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Flashcards in Pharm 1 USMLE Deck (214):
1

28 y/o chemist presents w/ MPTP exposuree. what NT is depleted

dopamine

2

woman taking tetracycline exhibits photosensitivity. What are the clinical manifestations?

rash on sun exposed retions of body

3

African American man who goes to Africa develops a hemolytic anemia after taking malarial prophylaxis. what is the enzyme deficiency

glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

4

farmer presents w/ dyspnea, salivation, miosis, diarrhea, cramping, and blurry vision. What caused this, and what is the MOA

insecticide poisoning; inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

5

27 y/o female w/ hx of psych illness now has urinary retention due to a neuroleptic. What do you tx it with?

bethancechol

6

pt w/ recent kidney transplant is on cyclosporine for immunosuppression. Requires antifungal agent for candidiasis. What antifungal drug would result in cyclosporine toxicity

ketoconazole

7

pt is on carbamazepine. What routine workup should always be done?

LFTs

8

23 y/o female who is on rifampin for TB prophylaxis and on birth control (estrogen) gets pregnant. why

rifampin augments estrogen metabolism in the liver, rendering it less effective

9

what is the volume of distribution

relates the amount of drug in the body to the plasma concentration

=amount of drug in body/plasma drug concentration

10

Vd of plasma protein bound drugs can be altered by dzs in these 2 organ systems

liver and kidney

11

what is clearance (CL)

relates the rate of elimination to the plasma concentration

Cl=rate of elimination of drug/plasma drug concentration

12

what is the half life (t1/2)

the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by 1/2 during elimination (or constant infusion). A drug infused at a constant rate reaches about 94% of steady state after 4 t(1/2_

t(1/2)=0.7xVd/Cl

13

what is concentration of drug in the body after 1 half life

50%

14

what is concentration of drug in the body after 2 half lives

75%

15

what is concentration of drug in the body after 3 half lives

87.5%

16

what is concentration of drug in the body after 4 half lives

~94%

17

Cp =

target plasma concentration

18

F=

bioavalability

19

Loading dose=

Cp x Vd/F

20

maintenance dose=

CpxCL/F

21

what happens to the loading dose and maitenance dose in pts will impared renal or hepatic fxn

loading dose remains the same
maitenence dose is decreased

22

this order elimination describes a constant rate of elimination regardless of C (i.e. constant AMOUNT of drug eliminated per unit time). Cp decreases linearly with time. E.g., etoh, phenytoin, and asprin (at high or toxic concentrations)

zero order elimination
image. p. 195

23

this order elimination describes a rate of elimination proportional to the drug concentration (i.e., constant FRACTION of drug eliminated per unit time). Cp decreases exponentially with time.

first order elimination
image. p. 195

24

In drugs with 1st order kinetics rate of elimination is ________ plasma concentration (Cp).
image. p. 195

proportional to

25

In drugs with 0 order kinetics rate of elimination is ________ plasma concentration (Cp).
image. p. 195

independant of

26

give some examples of phase I metabolism

reduction, oxidation, hydrolysis.

27

describe the metabolites of phase I metabolism(aka are they active)

slightly polar, water soluble, often still active

28

give some examples of phase II metabolism

acetylation, glucuronidation, sulfation

29

describe the metabolites of phase II metabolism(aka are they active)

yields very polar, inactive metabolites (renally excreted

30

what pump is key in phase I metabolism

cytocrome P-450

31

by what method are drugs metabolized in phase II metabolism

conjugation

32

what phase of metabolism do geriatric pts lose first

phase I

33

competitive antagonist shifts the curve _______

to the right

34

noncompetitive antagonist shifts the curve ______

downward

35

EC50:

dose causing 50% of maximal effect.

36

Kd:

concentration of drug required to bind 50% of receptor sites

37

image p. 196-percent of maximum efect as a fx of dose

in a system with spare receptors, the EC50 is lower than the Kd, indicating that to achieve 50% of maximum effect, <50% of the receptors must be activated.

38

image p. 197-percent of maximum efect as a fx of dose

comparison of dose-response curves for a full agonist and a partial agonist. The partial agonist acts on the same receptor system as the full agonist but cannot produce an equivalently large effect (it has lower maximal efficacy) no matter how much the dose is increased. A partial agonist may be more potent (as in the figure), less potent, or equally potent; potency is an indipendant factor

39

what is the therapeutic index

mean toxic dose/mean effective dose

TD50/ED50

high TI is good

40

on average how long does it take for a drug to be in In-vitro stidues

2 yts

41

on average how long does it take for a drug to be in animal stidues

2 years

42

this phase of clinical testing for a drugs looks at if it is safe, and the pharmakinetics

phase 1

43

this phase of clinical testing for a drugs looks at if it works in pts

phase 2

44

this phase of clinical testing for a drugs looks at does it work, in a double blind study

phase 3

45

this phase drug development involves postmarketing surveillance

phase 4

46

On average how many years of drug development does it take to file a NDA (new drug application)

9

47

how long after filing of application does patent expire on a drug and generics become available

20 years

48

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: α1

increases vascular smooth mm contraction

G protien class: q

49

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: α2

Decrease sympathetic outflow, decrease insulin release

G protien class: i

50

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: ϐ1

increase heart rate, increase contractility, increase renin release, increase lipolysis, incease aqueous humor formation

G protien class: s

51

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: ϐ2

vasodilation, bronchodilation, increase glucagon release

G protien class: s

52

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: M1

CNS
G protien class: q

53

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: M2

decrease heart rate

G protein class: i

54

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: M3

increase exocrine gland secretions

G protein class: q

55

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: D1

relaxes renal vascular sm mm

G protein class: s

56

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: D2

modulates NT release, esp in the brain

G protein class:i

57

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: H1

increase nasal and bronchial mucus production, contraction of bronchioles, pruritis, and pain

G protein class:q

58

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: H2

increase gastric acid secretion

G-protein class:s

59

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: V1

increase vascular sm mm contraction

G-protein class:q

60

given the receptor, give the G-protein class and the major fx: V2

increase H2O permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney
G-protein class:s

61

release of NE from a sympathetic nn ending is modulated by ______, acting on these receptors.

NE, ACH, ATN II, othr substances

presynaptic α2 autoreceptors

62

Bethanechol is a cholinomimetic with direct agonist actions. Give its clinical applications

postop and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention

it acts by activating Bowel & Bladder smooth mm. It is resistant to AChE

63

Carbachol, pilocarpine is a cholinomimetic with direct agonist actions. Give its clinical applications

Used for glaucoma

it activates ciliary mm of eye (open angle), pupillary sphicter (narrow angle); It is resistant to AChe

64

Neostigmine is a cholinomimetic with indirect agonist actions, it acts on anticholinesterases. Give its clinical applications

postop & neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of neuromuscular jxn blockade (postop)

It acts by inceasing endogenous ACh

65

Pyridostigmine is a cholinomimetic with indirect agonist actions, it acts on anticholinesterases. Give its clinical applications

used to tx myasthenia gravis

It acts by inceasing endogenous ACh, thereby increasing strength

66

Edrophonium is a Pyridostigmine is a cholinomimetic with indirect agonist actions, it acts on anticholinesterases. Give its clinical applications

myasthenia gravis (short acting)

It acts by inceasing endogenous ACh

67

physostigmine is a cholinomimetic with indirect agonist actions, it acts on anticholinesterases. Give its clinical applications

glaucoma (crosses blood brain barrier) and atropine OD

works by increasing endogenous ACh

68

Echothiophateis a cholinomimetic with indirect agonist actions, it acts on anticholinesterases. Give its clinical applications

Glaucoma

works by increasing endogenous ACh

69

give some signs of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning

Diarrhea (abd cramping), Urination, Miosis, Bronchospasm, Bradycardia, Exitation of skeletal mm and CNS, Lacrimation, Sweating, and Salivation,

mneu: DUMBBELSS
or SLUD effects

70

what can cause cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning

Parathion and other organophosphates

71

how do you tx cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning

Antidote--atropine (muscarinic antagonist) plus pralidoxime (chemical antagonist used to regenerate active cholinesterase)

72

Atropine, homotropine, and tropicamide are cholinoreceptor blockers taht act on they eye to do what?

produce mydriasis and cycloplegia

73

Benzotropine is a cholinoreceptor blocker that acts on the CNS to tx?

Parkinson's dz

74

Scopolamine is a cholinoreceptor blocker that acts on the CNS to tx?

Motion skickness

75

Ipratropium is a cholinoreceptor blocker that acts on the Respiratory system to tx?

Asthma, COPD

76

Methscopolamine, oxybutin, glycopyrrolateis a cholinoreceptor blocker that acts on the GU system to tx?

urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms

77

atropine is a muscarinic _______

antagoinist

mneu: blocks SLUD:
salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defication

78

give the effect atropine would have on the eye

pupil dilation, cycloplegia

79

give the effect atropine would have on the airway

decrease secretions

80

give the effect atropine would have on the stomach

decrease acid secretion

81

give the effect atropine would have on the gut

decrease motility

82

give the effect atropine would have on the bladder

decrease urgency in cystitis

83

what would an atropine toxicity look like

increase body temp; rapid pulse; dry mouth; dry, flushed skin; cycloplegia; constipation; disorientation

SE:
Hot as a hare
Dry as a bone
Red as a beet
Blind as a bat
Mad as a hatter

84

watch out cuz atropine can cause this in the elderly

acute angle-closure glaucoma

85

watch out cuz atropine can cause this in men with BPH

urinary retention

86

watch out cuz atropine can cause this in infants

hyperthermia

87

mechanism of hexamethonium

nicotinic ACh receptor antagoinist

88

hexamethonium clinical use

ganglionic blocker. Used in experimental models to prevent vagal reflex responses to changes in blood pressue -- e.g., prevents reflex bradycardia caused by NE

89

this catecholamine sympathomimetic is a derect general agonist (α1α2β1β2). It is used for open angle glaucoma, asthma, and hypotension

epinephrine

90

this catecholamine sympathomimetic acts on α1α2β1. It is used for hypotension (but decreases renal perfusion)

NE

91

this catecholamine sympathomimetic acts on β1=β2. It is used for AV block (rarely)

Isoproterenol

92

this catecholamine sympathomimetic acts on D1=D2>β>α. It is used for shock(increases renal perfusion), heart failure

Dopamine

93

this catecholamine sympathomimetic acts on β1>B2. It is used for shock and heart failure

dobutamine

94

this sympathomimetic is an indirect general agonist which releases stored catecholamines. It is used for narcolepsy, obesity, ADD.

amphetamine

95

this sympathomimetic is an indirect general agonist which releases stored catecholamines. It is used for nasal decongestion, urinary incontinance, hypotension

ephedrine

96

this sympathomimetic acts on α1>α2. It is used as a pupil dilator, vasoconstrictor, and nasal decongestor.

phenylephrine

97

this sympathomimetic acts on β2>β1. It is used for asthma

albuterol, terbutaline

98

this sympathomimetic is an indirect general agonist which releases stored and uptake inhibitor . It causes vasoconstriction and local anesthesia

cocaine

99

this sympathomimetic is a centrally acting α-agonist which decreases central adrenergic outflow. It is used for hypertension, especially with no renal dz (no decrease in blood flow to the kidney)

clonadine
α-methyldopa

100

this nonselective α-blocker is used for pheochromocytoma. Toxicity can cause orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia.

Phenoxybenzamine (irreversible) and pentolamine (reversable)

101

This α1 selective blocker is used for hypertension, urinary retension in BPH. Toxicities include 1st dose orthostatic hypotension, idzziness, headache.

prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin

102

this α2 selective blocker is used for depression. Toxicity includes sedation, increased serum cholesterol and increased appetite

mirtazapine

103

image. p. 204- effects of α-blockers on blood pressure responses to epi and phenylephrine.

the peinephrine response exhibits a reversal of the mean BP change, from a net increase (the α response) to a net decrease (the B2 response). The response to phenylephrine is supressed but not reversed because the phenylephrine is a "pure" α agonist w/out B action

104

name some beta blockers

propranolol, metoprolol, atenolol, nadolol, timolol, pindolol, esmolol, labetalol

105

how do the β blockers effect hypertension

decrease cardiac output, decrease renin secretion

106

how do the β blockers effect angina pectoris

decreasee HR & contractility, resulting in less O2 consumption

107

how do the β blockers effect MI

decrease mortality

108

how do the β blockers effect SVT (propranolol, esmolol only)

decrease AV conduction velocity

109

how do the β blockers effect CHF

slows progression of chronic failure

110

how do the β blockers effect glaucoma(timolol only)

decreases secretion of aqueous humor

111

give some toxicities of β blockers

impotensce, exacerbation of asthma, bradycardia, AV block, CHF, sedation, sleep alteration; use w/ caution in dbts

112

give the nonselective (B1=B2) B blockers

propranolol, timolol, nadolol, pindolol (partial agonist), and labetalol (partial agonist)

113

give the B1 selective (B1>B2) B blockers

Acebutolol (partial agonist), Betaxolol, Esmolol (short acting), Atenolol, Metoprolol

mneu: A BEAM of B1 blockers

114

this Rx for glaucoma is an α agonist. It acts by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor. Its SE include mydriasis, stinging. This drug should not be used in closed- angle glaucoma

epinephrine

115

this Rx for glaucoma is an α agonist. It acts by decreasing aqueous humor synthesis. It does not cause and pupillary or vision changes.

Brimonidine

116

this Rx for glaucoma is a β blocker. It acts by decreasing aqueous humor secretion. It does not cause and pupillary or vision changes.

timolol, betaxolol, carteolol

117

this Rx for glaucoma is a diuretic. It acts by decreasing aqueous humor secretion due to decreased HCO3- via inhibition of carbonic anhydrase. It does not cause and pupillary or vision changes.

Acetazolamide

118

this Rx for glaucoma is a cholinomimetic. It acts by increaseing outflow of aqueous humor by contracting the ciliary mm and opening the trabecular meshwork. SE include miosis and cyclospasm

pilocarpine, carbachol, physostigmine, echothiophate

119

this Rx for glaucoma is a prostaglandin. It acts by increaseing outflow of aqueous humor. SE include darkening of the iris (browning)

lantanoprost (PGF2α0

120

what is the anitidote/tx for acetaminophen overdose

N-acetylcysteine

121

what is the anitidote/tx for salicylate overdose

alkanize urine, dialysis

122

what is the anitidote/tx for anticholinesterases, organophosphatesoverdose

atropine, pralidoxime

123

what is the anitidote/tx for antimuscarinic, anticholinergic agentsoverdose

physostigmine salicylate

124

what is the anitidote/tx for B-blocker overdose

glucagon

125

what is the anitidote/tx for digatis overdose

stop dig, normalize K+, lidocaine, anti-dig Fab fragments, Mg++

126

what is the anitidote/tx for iron overdose

deferoxamine

127

what is the anitidote/tx for lead overdose

CaEDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine

128

what is the anitidote/tx for arsenic, mercury, gold overdose

Dimercaprol (BAL), succimer

129

what is the anitidote/tx for copper, arsenic, gold overdose

penicillamine

130

what is the anitidote/tx for cyanide overdose

nitrite, hydroxycobalamin, thiosulfate

131

what is the anitidote/tx for methemoglobin overdose

methylene blue

132

what is the anitidote/tx for CO overdose

100% O2, hyperbaric O2

133

what is the anitidote/tx for methanol, ethylene glycol (antifreeze) overdose

ethanol, dialysis, fomepizole

134

what is the anitidote/tx for opiods overdose

naloxone/naltrexone

135

what is the anitidote/tx for benzodiazepines overdose

flumazenil

136

what is the anitidote/tx for TCAs overdose

NaHCO3 (nonspecific

137

what is the anitidote/tx for heparin overdose

protamine

138

what is the anitidote/tx for warfarin overdose

vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma

139

what is the anitidote/tx for tPA, streptokinase overdose

aminocaproic acid

140

give some signs of lead poisioning

Lead Lines on gingivae and on epiphyses of long bones on x-ray

Encephalopathy and Erythrocyte basophilic stippling

Abdominal colic and sideroblastic Anemia

Drops--wrist and foot drop

mneu: LEAD

141

what is the tx for Lead poisoning in adults and kids

adults: Dimercarol and EDTA

kids: Succimer

mneu: It "sucks" to be a kid with lead poisoning

142

when someone ODs on a weak acid (phenobarbital, methotrexate, aspirine) what do you do

alkalinize urine with bicarb to increase clearance

143

when someone ODs on weak bases (e.g., amphetamines) what do you do

acidify urine to increase clearance (give NH4Cl)

144

someone comes in with atropine like side effects. What do you suspect

tricyclics

145

someone comes in with cardiac toxicity. what do you suspect?

doxorubicin (adriamycin), daunorubicin

146

someone comes in with coronary vasospasm. what do you suspect?

cocaine

147

someone comes in with cutaneous flushing. what do you suspect?

niacin, Ca++ channel blockers, adenosine, vancomycin

148

someone comes in with torsades de pointes. what do you suspect?

class III (sotalol, class IA (quinidine) antiarrhythmics, cisapride

149

someone comes in with agranulocytosis. what do you suspect?

clozapine, carbamazepine, colchicine

150

someone comes in with aplastic anemia . what do you suspect?

chloramphenicol, benzene, NSAIDS

151

someone comes in with grey baby syndrome. what do you suspect?

chloramphenicol

152

someone comes in with hemolysis in G6PD-deficient pts. what do you suspect?

sulfonamines, isoniazid (INH, aspirin, ibuprofen, primaquine, nitrofurantoine

153

someone comes in with thrombotic complications. what do you suspect?

OCPs (e.g., estrogens and progestins)

154

someone comes in with cough. what do you suspect?

ACE inhibitors (losartan-no cough)

155

someone comes in with pulmonary fibrosis. what do you suspect?

bleomycin, amiodarone, busulfan

156

someone comes in with acute cholestatic hepatitis. what do you suspect?

macrolides

157

someone comes in with focal to massive hepatic necrosis. what do you suspect?

halothane, valproic acid, acetaminophen, amanita phalloides

158

someone comes in with hepatitis. what do you suspect?

INH

159

someone comes in with pseudomembranous colitis. what do you suspect?

clindamycin, ampicillin

160

someone comes in with adrenocortical insufficency. what do you suspect?

glucocorticoid withdrawal (HPA supression

161

someone comes in with gynomastia. what do you suspect?

Spironolactone, Digitalis, Cimetidine, Alcoholism, estrogens, Ketoconazole

mneu: Some Drugs Create Awesom Knockers

162

someone comes in with hot flashes. what do you suspect?

tamoxifin

163

someone comes in with gingival hyperplasia. what do you suspect?

phenytoin

164

someone comes in with osteoporosis. what do you suspect?

corticosteroids, heparin

165

someone comes in with photosensitivity. what do you suspect?

Sulfonamindes, Amiodarone, Tetracycline

mneu: SAT for a photo

166

someone comes in with SLE like syndrome. what do you suspect?

Hydralazine, INH, Procainamide, Phenytoin

mneu: it's not HIPP to have lupus

167

someone comes in with tendonitis, tendon rupture, and cartilage damage (kids). what do you suspect?

fluoroquinolones

168

someone comes in with Fanconi's syndrome. what do you suspect?

expired tetracycline

169

someone comes in with interstitial nephritis. what do you suspect?

methacillin

170

someone comes in with hemorrhagic cystitis. what do you suspect?

cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

171

someone comes in with cinchonism. what do you suspect?

quinidine, quinine

172

someone comes in with diabetes insipidus. what do you suspect?

lithium, demeclocycline

173

someone comes in with seizures. what do you suspect?

bupropion, imipenem/cilastin

174

someone comes in with tarditive dyskinesia. what do you suspect?

antipsychotics

175

someone comes in with disulfram-like reaction. what do you suspect?

metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, procarbazine, sulfonyurease

176

someone comes in with nephrotoxicity/neurotoxicity. what do you suspect?

polymyxins

177

someone comes in with nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity. what do you suspect?

aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, cysplatin

178

P-450 inducers

Quinidine
Barbituates
Phenytoin
Rifampin
Griseofulvin
Carbamazapine

mneu: Queen Barb takes Phen-Phen and Refuses Greasy Carbs

179

P-450 inhibitors

Isoniazid
Sulfonamides
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Erythromycin
Grapefruit juice
St. John's wort

mneu: Inhibitors Stop Cyber Kids from Eating GrapefruitS

180

ethylene glycol is transformed into oxalic acid by alcohol dehydrogenase which can have this result

acidosis, nephrotoxicity

181

methanol is transformed into formaldehyde and formic acid by alcohol dehydrogenase which can have this result

severe acidosis, retinal damage

182

ethanol is transformed into acetic acid and acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase. Acetaldehyde can have this result

nausea, vomiting, headache, hypotension

183

ethanol is a competitive substrate for this hormone

ADH

184

this herbal agent is sometimes used for the common cold. Toxicities can be GI distress, dizziness, and headache

echinacea

185

this herbal agent is sometimes used as a stimulent. Toxicities can be CNS and CV stimulation, arrhythmias, stroke, and seizures at high doses

ephedra

186

this herbal agent is sometimes used for migranes. Toxicities can be GI distress, ulcers, antiplatelet actions

feverfew

187

this herbal agent is sometimes used for the intermittent claudication. Toxicities can be GI distress, anxiety, insomnia, headache, and antiplatelet action

ginkgo

188

this herbal agent is sometimes used for anxiety. Toxicities can be GI distress, sedation, ataxia, hepatotoxicity, phototoxicity, dermatotoxicity

Kava

189

this herbal agent is sometimes used for viral hepatitis. Toxicities can be loose stools

milk thistle

190

this herbal agent is sometimes used for BPH. Toxicities can be GI distress, decreased libido, hypertension

Saw palmetto

191

this herbal agent is sometimes used for mild to moderate depression. Toxicities can be GI distress, phototoxicity, serotonin syndrome with SSRI, inhibits P-450 system

St. Johns wart

192

this herbal agent is sometimes used for symptomatic improvement in females with SLE or AIDS. Toxicities can include androgenization (premenopausal women), estrogenic effects (postmenopausal), feminization (young men)

Dehydroepiandrosterone

193

this herbal agent is sometimes used for jet lag and sinsomnia. Toxicities can be sedation, suppresses midcycle LH, hypoprolactemia

melatonin

194

drugs ending in -afil, are usually for . . .

erectile dysfunction

e.g., Sildenafil

195

drugs ending in -ane, are usually for . . .

inhalational general anesthetic

e.g., halothane

196

drugs ending in -azepam, are usually . . .

benzodiazepines

e.g. diazepam

197

drugs ending in -azine, are usually . . .

phenothiazines (neuroleptics, antiemetics)

e.g., chlorpromazine

198

drugs ending in -azole, are usually . . .

antifungals

e.g., ketoconazole

199

drugs ending in -barbital, are usually . . .

barbiturates

e.g., phenobarbital

200

drugs ending in -caine, are usually . . .

local anesthetics

e.g., lidocaine

201

drugs ending in -cillin, are usually . . .

penicillins

e.g., methicillin

202

drugs ending in -cycline, are usually . . .

antibiotic, protein synthesis inhibitors

e.g., tetracycline

203

drugs ending in -ipramine, are usually . . .

TCA

e.g., imipramine

204

drugs ending in -navir, are usually . . .

protease inhibitors

e.g., saquinavir

205

drugs ending in -olol, are usually . . .

Beta agonist

e.g., propranolol

206

drugs ending in -operidol, are usually . . .

Butyrophenones (neuroleptics)

e.g., haloperidol

207

drugs ending in -oxins, are usually . . .

cardiac glycosides (inotropic agents)

e.g., digoxin

208

drugs ending in -phylline, are usually . . .

methylxanthine

e.g., theophylline

209

drugs ending in -pril, are usually . . .

ACE inhibitors

e.g., Captopril

210

drugs ending in -terol, are usually . . .

beta2 agonist

e.g., albuterol

211

drugs ending in -tidine, are usually . . .

H2 antagonist

e.g., cemetidine

212

drugs ending in -triptyline, are usually . . .

TCA

e.g., amitriptyline

213

drugs ending in -tropin, are usually . . .

pituitary hormone

e.g., somatotropin

214

drugs ending in -zosin, are usually . . .

alpha1 antagonist

e.g., prazosin