pharm cards Flashcards

(140 cards)

2
Q

List the 4 most important pharmacokinetics equations: (Vd, Cl, LD, MD)

A

1) Vd = (amount of drug given)/([drug] in plasma)2) Cl = (Vd X 0.7)/t1/23) LD = Css X Vd4) MD = Css X Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

competitive vs noncompetitive inhibitors:1) Resemble substrate?2) Overcome by increased [S]?3) Bind active site?4) Effect on Vmax?5) Effect on Km?6) Pharmacodynamics: effect on potency? efficacy?

A

Competitive inhibitors:1) Yes2) Yes3) Yes4) Vmax does not change5) Km increases6) decreased potency (increased Km, decreased potency); no effect on efficacyNoncompetitive inhibitors:1) No2) No3) No4) Vmax decreases5) Km does not change6) decreased efficacy (decreased Vmax, decreased efficacy); no effect on potentcy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Zero-order elimination

A

rate of elimination of drug is constant, regardless of the plasma concentration; Cp decreases linearly with time.Examples = PEA: Phenytoin, Ethanol, Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

First-order elimination

A

Rate of elimination is proportional to drug concentration (a constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit time); the plasma concentration decreases exponentially with time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Phase I vs Phase 2 metabolism:Which phase do geriatric patients lose first?

A

Phase I: -reduction, oxydation, hydrolysis-usually yields slightly polar, water-soluble metabolites (often still active)-cytochrome P-450Phase II:-GAS: Glucuronidation, Acetylation, Sulfation-usually yields very polar, inactive metabolites (renally excreted)*Geriatric patients lose phase 1 first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Efficacy vs Potency

A

Efficacy: -proportional to Vmax (increase Vmax, increase efficacy)-maximal effect a drug can produce-high efficacy drugs: analgesics, antibiotics, antihistamines, decongestantsPotency:-inversely proportional to Km (increase Km, decrease potency)-amount of drug needed for a given effect-increased potency, increased affinity for receptor-highly potent drugs: chemo drugs, anti-hypertensive drugs, antilipid drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pharmacodynamics: Effects of adding competitive antagonists, noncompetitive antagonists, and partial agonists to an agonist on pharmacodynamic curves:

A

1) Competitive antagonist + agonist –> shift curve to the right = decreased potency (increased Km); no change on efficacy2) Noncompetitive antagonist plus agonist: shift curve down = decreased efficacy (decreased Vmax); no effect on potency3) Partial agonist: acts at the same site as a full agonist, but with reduced maximal effect. Get decreased efficacy (decreased Vmax); potency is variable, can be either increased or decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Therapeutic Index: What is it? What’s the equation? Is it safer to have a higher or lower TI?*Examples of drugs with low TI?

A

TI = measurement of drug safetyTI = LD50/ED50 = median lethal dose/median effective dose(“TILE”)Safer drugs have higher TI valuesExamples of drugs with low TI (must monitor these patients!):-Phenobarbital-Lithium-Digoxin-Coumadin/Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nicotinic vs Muscarinic ACh receptors

A

Nicotininc ACh receptors = Na+/K+ channelsMuscarinic ACh receptors = G-protein-coupled receptors, act through 2nd messengers; 5 subtypes = M1, M2, M3, M4, M5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gq:-what receptors stimulate it?-what are its effects?

A

-Stimulated by alpha 1, M1, M3, H1, V1-stimulates phospholipase C, which stimulates lipid conversion to PIP2, which stimulates increased diacylglycerol and increased inositol triphosphate. –> increased DAG leads to increased protein kinase C–> increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gs:-what receptors stimulate it?-what are its effects?

A

-stimulated by: B1, B2, D1, H2, V2-stimulates adenylyl cyclases –> increases cAMP –> increases protein kinase A –> increased intracellular Calcium *lots of bacterial toxins use this mechanism!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gi:-what receptors stimulate it?-what are its effects?

A

-stimulated by: alpha 2, M2, D2-inhibits adenylyl cyclase (so decreased cAMP and decreased protein kinase A)…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

alpha 1 receptor:-which G-protein class?-Major functions?

A

GqFunctions:-increase vascular smooth muscle contraction (increase BP)-mydriasis-increase intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

alpha 2 receptor:-G-protein class?-major functions?

A

GiMajor functions:-decrease sympathetic outflow (decrease NE secretion)-decrease insulin release-decrease BP (vasodilation)-increase glucagon secretion from alpha cells in pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Beta 1 receptor:-G-protein class?-Major functions?

A

GsFunctions:-increase HR-increase contractility-increase renin release-increase lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Beta 2 receptor:-G-protein class?-Major functions?

A

GsFunctions:-vasodilation-bronchodilation-increase HR (compensatory to increase BP)-increase contractility-increase lipolysis-increase insulin release-decrease uterine tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

M1 receptor:-G protein?-Functions?

A

GqFunctions:-CNS, enteric nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

M2 receptor:-G-protein?-Functions?

A

GiFunctions:-decreased HR and contractility of atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

M3 receptor: -G-protein?-Functions?

A

GqFunctions:-increase exocrine gland secretions (ie sweat, gastric acid)-increase gut peristalsis-increase bladder contraction-bronchoconstriction-increase miosis-accommodation (ciliary muscle contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

D1 receptor:-G-protein?-Functions?

A

GsFunctions:-relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

D2 receptor:-G protein?-Functions?

A

GiFunctions:-modulates transmitter release, especially in brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

H1 receptor:-G protein?-Functions?

A

GqFunctions:-increase nasal and bronchial mucus production-bronchiole contraction-pruritus-pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

H2 receptor:-G protein?-Functions?

A

GsFunctions:-increase gastric acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

V1 receptor:-G protein?-Functions?

A

GqFunctions:-increase vascular SM contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
V2 receptor:-G protein?-Functions?
*Gs*Functions:-increase H20 permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney("V2 is found in the 2 kidneys")
27
What class of drugs are these:Bethanochol, Carbachol, Pilocarpine, Methacholine?
Cholinomimetic agents: Direct agonists
28
What class of drugs are these:Neostigmine, Pyridostigmine, Edrophonium, Physostigmine, Echothiophate, Donepezil
Cholinomimetic agents: Indirect agonists = anti-cholinesterases
29
What class of drugs are these:Atropine, homatropine, tropicamide, benztropine, scopolamine, ipratropium, oxybutynin, glycopyrrolate, methscopolamine, pirenzepine, propantheline
muscarinic antagonists = cholinergic antagonists
30
List the direct agonists/cholinomimetic agents (X4):
#NAME?
31
List the indirect agonists/cholinomimetic agents = anticholinesterases (X6)
#NAME?
32
List the muscarinic antagonists;
#NAME?
33
Cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning symptoms (ie excess parasympathetic activity): Antidote to anti-AchE poisoning?
#NAME?
34
What's parathion?
Parathion = insecticide = organophosphate; causes cholinesterase-inhibitor poisoning (DUMBBELSS)
35
When do you give atropine + pralidoxime?
Give as an antidote to organophosphate poisoning/ Cholinesterase-inhibitor poisoning
36
Atropine:-class of drug?-clinical uses?-effects on eyes, airway, stomach, gi, bladder?-toxicity?
atropine = muscarinic antagonist*used to treat bradycardia and for ophthalmic applications*effects: blocks DUMBBELSS!-Eye--> increases mydriasis, cycloplegia-Airway-->decreases secretions-stomach --> decreases acid secretions-GI --> decreases motility-bladder --> decreases urgency in cystitis*Toxicity: Hot as a hare, Dry as a bone, Red as a beet, Blind as a bat, Mad as a hatter, Bloated as a toad:-increased body temp, decreased sweating-rapid pulse-dry mouth; dry/flushed skin-cycloplegia (blurry, near vision)-constipation (and urinary retention in men with prostatic hyperplasia)-disorientation-acute angle-closure glaucoma in elderly-hyperthermia in infants
37
What sympathomimetic should be used to treat:-anaphylactic shock?-cardiogenic shock?-septic shock?
#NAME?
38
Epinephrine:-type of drug-what receptors does it act on?-clinical applications
-direct sympathomimetic-acts on alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2-use for anaphylaxis, open angle glaucoma, asthma, hypotension (anaphylactic shock)
39
norepinephrine:-type of drug-what receptors does it act on?-applications
-direct sympathomimetic-acts on alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1-use for hypotension (septic shock)
40
isoproterenol:-type of drug-what receptors does it act on?-applications
-direct sympathomimetic-acts equally on beta 1 and beta 2 receptors-used for AV block
41
dopamine:-type of drug-what receptors does it act on?-applications
-direct sympathomimetic-acts on all receptors, but its effects vary by dose:*low dose --> acts on D1*medium dose --> acts on B1 > B2*high dose --> acts on alpha 1 and alpha 2-used for shock (increases renal perfusion), heart failure
42
dobutamine:-type of drug-what receptors does it act on?-applications
-direct sympathomimetic-acts on Beta 1 mostly (also, slightly on alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 2)-used for heart failure, cardiac stress testing, cardiogenic shock
43
phenylephrine:-type of drug-what receptors does it act on?-applications
-direct sympathomimetic-acts on alpha 1 mostly (and a little on alpha 2)-used for pupillary dilation, vasoconstriction, nasal decongestion; good for stopping epistaxis
44
Metaproterenol, Albuterol, Salmeterol, Terbutaline:-types of drugs?-what receptors do they act on?-Applications
-direct sympathomimetics-B2-agonists (also act very slightly on B1)-Metaproterenol and Albuterol --> used for acute asthma-Salmeterol --> for long-term treatment of asthma-Terbutaline --> to reduce premature uterine contractions
45
Ritodrine:-type of drug-what receptors does it act on?-applications
-direct sympathomimetic-acts on B2 receptors ONLY!-used to reduce premature uterine contractions
46
List 3 indirect sympathomimetics:-What are their actions?-What are their clinical applications?
1) Amphetamines:-indirect general sympathetic agonist; release stored catecholamines-used for narcolepsy, obesity, ADD2) Ephedrine:-indirect general sympathetic agonist-release stored catecholamines-used for nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, hypotension3) cocaine:-indirect general sympathetic agonist; uptake inhibitor-causes vasoconstriction and local anesthesia
47
clonidine and alpha-meythldopa:-type of drugs?-act on what type of receptor?-applications?
#NAME?
48
-azole =
anti-fungal (ie ketoconazole)
49
-cillin =
penicillin (ie methicillin)
50
-cycline =
antibiotic, protein synthesis inhibitor (ie tetracycline)
51
-navir =
protease inhibitor (HIV trtmt) (ie saquinavir)
52
-triptan =
5-HT1B/1D-agonists (for migraines) (ie sumatriptan)
53
-ane=
inhalational general anesthetic (ie halothane)
54
-caine=
#NAME?
55
-operidol=
butyrophenone (neuroleptic) (ie haloperidol)
56
-azine =
phenothiazine (neuroleptic, antiemetic) (ie chlorpromazine)
57
-barbital =
barbiturate (ie phenobarbital)
58
-zolam =
benzodiazepine (ie alprazolam)
59
-azepam =
benzodiazepine (ie diazepam)
60
-etine =
SSRI (ie fluoxetine)
61
-ipramine =
TCA (ie imipramine)
62
-triptyline =
TCA (ie amitriptyline)
63
-olol =
beta-antagonist (ie propranolol)
64
-terol =
beta2-agonist (ie albuterol)
65
-zosin =
alpha 1-antagonist (ie prazosin)
66
-oxin =
cardiac glycoside (inotropic agent) (ie digoxin)
67
-pril =
ACE-inhibitor (ie captopril)
68
-afil =
erectile dysfunction (ie sildenafil)
69
-tropin =
pituitary hormone (ie somatotropin)
70
-tidine =
H2-antagonist (ie cimetidine)
71
-dronate =
bisphosphonate (for osteoporosis) (ie alendronate)
72
-sartan =
Ang II-receptor-antagonist (ie losartan, valsartan)
73
-chol =
cholinergic/muscarinic agonist (ie bethanechol, carbachol)
74
-curium or -curonium =
paralytic drugs (non-depolarizing NM-blocking drugs; reversed with neostigmine) (ie atracurium, vecuronium)
75
-stigmine =
anti-cholinesterase (ie neostigmine, physostigmine, pyridostigmine)
76
-mustine =
nitrosureas (cross BBB, used to treat brain cancers)
77
-statins =
HMG-coA reductase inhibitors (ie atorvastatin)
78
-glitazones =
increase target cell response to insulin (ie rosiglitazone, pioglitazone)
79
-bendazoles=
anti-parasitic (esp anti-helminthic)
80
-dipine =
Ca-channel blockers (specifically dihyropyridine CCB's) (ie nifedipine, amlodipine)
81
-prost =
prostaglandin analogues (treat glaucoma) (ie unoprostone)
82
-mab =
monoclonal antibody (ie infliximab, daclizumab)
83
alpha 1 blockage leads to?alpha 2 blockage leads to?
alpha1-blockage --> vasodilationalpha2-blockage --> vasoconstriction
84
phenoxybenzamine:-type of drug?-application?-toxicity?
-nonselective alpha-blocker (irreversible/non-competitive)-used for pheochromocytoma (use phenoxybenzamine before removing tumor)-toxicity: orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia
85
Phentolamine:-type of drug-application?
-nonselective alpha-blocker (reversible/competitive)-give to patients on MAO-inhibitors who eat tyramine-containing foods
86
prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin:-types of drugs?-applications?-toxicity?
-alpha-1-selective-blockers-used for hypertension, urinary retention in BPH-toxicities: orthostatic hypotension with first dose; dizziness, headache (should give pts first dose before bed, while lying down)
87
mirtazapine:-type of drug-application-toxicity
#NAME?
88
List the B1-selective antagonists (A BEAM):
Acebutolol (partial agonist)BetaxololEsmolol (short-acting)AtenololMetoprolol
89
List the nonselective Beta-antagonists (Please Try Not being Picky)
PropranololTimololNadololPindolol
90
List the partial beta-agonists (PAPA):
PindololAcebutolol
91
Nonselective alpha and beta -antagonists:
CarvelidolLabetalol
92
Clinical applications of beta-blockers:
-hypertension (decrease CO, decrease renin secrtion - by beta-receptor blockade on JGA cells)-angina pectoris (decrease HR and contractility, so have decreased O2 consumption of myocardium)-MI (metoprolol and carvedilol --> decrease mortality from MIs)-SV
93
Toxicity of Beta-blockers
-impotence!-exacerbates asthma-CV adverse effects (bradycardia, AV block, CHF)-CNS adverse effects (sedation, sleep alterations)-use caustiously with diabetics! (b/c B-blockers block sympathetically-mediated symptoms of hypoglycemia; so, patient won't be
94
Bethanechol applications
Bethanecol = direct cholinomimetic-used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention (activates Bowel and Bladder)
95
Carbachol applications
carbachol = direct cholinomimetic-used for glaucoma, pupillary contraction, relief of intraocular pressure
96
Pilocarpine applications
-pilocarpine = direct cholinomimetic-used to stimulate sweat, tears, saliva ("cry, spit, sweat on your pillow")
97
Which cholinomimetics are resistant to AChE?
Bethanechol, Pilocarpine
98
Methacholine applications?
methacholine = direct cholinomimetic-used as a challenge test to diagnose asthma
99
Neostigmine applications?
neostigmine - anticholinesterase (indirect cholinomimetic)-used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of NM jxn blockade-increases endogenous ACh; does not penetrate the CNS
100
Pyridostigmine applications?
pyridostigmine = anticholinesterase (indirect cholinomimetic)-used for myasthenia gravis (gets RID of MG)-does not penterate CNS-increases endogenous ACh
101
Edrophonium applications
endrophonium = anticholinesterase (indirect cholinomimetic)-used to diagnose myasthenia gravis-increases endogenous Ach
102
Physostigmine applications
physostigmine = anticholinesterase (indirect cholinomimetic)-used to treat glaucoma and atropine overdose ("phyxes" atropine OD)-crosses the BBB!-increases endogenous Ach
103
Echothiophate applications
echothiphate = anticholinesterase (indirect cholinomimetic)-used to treat glaucoma-increases endogenous Ach
104
Donepezil applications
donepezil = anticholinesterase (indirect cholinomimetic)-used to treat Alzheimer's disease-increases endogenous Ach!
105
pKa = acid dissociation constant = ?
pKa = pH at which amount of the non-protonated form = the amount of the protonated form
106
if pH < pKa...
acidic environment; have more of the protonated form (so, basic drugs get trapped)
107
if pH > pKa...
basic environment; have more of the nonprotonated form (acidic drugs get trapped)
108
Treat acidic drug OD (ie slicylates) with?
NaHCO3 (traps the acidic drug in the basic urine)
109
Treat basic drug OD (ie amphetamines) with?
NH4Cl (ammonium chloride; traps basic drug in the acidic urine)
110
What class of drugs can cause excess parasympathetic activity (ie DUMBBELSS symptoms)?
Cholinomimetic agents
111
What drug regenerates AchE after organophosphate poisoning?
Pralidoxime (regenerates active AchE) (also, give atropine to treat symptoms!)
112
What are the symptoms of inhibiting parasympathetic activity?
(ie atropine side effects)Hot as a hareDry as a boneRed as a beetBlind as a batMad as a hatterBloated as a toad
113
In what populations is atropine contraindicated?
-Glaucoma (because don't want to dilate eyes)-BPH or any urinary retention-GI obstruction (ie ileus)-Dementia or Elderly (because can cause delirium)-Infant with fever (because can cause hyperthermia)-
114
List 4 classes of drugs with anti-cholinergic side effects:
1) First generation H1-Blockers (diphenhydramine, doxylamine, chlorpheniramine)2) Traditional neuroleptics3) TCAs4) Amantadine
115
List 4 treatment options for Myasthenia Gravis:
1) Anti-cholinesterases (indirect cholinergic agonists)2) Corticosteroids (because MG = autoimmune disease)3) Thymectomy (often curative)4) Plasmapheresis
116
What are the 5 classes of drugs used to treat glaucoma?
1) alpha-agonists2) beta-blockers3) Diuretics (Carbanic anhydrase inhibtors and mannitol)4) cholinomimetics5) prostaglandins
117
P-450 Inducers
Barb Steals Phen-phen and Refuses Greasy Carbs Chronically:BarbituratesSt. John's wortPhenytoinRifampinGriseofulvinCarbamazepineChronic alcohol use
118
P-450 inhibitors
Q-MAGIC RACKS:QuinidineMacrolidesAmiodaroneGrapefruit juiceIsoniazidCimetidineRitonavirAcute alcohol abuseCiprofloxacinKetoconazoleSulfonamides
119
acetaminophen antidote? (toxic dose = 4 g/day = 8 extra-strength tablets)
N-acetylcysteine (replenishes glutathione)
120
salicylates (ie aspirin) antidote?
NaHCO3 (alkalinizes urine)Dialysis
121
amphetamines antidote
NH4Cl (acidifies urine)
122
anti-acetylcholinesterase and organophosphates antidote?
Atropine + Pralidoxime
123
antimuscarinic, anticholinergic agents (ie atropine) antidote?
physostigmine salicylate
124
beta-blockers antidote?
(same as verapamil antidote!) = glucagon, calcium, atropine (all increase HR)
125
Iron antidote
deferoxamine
126
lead antidote
CaEDTA (in adults)Dimercaprolsuccimer (in kids)penicillamine
127
mercury, arsenic, gold antidote
-dimercaprol (BAL) (dimes = money = gold; merc = mercury!)-succimer
128
copper, arsenic, gold antidote
penicillamine (copper pennies!)
129
cyanide antidote
(may get cyanide poisoning from nitroprusside, used for malignant HTN; also, from house fires -- see CN toxicity along with CO poisoning)-nitrite-hydroxocobalamin-thiosulfate
130
Carbon monoxide antidote
100% O2Hyperbaric O2
131
opioids antidote
naloxone/naltrexone
132
benzodiazepines antidote
flumazenil
133
TCAs antidote
NaHCO3 (plasma alkalinization)
134
Heparin antidote
protamine (H+ = Proton-amine!)
135
Warfarin antidote
vitamin Kfresh frozen plasma
136
tPA, streptokinase, urokinase antidote?
Aminocaproic acid
137
theophylline antidote
Beta-blocker(theophylline is an option for COPD pts; it has a low TI with cardio-toxicity; so, give beta-blockers for the cardio-toxic effects)
138
Verapamil antidote
same as beta-blocker antidote! = glucagon, calcium, atropine (all increase HR)
139
Digitalis antidote
-Normalize K+ and Mg2+-lidocaine (if there's tachyarrhythmia) -anti-dig fab fragments (if there's arrhythmia)-atropine (if there's bradycardia)
140
methemoglobin antidote
-methylene blue-vitamin C
141
methanol, ethylene glycol (anti-freeze) antidote
-Fomepizole = 1st choice! (inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase)-2nd choices = ethanol, dialysis