Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Y5 Paediatrics > perinatal medicine > Flashcards

perinatal medicine Flashcards

(91 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is perinatal mortality rate=?

A

stillbirth + death within the first week per 1000 births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is neonatal mortality rate?

A

deaths of live born infant within 4 weeks after birth per 1000 births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a neonate?

A

Child <28 days old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is low birth weight?

A

<2500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is very low birth weight?

A

<1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is extremely low birth weight?

A

<1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is small for gestational age?

A

birthweight <10th centile for gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is large for gestational age?

A

birthweight >90th centile for gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are symptoms of foetal hyperthyropidism?

A

foetal tachy on CTG trace

foetal goitre on USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does anti phospholipid syndrome cause?

A 
recurrent miscarriage 
IUGR 
PET 
placental abruption 
preterm delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why does maternal Graves affect the foetus?

A

Because the thyroid stimulating antibodies cross the placenta
They stimulate the foetal thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are symptoms of foetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Saddle shaped nose
Maxillary hyperplasia
absent philtrum
short upper lip

growth restriction
developmental delay
cardiac defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can an epidural cause to the mother during labour?

A

it can cause a fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do vitamin A/retinoids cause on the foetus?

A

increased spontaneous abortion

abnormal face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does warfarin cause on the foetus?

A

interferes with cartilage formation (nasal hypoplasia)
cerebral haemorrhage
microcephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the risks to the foetus with drug abuse?

A

prematurity
growth restriction
drug withdrawal
cocaine: placental abruption, preterm delibery, cerebral infarction
IVDU: increased risk of contracting Hep B, C, HIBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the effect of rubella on the newborn?

A

TRIAD:

  • cataracts
  • deafness
  • congenital heart disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does the effect of rubella on the foetus change based on gestation time?

A

infection < 8 wks : cataracts, deafness, heart disease in 80%
13-16 weeks: impaired hearing in 30%
>20 weeks: no consequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do you manage rubella infection in pregnancy?

A

Notify health protection unity
Test for Parvovirus 19
NO TREATMENT - advise rest and paracetamol for sx relief
Advise to avoid contact with pregnant women for 6 days since rash onset
Refer urgently to obstetrics for risk assessment and counselling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most common congenital infection ?

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What occurs to each proportion of foetuses affected with CMV, and how?

A

90% are fine
5% have clinical features at birth (hepatosplenomeg, petechiae), neurodevelopmental disabilityes
5% develop problems in later life (sensorineural hearing loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is screenign and vaccination like for CMV?

A

NONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is management of newborns with CMV?

A

IV ganciclovir

or IV vanganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do mothers get infected with toxoplasma?

A

COntact with faeces from infected cat
OR
undercooked meat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What clinical features will a foetus develop from toxoplasma?
retinopathy cerebral calcification hydrocephalus >> long term neuro disabilities
26
What is mx of newborns with toxo?
pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + calcium folinate
27
When is risk of VZV passing from mother to foetus highest?
Around labout (five days pre to 2 days post)
28
How do you manage VZV in newborn?
VZIG to mother if within 10 days from exposure | acyclovir tx
29
How do you manage a mother with syphilis
ensure complete treatment 1 month prior to delivery | if in doubt treat foetus with penicillin
30
What is asphyxia?
lack of oxygen to foetus during labour / delivery | can cause brain injury / death
31
What is primary apnoea?
Once the foetus is deprived of oxygen in utero, it will attempt to breathe This is unsuccessful as still in utero Heart rate is maintained
32
What is secondary apnoea?
The period that follows primary apnoea and irregular gasping HR and BP drop
33
What does a foetus delivered in secondary apnoea need help with?
lung expansion > positive pressure ventilation / tracheal tube
34
What are causes of continous apnoea?
Placental abruption, cord prolapse
35
Is asphyxia in utero common?
yes, during labour and delivery | but it is intermittent, due to frequent uterine contractions
36
What is the Apgar score used for?
To describe baby's condition at 1 and 5 minutes after delivery or every 5 minutes if condition is poor
37
What ate the 5 components of the apgar score'
``` HR Resp effort muscle tone reflex irritability colour ```
38
What numbering is the apgar score out of
0-2 for each section
39
What are patterns of growth restriction?
Asymmetrical or symmetrical
40
what are causes for LGA baby?
gestational diabetes congenital (beckwith Wiedeman syndrome) physiologically large
41
What are consequences for the baby of being LGA?
``` Birth asphyxia Breathing difficulty from an enlarged tongue Birth trauma (shoulder dystocia) Hypoglycaemia (due to hyperinsulinism) Polycythaemia ```
42
When is the routine examination of newborn performed?
24h after birth
43
What is a post-wine stain (naevus flammus)?
vascualr malformation of capillaries in the dermis
44
What is a strawberry naevus?
``` a CAVERNOSUS HAEMANGIOMA appears in 1st month of life (not at birth) may be mutliple gradually regresses no treatment ```
45
Why must midline abnormalty over spine e.g. hair tuft be checked?
may indicate abnormality of CNS
46
What is DDH?
Developmental dysplasia of the hip Abnormality of hip joint where acetabulum does not fully cover the femoral head This results in risk of hip dislocation
47
What are RF for DDH?
girls | breech
48
What are two tests for DDH?
``` Barlow maneuvre (dislocate hip posteriorly) Ortolani maneuvre (relocate dislocated hip back into acetabulum) ```
49
How do you manage DDH?
splint with Pavlik harness
50
What does Vit K deficiency cause?
haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
51
What is haemorrhagic disease of the newbortn?
In most infants, mild bleeding (bruising, haematemesis, melaena) In some: intracranial haemorrhage
52
What are RF for haemorrhagic disease of newborn?
breast feeding (poor source of vit K compared to formula) Anticonvulsants (impair vit K synthesis)
53
How must you administer sufficient vitamin K to foetus?
Give IM vit K at birth | Overall 3 doses in first 4 qeeks of life
54
What does Guthrie test screen for?
``` Phenylketonuria Hypothyroidism Sickle cell and thalassaemia Cystic fibrosis MCAD deficiency ```
55
What is the maternal mortality rate?
death in pregnancy + labour + 6 weeks postnatal
56
How do you rate an apgar score
0-3 very low 4-6 moderately low 7-10 good
57
What do mongolian blue spots look like
blue / black macular discoloration at the base of the spine and on the buttocks Commonly in afrocaribbean / asian babies
58
How do you manage mongolian blue spots
None Fade slowly over first few yeara
59
What are milia?
White pimples on nose and cheeks from retention of keratin and sebaceous material
60
What is an umbilical hernia epidemiology?
Common in children, likely found on newborn exam | Should close by the age of 5
61
HOw does an umbilical hernia occur
due to weakness of the umbilical ring The umbilical ring allows passage of vessels through abdo wall muscle between the mother and the foetus After birth, the ring remains, with spontaneous closure at 5 years old
62
How does an umbilical hernia present
Reducible, painless bulge at umbilicus | Prominent on strain
63
How do you manage infant with umbilical hernia
if <3 years old and healthy: no tx required, should resolve, safety net parents If >3 yo: refer to surgeon for elective repair ** do not attempt to tape things over it to close the hernia
64
What is failure to thrive?
Weight below 5th centile on multiple occasions OR weight decelaration across 2 major percentile lines
65
What is oesophageal atresia?
congenital defect in which upper oesophagus ends blindly and is not connected to the lower oesophagus
66
Why does oesophageal atresia occur
due to abnormal debeòlopment of the tracheoesophageal septum
67
How do you classify oesophageal atresia
Gross Classification (A-E)
68
What is the most common type of oesophageal atrasia
Type C - oesophageal atresia with fistula which connects to trachea distally
69
How does oesophageal atresia present
Cyanotic attack Foaming at mouth Cough Depending on type- aspiration pneumonia, gastric distension
70
How do you investigate oesophageal atresia
Feeding tube cannot pass | X ray
71
What do you see on x ray of oesophageal atresia
air filled pouch at T3
72
How does oesophageal atresia present in utero
POLYHYDRAMNIOS
73
How do you manage oesophageal atresia
Do NOT feed orally Suction tube in oesophagus Antibiotics if aspirating SURGERY WITHIN 24h
74
What other things must you be aware of in baby with oesopahgeal atrasia
Likelyhood of other congenital malformations VACTERL
75
What does VACTERL stand for
Vertebral, Anorectal, Cardiac, Trachea-Oesophageal, Renal, Radial LImb
76
When will small bowel obstruction vomiting NOT be bile stained
When obstruction is BEFORE ampulla of vater
77
What are causes of small bowel obstruction
Duodenal / Jejunal / Ileum - atresia / stenosis (Down's) Malrotation with volvulus Meconium ileus Meconium plug
78
What is meconium ileus
thick insippated meconium | becomes impacted on lower ileum
79
What is the single biggest RF for meconium ileus
CF
80
What is meconium plyg
COngealed meconium causing lower intestinal obstruction
81
How do you manage meconium plug
passes spontaneously
82
How do you manage a meconium ileus
Dislodge Using Gastrograffin contrast medium
83
What are two key causes to laarge bowel obstruction in neonates
Hirschprung / Rectal atresi
84
What is another name for exomphalos
omphalocele
85
What is exomphalos
Abdominal contents protrude through umbilical ring | Coevred. by transparent sac (amniotic membrane + peritoneum)
86
What is exomphalos associarted with
Major congenital abnormalities | e.g. Down, Beckwith Wiederman
87
How do you manage exomphalos
ECS + staged repair
88
What is gastroschisis
Bowel protrudes through defect in anterior abdominal w all NO covering sac
89
What is gastroscisis associated with
NOTHING | No association with congenital abnormalities
90
WHat is the risk in gastroscisis
dehydration. | protein loss q
91
How do you manage gastroscisis
vaginal delivery | immediate repair

Y5 Paediatrics (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions