Pediatrics Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what should be included on preoperative evaluations of the pediatric population

A
all illnesses
review of organ systems
previous hospitalization
childhood syndromes
medication list
herbal remedies
allergies (abx, latex)
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2
Q

herbal remedies are associated with what?

A

CV instability
coagulation disturbances
prolonged anesthesia
immunosuppression

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3
Q

common uses for Echinacea

A

prophylaxis and treatment of virla, bacterial and fungal infection
pharmacologic effects: stimulation of the immune system, long term use may be immunosuppressive

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4
Q

potential perioperative complications with Echinacea

A

reduced effectiveness of immunosuppressants
potential for wound infection
hepatoxicity

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5
Q

common use for ginseng

A

used to protect the body against stress and restore homeostasis; pharmacologic effects: possible potentiation of y-aminobutyric acid (GABA) transmission

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6
Q

potential perioperative complications with ginseng

A

potentiates sedative effects of anesthetic agents. possible withdrawal syndrome after sudden abstinence; kava-induced hepatoxocity

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7
Q

common use of garlic

A

antihypertensive, lipid lowering agent, anti-thrombus forming; pharmacologic effects: inhibits platelet aggregation (partially irreversibly) in a dose dependent manner. lowers serum lipid and cholesterol levels.

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8
Q

potential perioperative complications with garlic

A

may potentiate other platelet inhibitors, concerns for perioperative bleeding.

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9
Q

common use for st. johns wort (goat weed, amber, hard hay)

A

treatment of depression and anxiety; pharmacologic effects potentiation of GABA neurotransmission

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10
Q

potential perioperative complications with st. johns wort

A

potentiates sedative effects of anesthetic agents. withdrawal-type syndrome with sudden abstinence.

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11
Q

when should herbal remedies be discontinued?

A

2 weeks prior to surgery

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12
Q

active or resolving URI results in what potential complications?

A

increased airway reactivity
risk of atelectasis
mucus plugging
postop hypoxemia

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13
Q

if procedure is emergent and patient has active URI, what is the appropriate course of action?

A

must proceed

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14
Q

if procedure is elective and non urgent, what would alert you to the need to postpone for 4-6 weeks?

A
fever >38.4 C 
malaise
productive cough
wheezing
rhonchi
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15
Q

if patient displays mild symptoms such as nonproductive cough, sneezing, nasal congestion what is the appropriate course of action?

A

proceed if regional or GA with mask; if requires ETT, wait 2-4 weeks

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16
Q

what should be evaluated preop for URI patients

A

hydration status
airway humidification
drugs like anticholinergic and beta agonists (helps airway secretions and hyperreactivity)

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17
Q

proceed with caution in these situations

A

child just has runny nose or is ‘much better’
active and happy child
clear rhinorrhea
clear lungs and symptoms that have leveled off
older child
hardship for parents to be away from work or insurnace will run out
no fever
outpatietn procedure that wont expose child to infectious agent

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18
Q

consider cancellation in these situations

A

parents confirm symtoms: fever, malaise, cough, poor appetitite, new symptoms
lethargic or ill appearing
purulent nasal discharge
wheezing, rales that don’t clear
<1 yr or ex premie
history or reactive airway disease, major operation, oett required
fever >38.5 C
inpatient procedure that exposese child to infection

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19
Q

are routine Hgb and UA indicated for most elective procedures?

A

no

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20
Q

when should Hgb levels be obtained?

A

procedures with potential for blood loss
specific risk factors for hemoglobinopathy
formerly preterm infants
<6mo of age

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21
Q

when should coags be obtained

A

major reconstructive surgeries

T&A

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22
Q

are routine CXRs necessary?

A

no

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23
Q

is pregnancy testing necessary?

A

yes; all those of childbearing age

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24
Q

what are some pharmacokinetic/dynamic considerationsf or the pediatric population?

A
TBW composition
immaturity of metabolic degradation pathways
reduced protein binding
immaturity of BBB
greater blood flow to vessel rich organs
reductions in GFR
smaller FRC
increased MV
immature receptor responses
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25
muscle mass % for preterm infant
15
26
muscle mass % for full term infant
20
27
muscle mass % for adult
50
28
fat % for preterm infant
3
29
fat % for full term infant
12
30
fat % for adult
18
31
TBW for preterm infant
90%
32
TBW for full term infant
80%
33
TBW for adult
60%
34
extracellular fluid for preterm infant
50%
35
extracellular fluid for full term infant
40%
36
extracellular fluid for adult
20%
37
intracellular fluid for preterm infant
40%
38
intracellular fluid for full term infant
40%
39
intracellular fluid for adult
40%
40
administered drug/plasma concentration
volume of distribution
41
lower plasma concentrations (dilute) of water soluble drugs occurs due to what?
larger ECF and greater TBW
42
is a higher or lower dose required for water soluble drugs?
higher
43
higher plasma concentrations for lipid soluble drugs occurs due to what?
decreased fat and muscle
44
what occurs with reduced plasma proteins (infant)
more free drug
45
when do proteins reach adult equivilence?
5-6 mo
46
when are proteins fully funcitonal?
1 year
47
phase I of drug metabolism includes what?
3 enzyme reactions catalyzed by P450 system; oxidative, reduction, and hydrolysis
48
what is the result of phase I metabolism?
water-soluble metabolic product
49
phase II drug metabolism consists of what process?
conjugation (immature at birth)
50
what does conjugation do?
couples drug with substratefor excretion
51
enzyme systems are present at birth but activity is reduced, this does what to drug elimination half lives
increases
52
major objectives of premedication in the pediatric population
``` allay anxiety block autonomic (vagal) reflexes reduce airway secretions produce amnesia provide prophylaxis against pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents facilitate induction of anesthesia provide analgesia if needed ```
53
what should be considered when selecting a drug for premedication?
``` childs age ideal body weight drug history allergic status underlying conditions parent and child expectations child psychological status route; oral, intranasal, parenteral, rectal ```
54
rectal dose of methohexital
20-40 mg/kg
55
IM dose of methohexital
10mg/kg
56
rectal thiopental dose
20-40 mg/kg
57
oral dose of diazepam
0.1-0.5mg/kg
58
rectal dose of midazolam
1 mg/kg
59
oral dose of midazolam
0.25-0.75 mg/kg
60
nasal dose of midazolam
0.2 mg/kg
61
IM dose of midazolam
0.1-0.15 mg/kg
62
oral dose of lorazepam
0.025-0.05 mg/kg
63
oral ketamine dose
3-6 mg/kg
64
nasal dose of ketamine
3 mg/kg
65
rectal dose of ketamine
6-10 mg/kg
66
IM dose of ketamine
2-10mg/kg
67
oral dose of clonidine
0.004 mg/kg
68
oral dose of fentanyl
0.010-0.015 mg/kg (10-15 mcg/kg)
69
IM dose of morphine
0.1-0.2 mg/kg
70
IM dose of meperidine
1-2 mg/kg
71
nasal dose of sufenta
1-3mcg/kg
72
nasal dose of fentanyl
1-2 mcg/kg
73
midazolam half life
2 hrs - short acting
74
advantageof midazolam
rapid uptake and elimination
75
peak plasma concentration for midazolam
10 minutes after intranasal 16 minutes for rectal 53 inutes for oral
76
IV dose of midazolam
0.025-0.1 mg/kg
77
younger child may require higher or lower doses of midazolam?
higher
78
IV dose of morphine for preop pain
0.05-0.1 mg/kg
79
oral dose of fentanyl for premedication
10-15 mcg/kg (onset 10 minutes)
80
intranasal dose of fentanyl usually given when?
after induction
81
intranasal dose of sufentanil for premed
1.5-3 mcg/kg
82
ketamine does what
dissociation of cortex from limbic system | preserves upper airway and respiratory drive
83
disadvantage of ketamine
sialorrhea nystagmus psychological reactions (consider use of midazolam and glyco)
84
use of anticholinergics
prevent bradycardia minimize autonomic vagal effects reduce secretions
85
side effects of anticholinergics
dry mouth, skin erythema, tachycardia, hyperthermia
86
which anticholinergics cross the BBB?
atropine and scopolamine
87
which anticholinergic does not cross the BBB
glycopyrrolate
88
dose of atropine
0.01-0.02 mg/kg
89
glyco dose
0.01 mg/kg
90
are the doses of acetaminophen used in anesthesia toxic?
rarely
91
dose for acetaminophen for myringotomies
10-15 mg/kg
92
dose of acetaminophen for T&A
preop 40 mg/kg + 20 mg rectally in 2 hrs | total 24 hr dose not >100mg/kg
93
ofirmev dose for >13 year old or >50kg
1000 mg q 6 hrs or 650 mg q 4hrs
94
2 yo or < 50 kg
15 mg/kg q 6 hrs or 12.5 mg q 4 hrs