Pediatrics Flashcards

(245 cards)

1
Q

Do simple febrile seizures require a workup?

A

No. patients can be discharged home from the emergency department with reassurance

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2
Q

AR deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase?

A

PKU - build up of phenylalanine. failure to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine

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3
Q

Clinical features of PKU?

A

intellectual disability, fair complexion, eczema, musty urine and body odor

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4
Q

Diagnosis of PKU?

A
newborn screening (mass spec)
quantitative amino acid analysis
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5
Q

Aldolase B deficiency?

A

hereditary fructose intolerane
introducing veggies and fruits leads to accumulation of fructose-1-phosphate. affected infants present with vomiting, poor feeds, lethargy

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6
Q

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

A

galactosemia: present with jaundice, hepatomegaly, failure to thrive the first few days after birth. After consumption of breast milk or formula

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7
Q

large fontanelles, failure to thrive, hypotonia?

A

hypothyroidism

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8
Q

After suspecting Turner syndrome, what should be your first step in completing a diagnosis or in management?

A

Pelvic ultrasound to evaluate internal female anatomy

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9
Q

First step in evaluation of primary amenorrhea?

A

Pelvic exam or ultrasound

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10
Q

definition of primary amenorrhea?

A

absence of menarche by age 15

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11
Q

When should you do a brain MRI in the evaluation of primary amenorrhea?

A

uterus is present on ultrasound and serum FSH is low or inapp normal. Need to rule in/out pituitary or hypothalamic tumors

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12
Q

why do prolactinomas cause amenorrhea?

A

they inhibit GnRH release

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13
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of Turners?

A

Karyotype

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14
Q

treatment for OCD?

A

high-dose selective SSRIs and exposure/response prevention based psycotherapy

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15
Q

Fever, pharyngitis, gray vesicles/ulcers on posterior oropharynx?

A

Herpangina from Coxsackie A virus

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16
Q

How does presentation of herpetic gingivostomatitis and herpangina differ?

A

herpetic gingivostomatitis would be found on anterior pharynx whereas coxsackie is posterior. herpetic- erythematous gingiva whereas coxsackie is gray vesicles/ulcers. herpes has grouped vesicles not solitary vesicles.

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17
Q

most common congenital cyanotic heart defect to present in neonatal period

A

transposition of great vessels

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18
Q

how does transposition of great vessels present?

A

First few hours of life with cyanosis and a single, loud, second heart sound.

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19
Q

“egg on a string” heart

A

findings on x-ray for transposition of great vessel

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20
Q

Harsh pulmonic stenosis murmur and a VSD murmur are found in what congenital heart defect?

A

Tet of Fallot.

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21
Q

“Boot shaped” heart due to RVH is seen in?

A

Tet of Fallot

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22
Q

Single S2 heart sound, VSD murmur and minimal blood flow in pulmonary artery?

A

Tricuspid atresia

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23
Q

If transposition of great vessels is suspected, what should you give right away?

A

prostaglandins to keep ductus arteriosus patent to optimize inter-circulatory mixing. also obtain an Echo.

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24
Q

What do ASD, dextrocardia, PDA and VSD have in common?

A

All acyanotic congenital heart diseases

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25
2-3 year old child with impaired visual adaptation to darkness, photophobia, dry skin, xerosis conjunctiva, xerosis cornea, keratomalacia, bitot spots, follicular hyperkeratosis of extensor surfaces
vitamin A deficiency
26
Patients with Tourette syndrome are at significant risk for what other psych comorbidities?
ADHD and/or OCD
27
selective mutism
verbal and talkative at home but refuse to speak in specific social settings- commonly at school. (considered an anxiety disorder)
28
life-threatening descending flaccid paralysis in an infant?
botulism. clostridium botulinum spores
29
treatment for botulism?
human derived botulism immune globulin
30
Other common cause of C. botulinum other than honey ingestion of the spores?
Spore inhalation from environmental dust
31
What is the treatment for ingestion of preformed C. botulinum in food?
Equine-derived botulism antitoxin
32
MOA of botulinum toxin
blocks Ach release at presynaptic neurons
33
Cephalohematoma
subperiosteal hemorrhage. presents a few hours after birth as scalp swelling limited to 1 cranial bone. no discoloration of scalp
34
treatment for cephalohematoma
most cases resorb spontaneously within 2 weeks - 3 months
35
caput succedaneum
diffuse, sometimes ecchymotic swelling of scalp. crosses suture lines.
36
cranial pulsations, increased pressure when crying, evidence of bony defects?
cranial meningocele
37
appearance of "pink stain" or "brick dust" in newborn diapers represents?
uric acid crystals
38
SCM muscle mass, ipsilateral head tilt, contralateral chin deviation?
Congenital muscular torticollis
39
Treatment strategies for congenital muscular torticollis?
increased tummy time, passive stretching, physical therapy
40
cystic hygroma
lymphatic system malformations located in posterior triangle of neck. often detected prenatally. high association with aneuploidy
41
physical exam of cystic hygroma would show
fluctuant mass that transilluminates
42
craniosyntosis
premature closure of cranial sutures
43
anemia of prematurity is caused by?
due to diminished epo levels, shortened RBC life span, blood loss (iatrogenic blood sampling)
44
Meconium ileus is virtually diagnostic for?
cystic fibrosis
45
congenital aganglionic megacolon?
Hirschsprung disease
46
99% of healthy, full-term infants pass stool within the first ____ hours of life
48
47
character of meconium in meconium ileus?
thick and inspissated
48
narrow and underdeveloped microcolon should make you think of?
meconium ileus
49
Hirshsprung disease is associated with?
down syndrome
50
"squirt sign?"
forceful expulsion of stool after rectal exam
51
X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton agammaglobulinemia) results from?
impaired maturation of B cells. patients have small or absent lymphoid tissue. experience recurrent sinopulm and GI infections.
52
Patient with recurrent infections and "small tonsils" should make you think of?
x-linked agammaglobulinemia
53
adenosine deaminase deficiency
gene defect resulting in impaired T cell development- severe combined immunodeficiency.
54
Patients who have recurrent disseminated bacterial infections particularly with encapsulated bacteria may have what deficiency?
complement
55
recurrent skin and pulm infections wth catalase positive organisms and failure to thrive?
impaired oxidative burst
56
hypocalcemia, cardiac defects, failure to thrive, recurrent infections?
thymic hypoplasia. DiGeorge syndrome
57
cystathionine synthase deficiency
homocystinuria: errors in methionine metabolism
58
differential diagnosis of marfinoid body habitus?
marfan syndrome, homocystinuria, MEN syndrome
59
fair hair, fair eyes, developmental delay, cerebral vascular accident are pathognomonic for?
homocystinuria
60
Treatment for homocystinuria?
B6, folate, B12 to lower homocysteine levels and antiplatelet and anticoag to prevent stroke
61
some superficial infantile hemangiomas require treatment with _____ while most regress spontaneously
B-blockers
62
nevus simplex (macular stain, salmon patch, stork bite, angel kiss)
blanchable, pink-red patches, occur on eyelid, glabella, midline of nape of neck
63
post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies
rabies immune globulin and rabies vaccine immediately after exposure to high-risk wild animals
64
hydrophobia and aerophobia (feeling of water or air triggers involuntary muscle spasms) is present in?
human rabies
65
incubation period for rabies and prognosis?
1-3 month incubation. almost all patients die within weeks.
66
coins in the esophagus can be observed up to ___ hr after ingestion
24
67
Duchenne muscular dystrophy presents as
age 2-5 with bilateral calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower sign (using hands to push on legs to stand)
68
transmission of duchenne muscular dystrophy is?
X-linked recessive
69
gold standard for diagnostic testing of duchenne muscular dystrophy is?
genetic testing. deletion of dystrophin gene on Xp21
70
Serum creatinine phosphokinase and aldolase levels are elevated when?
screening for muscular dystrophies
71
congenitally absent or underdeveloped uterus, cervix, upper vagina in a patient with breast development, body hair growth? normal ovaries and external genitalia
mullerian agenesis
72
5-alpha reductase deficiency
cant convert testosterone to more potent DHT 46 XY genotype. male internal genitalia. female or undermasculinized external genitalia at birth. at puberty they experience masculinization
73
46 XY karyotye with defective androgen receptor and male internal genitalia. testicular testosterone is converted to estrogen-breast development
androgen insensitivity
74
cornell criteria
tall R wave in avL | Deep S wave in V3. characteristic for LVH
75
vomiting, encephalopathhy, hepatic dysfunction, abnormal behavior are presenting symptoms for?
reye syndrome
76
blue sclera, hearing loss, recurrent fractures, opalescent teeth
osteogenesis imperfecta
77
Vitamin D deficiency and pathologic fractures?
Rickets
78
blue-gray to yellow-brown discoloration of teeth should make you think of?
osteogenesis imperfecta (dentinogensis imperfecta)
79
4 main causes on differential diagnosis of stridor?
croup, foreign body (acute) | laryngomalacia, vascular ring (chronic)
80
when stridor improves with neck extension, think of ___ as the etiology?
vascular rings and slings
81
collapse of supraglottic structures during inspiration that presents with chronic inspiratory stridor (improves with prone positioning)
laryngomalacia
82
Infants with weight < 10th percentile may have complications such as?
hypoxia, polycythemia, hypothermia, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia
83
most significant risk factor for ICH in an infant?
prematurity
84
chylothorax exudative or transudative effusion?
exudative
85
pleural effusion with high triglyceride count should make you think of?
chylothorax due to disruption of lymphatic flow
86
metatarsus adductus
congenital foot deformity where forefoot turns inward. foot is usually still flexible and this resolves spontaneously also normal neutral position of hindfoot in contrast to club foot.
87
how is measles spread?
infected droplets
88
prodrome of measles?
fever, cough, coryza, non-purulent conjunctivitis, koplik spots
89
describe the rash of measles
erythematous, sometimes puritic macular rash that starts on face and spreads in cephalocaudal direction
90
diagnosis of measles?
PCR
91
Roseola is caused by?
HHV6
92
When does rash in roseola appear?
when the fever resolves
93
"3 day measles"
Rubella (no koplik spots) lower fever
94
brief period of apnea, cyanosis triggered by emotional change
breath holding spell
95
left axis deviation on ECG and decreased pulm vascular markings should make you think of?
tricuspid atresia
96
3-4 months, hypoglycemia, seizure, lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, hyperlipidemia, thin extremities, short stature, hepatomegaly, doll-like face with rounded cheeks
glucose 6 phos deficiency. von Gierke disease. inability to break down glycogen into glucose
97
gold standard treatment for SCFE
immediate surgical screw fixation
98
idiopathic avascular necrosis of the hip that affects boys age 5-7 years old?
legg-calve perthes disease
99
risk factors for milk or soy protein induced colitis
FH of allergy, eczema, asthma
100
patient is well appearing 1 month old with consistent vomiting after feeds and painless bloody stools with eczema. think of?
milk-soy protein induced colitis
101
Trachoma
due to infection with chlamydia trachomatis serotypes A, B, C presenting with follicular conjunctivitis and inflammation
102
delayed umbilical cord separation, recurrent skin and mucosal bacterial infections, severe preidontal disease, leukocytosis with neutrophil predominance suggests? **lack of pus!!
leukocyte adhesion deficiency
103
defect in intracellular killing due to impaired respiratory burst from activated phagocytes
chronic granulomatous disease | catalase positive organisms (staph aureus, serratia)
104
ingestion of what drug would cause abdominal pain, hematemesis, metabolic acidosis?
iron intoxication
105
2 most common causes of acute bacterial sinusitis?
Strep pneumo and nontypeable Hflu
106
treatment of choice for sinusitis?
amoxicillin-clavulonic acid
107
venous lead level of 5-44 (mild) treat with?
no medication. repeat level in < 1 month
108
moderate venous lead level (45-69) treat with?
meso-2,3-dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)
109
severe lead poison > 70 treat with?
dimercaprol british anti-lewis plus EDTA
110
what is the initial screen for blood lead levels? what do you do if initial screen is > 5 for lead?
finger stick | do venous lead
111
most common cause of vaginal bleeding in the neonatal period?
maternal withdrawal of hormonal estrogen
112
IUGR, microcephaly, closed fists with overlapping fingers, hypertonia, microagnothia, prominent occiput, rocker bottom feet, severe intellectual disability =
trisomy 18
113
gold standard for diagnosis of Hirshsprung
rectal suction biopsy
114
neurocutaneous syndrome characterized by congenital unilateral cavernous sinus hemangioma along trigem nerve distribution. radiographic evidence of intracranial calcifications resemble tramline
Sturge-Weber syndrome
115
Typical neuro presentation in Sturge-Weber syndrome?
seizure, hemianopia, hemiparesis, hemisensory, ipsilateral glaucoma
116
Levonorgestrel and Ulipristal
Plan B. oral emergency contraceptive options that prevent pregnancy by delaying ovulation. Its progestin (L) or antiprogestin (U) and can be given 72 (levonorgestrel) or 120 (ulipristal) hours after intercourse
117
treatment for idiopathic avascular necrosis of hip?
conservative with observation and bracing but may need surgery if femoral head is not contained in acetabulum
118
treatment for patient with congenital QT syndrome
beta blockers and pacemaker placement
119
All patients with central cause of precocious puberty (elevated LH and FSH) should have what test done?
head CT or MRI
120
How do you treat central precocious puberty?
GnRH analog
121
peripheral precocious puberty is caused by?
gonadal or adrenal release of excess sex hormone
122
blueberry muffin spots
finding of all congenital infections
123
copious rhinorrhea and a maculopapular rash that desquamates or becomes bullous in a newborn born to mom without prenatal care is concerning for ?
congenital syphilis
124
periventricular calcification suggests what congenital disease
CMV
125
diffuse intracerebral calcifications and severe chorioretinitis suggests what congenital disease?
toxo
126
cataracts and heart defects suggest what congenital disease?
rubella
127
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, acute kidney injury =
HUS
128
how can you differentiate DIC from HUS?
abnormal coag studies
129
which type of RTA has a basic urine?
distal RTA type 1. Defect in hydrogen secretion into the urine.
130
RTA where defect lies in inability to reabsorb bicard?
Type II (Proximal)
131
Fanconi syndrome
type II RTA (inability to reabsorb bicarb plus glucosuria, aminoaciduria, phosphaturia)
132
RTA with aldosterone resistance?
Type IV - results in high serum K (caused by obstructive uropathy, CAH)
133
Treatment for RTA?
give serum bicarb
134
most common heart defect with downs syndrome?
complete AV septal defect. failure of endocardial cushions to close results in ASD and VSD
135
Dihydrorhodamine 123 or nitroblue tetrazolium testing is used for?
chronic granulomatous disease (impaired intracellular killing by phagocytes) recurrent pulm and skin infections. catalase + organisms
136
cafe-au-lait macules, tumors of skin and central and peripheral nervous systems, axillary, inguinal freckles and lisch nodules (iris hamartomas) and neurofibromas
NF1
137
optic glioma is the most common type of intracranial lesion in what disease?
NF1
138
bilateral acoustic neuromas (vestibular schwanomas)- cause sensorineural hearing loss and are found in?
NF2
139
hypopigmented macules (ash-leaf spots), facial andiofibromas, cardiac rhabdomyomas, renal angioleiomyomas, mental retardation, seizure
tuberous sclerosis
140
All patients with central precocious puberty (GnRH dependent) should have?
brian MRI with contrast
141
primary treatment option for idiopathic GDPP is?
GnRH agonist to maximize adult height potential
142
definition of neonatal polycythemia?
hematocrit > 65% in term infants
143
delayed clamping of umbilical cord is a risk for?
polycythemia
144
symptomatic infants with polycythemia require?
partial transfusion (where blood is removed in exchange for normal saline)
145
asymptomatic neonates with polycythemia require
hydration by feeding or parenteral fluids
146
therapy for cyclical vomiting syndrome?
anti-emetics and anti-migraine (as family history of migraine is often present)
147
abnormal acidified glycerol lysis test and eosin-5-maleimide binding test suggest?
Hereditary spherocytosis
148
AD mutation of ankyrin gene?
Hered sphero
149
cough, coryza, conjunctivitis is the typical prodrome for?
measles
150
maculopapular rash that spreads in cephalocaudal pattern suggests?
Measles
151
Transmission route of measles (rubeola)
airborne
152
What precautions should be taken for patients with known or suspected measles?
isolation, airborne precautions (negative pressure room), N95 facemask for health care personnel)
153
measles, varicella, TB are all spread?
airborne
154
influenza and RSV are spread?
droplet
155
Most common presenting symptom for patients with sickle cell trait?
painless hematuria or isothenuria (impaired concentrating ability) that can present as nocturia and polyuria
156
most common congenital cause of aplastic anemia?
Fanconi anemia
157
diagnosis of fanconi anemia is made by?
chromosomal breaks on genetic analysis
158
definitive treatment for aplastic anemia?
hematopoietic stem cell transplant
159
patient with aplastic anemia, short stature, microcephaly, abnormal thumbs, hypogonadism, cafe au lait spots, large freckles, low set ears, strabismus, middle ear abnormalities, deafness, chronic infection has?
Fanconi anemia
160
Name the 3 categories of muscular dystrophy
Duchenne Becker Myotonic
161
Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy are inherited?
X-linked recessive deletion of dystrophin gene on chromosome Xp21
162
mytonic dystrophy is inherited?
AD (CTG expansion)
163
2/3 year old with progressive weakness, gower maneuver, calf pseudohypertrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
164
5-15 year old with mild weakness who shows up to cardiologist in his 50s with cardiomyopathy
Becker muscular dystrophy
165
15 year old with facial weakness, hand grip myotonia (slow relaxation) and dysphagia and testicular atrophy
myotonic dystrophy
166
Inspiratory stridor that worsens in supine position and improves with prone position
laryngomalacia
167
Increased laxity of supraglottic structures
laryngomalacia
168
omega shaped epiglottis?
laryngomalacia
169
first test to order for vascular ring? confirmation with?
barium swallow | MRI with angiography
170
before surgical correction in DS patients with duodenal atresia yu must?
preop cardiac assessment due to high occurance of VSD or ASD
171
sudden vasomotor collapse and skin rash in a patient with meningococcemia?
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome | adrenal hemorrhage
172
2 main causes of acute severe anemia in sickle cell disease?
Aplastic crisis | Splenic sequestration
173
what is the cause of aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease
parvo B19 causes transient arrest of erythropoiesis with decreased retic count
174
Reticulocyte count during splenic sequestration crisis in sickle cell?
high
175
Absence seizures can be accompanied by
simple automatisms (eyelid fluttering, lip smacking)
176
first line treatment for absence seizures?
ethosuximide
177
gait ataxia, loss of reflexes, loss of vibratory sense should make you concerned for?
friedreich ataxia
178
GAA repeat AR condiation
friedreich ataxia
179
most common causes of meningitis in children 1?
strep pneumo and neisseria
180
in infants < 28 days with meningitis who have physiologic hyperbilirubinemia what abx should be used?
cefotaxime instead of ceftriaxone. because ceftriaxone displaces bilirubin from albumin and increases risk of kernicterus
181
when is dexamethasone indicated for meningitis?
reduce risk of sensorineural hearing loss with H. flu
182
hypertonia, hyperphagia, obesity?
Prader-Willi
183
Inheritance of prader willi?
loss of paternal copy of 15q11-q13
184
short stature, intellectual disability, smiling laughter, hand flapping, ataxia, seizures
Angelmann syndrome (deletion of maternal 15q11-q13)
185
most common sites for osteonecrosis in sickle cell patients?
humeral and femoral heads
186
chronic groin, butt, thigh pain that starts hurting only with activity but progresses to rest pain in an adolescent with sickle cell?
osteonecrosis/ avascular necrosis of hip
187
most common causes of meningitis is children < 3 months?
GBS E.coli Listeria HSV
188
causes of meningitis in children 3mo-10 years?
strep pneumo | neisseria
189
>11 year old child- most common cause of meningitis?
neisseria
190
classic injury caused by swinging or pulling child by their arms?
subluxation of radial head
191
how do you fix subluxation of radial head?
full recovery after closed reduction by hyperpronation of forearm OR supination of forearm while flexing the elbow
192
common head complication in premature and underweight neonates?
interventricular hemorrhage
193
what should you think about if you see ventricles swollen with CSF on CT of neonate?
interventricular hemorrhage- impairing absorption of CSF
194
Rash after amoxicillin in a aptient with pharyngitis, fatigue, lymphadenopathy suggests?
Mono- EBV
195
Wiskott-Aldrich
X-linked disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, recurrent infections
196
defect in cytoskeleton regulation leading to microthrombocytopenia?
wiskott-aldrich
197
atresia of jejunum or ileum is usually due to?
vascular accident in utero
198
triple bubble sign and gasless colon on abd x-ray =
gas trapping in stomach duodenum, jejunum
199
most common cause of breast mass in an adolescent?
fibroadenoma
200
how to manage adolescent with suspected fibroadenoma?
re-examine after next menstrual period for decrease in mass size or tenderness
201
Differentil for a solitary, painful, lytic bone lesion in a child with overlying swelling and hypercalcemia?
langerhans cell histiocytosis AND neoplasm
202
What evaluation is imperitive in people with guillain-barre?
Serial spirometry measurements
203
CVID
B-cell differentiation is abnormal. Recurrent resp and GI infections
204
Traction apophysitis of tibial tubercle =
osgood-schlatter
205
defect in CD40 ligand characterized by high IgM, low IgG and IgA and normal lymphocyte populations
hyper IgM syndrome
206
posttussive emesis is characteristic of?
pertussis (whooping cough)
207
what will you see on liver biopsy in a patient with reyes syndrome?
microvesicular fatty infiltration
208
pediatric aspirin use during flu or varicella infection causes?
Reye syndrome
209
pubertal gynecomastia
seen in up to 2/3 of adolescent boys in mid-late puberty (can be unilateral, bilateral, painful or not). dont need treatment. it resolves in few months to 2 years
210
Trendelenburg sign
drooping of contralateral pelvis when patient stands on 1 foot. waddling gait. caused by weakness/paralysis of gluteus medius and minimus muscles (superior gluteal nerve)
211
First line pharmaceutical for enuresis? If patients dont respond to first line?
desmopressin | TCAs
212
two most common posterior fossa tumors in children?
cerebellar astrocytoma | medulloblastoma
213
patient with cystic fibrosis presents with mucosal bleeding, easy bruising, prolonged PT- what is going on?
Fat soluble vitamin deficiency | Vit K deficiency- leading to deficient factors II, 7, 9, 10, C, S
214
what is the mechanism of hematuria in sickle cell patients?
renal papillary necrosis
215
when infants or children are lifted/pulled by the hand or arm what injury can take place?
radial head subluxation
216
Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is highly effective in treating?
gonococcal conjunctivitis
217
chemical conjunctivitis presents what timeline?
< 24 hours
218
Gonococcal conjunctivitis presents what timeline?
2-5 days
219
how do you treat gonococcal conjunctivitis?
Single IM dose of 3rd gen cephalosporin
220
timeline presentation of chlamydial conjunctivitis
5-14 days
221
how do you treat chlamydial conjunctivitis?
PO macrolide
222
complications of gonococcal conjunctivitis?
corneal scarring, ulceration, blindness
223
all infants should receive topical prophylaxis within an hour of birth for?
gonococcal conjunctivitis
224
what antibiotic is indicated for cat bite?
pasteurella multocida
225
sensorineural hearing loss, cardiac defects (PDA), cataracts (leukocoria- white pupillary reflex) =
congenital rubella
226
presentation of rubella in kids?
fever | cephalocaudal spread of maculopapular rash
227
limb hypoplasia, cataracts, distinctive skin lesions and scarrring = ?
congenital varicella
228
chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, diffuse intracranial calcifications?
congenital toxo
229
IgA vasculitis, palpable purpura on lower extremities, abd pain, arthralgias, renal involvement
HSP
230
purpura with normal platelet count?
HSP (IgA vasculitis)
231
isolated thrombocytopenia and petechia presenting after a viral infection?
immune thrombocytopenia
232
Treatment for immune thrombocytopenia?
observation. typically self resolves. IVIG and glucocorticoids if bleeding
233
what is a common way that sickle cell normocytic, hemolytic anemia might change to a macrocytic?
folate consumption due to increased reticulocyte count
234
pathophys of refeeding syndrome?
carb intake stimulates insulin which causes cellular uptake of phosphorus, potassium, magnesium
235
painless hematochezia in a young toddler is likely due to?
Meckel's diverticulum
236
Diagnosis of Meckel's diverticulum is best done with?
technetium-99m pertechnetate scan
237
craniotabes (softening or thinning of skull bones), rachitic rosary (costochondral bumps), genu varum
Vitamin D deficiency rickets
238
Recurrent cystitis in toddlers is often caused by?
constipation
239
cyanosis, dark chocolate colored blood and low pulse ox with normal PaO2 on ABG?
methemoglobinemia
240
antidote for methemoglobinemia?
methylene blue
241
Pralidoxime is antidote for?
cholinergics
242
glucagon is antidote for?
B-blocker, CCB
243
Fomepizole antidote for?
ethylene glycol, methanol ingestion
244
dimercaprol antidote for
lead
245
Treatment of choice for impetigo?
topical mupirocin