

69
Q

Single best prognostic indicator of HIV

A

Plasma Viral Load

70
Q

Most Feared Complication due to trauma in infectious mononucleosis

A

Splenic Rupture

71
Q

MC Solid Tumors in Childhood

A

Brain Tumors

72
Q

MC location of brain tumors in Children

A

Infratentorial (Posterior Fossa)

73
Q

MC Infratentorial Brain Tumor

A

Cerebellar Astrocytoma

74
Q

MC Location of Medulloblastoma

A

Cerebellum

75
Q

Agenesis of Cerebellar Vermis
Cystic Dilatation of 4th ventricle
Enlargement of Post. Fossa
Prominent occiput

A

Dandy-Walker Malformation

76
Q

Vertebral Adhesions
Decreased range of motion
Short webbed neck

A

Klippel-feil syndrome

77
Q

Mass lesion

Cerebro-ocular dysgenesis

A

Walker-Warburg Syndrome

78
Q

MCC of Non-communicating Hydrocephalus

A

Aqueductal Stenosis

79
Q

Cracked-pot sensation on percussion of sku

A

Macewen Sign

HYDROCEPHALUS

80
Q

MC anomaly of Upper airway

A

Laryngomalacia

81
Q

Handedness

A

3 yo

82
Q

20/20 vision

A

4 yo

83
Q

Bedwetting until

A

Female: 4 yo
Male: 5 yo

84
Q

Egg shaped heart

A

TGA

85
Q

Boot shaped heart

A

TOF

86
Q

Snowman Sign/ Figure of 8

A

TAPVR

87
Q

Rib notching

Inverted 3 sign

A

CoA

88
Q

Agenesis of Corpus Callosum
Infantile Spasm
Chorioretinallacunae

A

Aicardi Syndrome

89
Q

Sinuses present at birth

A

Maxillary

Ethmoid

90
Q

SINUS Pneumatized at 4 yo

A

Maxillary

91
Q

Sinus Pneumatized at 5 yo

A

Sphenoid

92
Q

Most characteristic finding of Kawasaki Disease

A

Aneurysm of Major Coronary Arteries

93
Q

Site to determine Bone Age

A

Xray of Left Wrist

94
Q

MCC of congenital hypothyroidism

A

Thyroid dysgenesis

95
Q

Tx of TGA

A

Senning/Mustarf
Rastelli
Jatene

96
Q

Tx of TOF

A 
Blalock Taussig (>3 months)
Gore-Tex Shunt (<3 months)
97
Q

Tx of Tricuspid Atresia

A

Bidirectional Glenn shunt (4-8 months)

Modified Fontan Operation (1.5-3 yo)

98
Q

Always present in Truncus Arteriosus

A

VSD

99
Q

Tx for TA

A

Rastellu Repair

100
Q

Tx for TAPVR

A

PGE + Van Pragh Procedure

101
Q

Common cardiac anomaly in turner’s syndrome

A

CoA

102
Q

Tx of AS

A

Ross procedure

103
Q

Tx of PS

A

Brock’s procedure

104
Q

Test to rule out abusive head trauma

A

Ophthalmologic exam
CT
MRI

105
Q

Most common primary immunodeficiency

A

Selective IgA deficiency

106
Q

Chronic Respiratory infections. Nitroblue tetrazolium test is negative

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

107
Q

Eczema
Thrombocytopenia
High IgA

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

108
Q

Infant with life-threatening Pseudomonas infection

A

Bruton’s X-linked Agammaglobulinemia

109
Q

Tanner stage 3 in 6 yo girl

A

Precocious puberty

110
Q

Cause of neonatal RDS

A

Surfactant deficiency

111
Q

PPD necessary prior to BCG vaccination on what reasons?

A

Suspected congenital TB
HX of close contact
Clinical findings suggestive of TB
Chest xray suggestive of TB

112
Q

When will you give HepB vaccine to PRETERM infants born to HbsAg negative moms and are medically stable

A

1st dose may be given at the 30th day of life

9/2018 (26 decks)

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