Pharm Exam 2 Flashcards
(232 cards)
1
Q
What are decongestants used to treat?
A
Stuffiness from rhinitis or common colds
2
Q
What is an example (or the prototype) of a decongestant?
A
Phenlepherine
3
Q
What are adverse effects of decongestants?
A
Rebound congestion
*CNS stimulation-agitation, nervousness, uneasiness
*Vasoconstriction
*Can produce effects like amphetamines
4
Q
What are contraindications/precautions of decongestants?
A
Closed-angle glaucoma
Caution with HTN
CVD
Dysrhythmias
CAD
5
Q
What are expectorants used for?
What conditions?
A
Chest decongestant
Treats colds, allergic or no allergic
Rhinitis
Cough from lower respiratory disorders
6
Q
What is the action of expectorants?
A
Thins mucous secretion
7
Q
What are adverse effects of expectorants?
A
GI upset
Headache
Drowsiness, dizziness
Allergic reaction/rash
8
Q
What is an example of an expectorant?
A
Guaifenesin
9
Q
What is an example of a mucolytic?
A
Acetylcysteine
10
Q
What is the action of a mucolytic like acetylcysteine?
A
Thin and enhance flow of secretions
11
Q
what are adverse effects of mucolytic (acetylcysteine)?
A
Aspiration
Bronchospasms
Dizziness
Drowsiness
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Heptotoxicity
12
Q
What do we use acetylcysteine for for?
What conditions?
A
Cystic fibrosis
Acetaminophen antidote
Acute/ chronic pulmonary disorder
13
Q
what are decongestants used for?
A
Relieve nasal stuffiness
14
Q
What is the action of decongestants?
A
Stimulates alpha 1 adrenergic receptors causing reduction in inflammation
15
Q
what is an example of a decongestant?
A
Phenylephrine
16
Q
What are adverse effects of decongestants?
A
Rebound congestion
Nervousness
Uneasiness
Can produce effects like amphetamines
17
Q
What are actions of antihistamines antagonist
A
Block histamine release
18
Q
What do we use antihistamine antagonists for?
What Conditions?
A
Allergic reaction
Anaphylaxis
Motion sickness
Insomnia
19
Q
What are the adverse effects of antihistamine antagonists?
A
cause anticholinergic
effects-
dry mouth,
urinary
retention,
constipation
20
Q
What are examples of gen 1 antihistamines?
A
Diphenhydramine
Promethazine
Dimenhydrinate
21
Q
A pediatric patient presents to the ED with c/o SOB, dyspnea, and a cough. The patient is A&Ox3, skin is pink, warm and dry, BP 112/68, T 99, P106, R 32, O2sat 90% on room air. Lung sounds are diminished lung throughout all lung fields. The patient has a past medical history of a peanut allergy. The mother tells you that they were at a birthday party and after eating a cupcake, the symptoms started.
The nurse anticipates that which of the following medication will be likely ordered for this patient?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Epinephrine
c. Cetirizine
d. Guaifenesin
A
b) Epinephrine. Epinephrine is used to rapidly treat severe allergic reactions.
22
Q
What effect do 1st gen antihistamines have?
A
Drowsiness
23
Q
What is the antidote for anaphylaxis?
A
Epinephrine
24
Q
What class of drug is guaifenesin?
A
Expectorant
25
What is a major contraindication/precaution with mannitol?
Closed angle glaucoma
26
What kind of drug is timolol?
Beta blocker
27
What side effect does atropine have?
Dilates pupils
28
What is an indication for oflaxacin?
Ruptured tympanic membrane
29
T or F, live viruses are administered in vaccines to kids?
False
30
What is the antidote for benzo?
Flumazenil
31
What drug class is bupropion?
Atypical antidepressant
32
What drug schedule are benzodiazepines?
Schedule IV
33
What is lithium used for?
Bipolar
Mania side
34
What do you treat narcolepsy with?
Stimulants
35
What do you use for opioid withdrawal?
Benzos for acute (lorazepam, chlorodiazepoxide)
36
What precautions do you take for someone with alcohol withdrawal?
Seizure risk
37
What is a side effect of disulfiram?
Makes you sick
38
What symptoms accompany opioid use?
Flu like symptoms
39
What is the antidote for opioids?
Narcan
40
What are allergies?
When your body responds to a foreign substance
41
What is histamine?
first chemical mediator to be released in immune and
inflammatory responses
42
What does histamine do when it binds to H1 receptors?
| Pathophysiology
Smooth muscle contraction in bronchi and bronchioles (bronchoconstriction and
airway distress)
* Vagus nerve stimulation
* Increased permeability of veins and capillaries- edema
* Increased mucus secretion- nasal congestion
* Stimulation of sensory peripheral nerve endings (pain, pruritis)
* Dilation of skin capillaries- flushing
43
What does histamine do when it binds with H2 receptors?
increased gastric acid and pepsin secretion
* increased rate and force of myocardial contraction
* decreased immunologic and proinflammatory reactions
44
What is the infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by many types of viruses
| No cure has been found
Common Cold
45
What are s/s of the common cold?
Runny or stuffy nose
* Sore throat
* Cough
* Congestion
* Slight body aches or a mild headache
* Sneezing
* Low-grade fever
* Generally feeling unwell (malaise
46
A pediatric patient presents to the ED with c/o SOB, dyspnea, and a cough. The patient is A&Ox3, skin is pink, warm and
dry, BP 112/68, T 99, P106, R 32, O2sat 90% on room air. Lung sounds are diminished lung throughout all lung fields. The
patient has a past medical history of a peanut allergy. The mother tells you that they were at a birthday party and after
eating a cupcake, the symptoms started.
The nurse anticipates that which of the following medication will be likely ordered for this patient?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Epinephrine
c. Cetirizine
d. Guaifenesin
b) Epinephrine. Epinephrine is used to rapidly treat severe allergic reactions.
47
_____________ block histamine at the H1 receptor
Old (first-generation) H1-receptor antagonists
48
What is asthma?
a chronic disease characterized by inflammation, edema, wheezing,
chronic cough, and bronchospasm of the airways
49
What can trigger bronchospasms?
| What factors?
environmental factors such as dust, pollen, pet hair, or dander;
weather;
mold;
smoke;
respiratory infections;
exercise; and stress.
50
What are s/s of asthma?
Dyspnea
* Wheezing
* Cough
* Chest
tightness/retractio
ns
* Sputum production
51
What are important treatments for asthma?
bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory drugs
52
What is a chronic inflammatory lung disease that causes obstructed airflow out
of the lungs?
COPD
53
What are s/s of COPD?
dyspnea,
cough,
sputum production, and wheezing.
Often caused by long-term exposure to irritating
gases or dust, and most often due to smoking.
54
What is a condition in which the alveoli at the end of the smallest air passages (bronchioles) of the lungs are destroyed and hyperinflated?
Emphysema
55
What is nflammation of the lining of the bronchial tubes, characterized by daily cough and sputum production?
Chronic bronchitis
56
What is is an inflammation of the lining of the bronchial tubes, which carry air to and from the lungs. it can be either acute or chronic?
Acute Bronchitis
57
What are s/s of acute bronchitis?
Cough
* Production of mucus (sputum), which can be clear, white, yellowish-gray, green or may be streaked with blood
* Fatigue
* Shortness of breath
* Slight fever and chills
* Chest discomfort
58
What are examples of B2- adrenergic agonists?
Albuterol/levalbuterol
(-erol is common)
59
What is the action of B2 adrenergic agonists? albuterol
1. Relax smooth muscles
2. Bronchodilation
3. Vasodilation
60
What are indications for B2 adrenergic agonists? albuterol
1. Lower respiratory disorders
2. Asthma
3. COPD
61
What are some adverse effects of B2 adrenergic agonists? albuterol
| (albuterol)
* Muscle tremors
* Tachycardia, angina
* Anxiety
* Cardiac/CNS stimulation in elderly
62
What are contraindications of B2-adrenergic agonists? albuterol
* Do not take with Beta Blockers
* Contraindicated with tachydysrhythmias.
* Caution with DM, heart disease, HTN,
* angina
* Caffeine may increase AE
63
What is an example of a methylxanthines?
theophylline
(-ine)
64
What are indications for methylxanthines?
| Theophylline
COPD
Asthma
Emphysema
65
What are adverse effects of methylxanthines?
GI complications
Seizures
Dysrhthmias
66
What are interactions for methylxanthines?
1. Phenobarbital and rifampin decrease levels
2. Fluoroquinolone antibiotics increase levels
67
What does theophylline do?
Bronchodilation
68
When is the onset for B2 adrenergic agonists?
5-15 minutes
69
What are examples of inhaled anticholingerics?
ipratropium
70
What is the action of inhaled anticholingerics?
1. Block action of acetylcholine
2. Relaxes smooth muscles
71
What are indications for inhaled anticholingerics?
1. Asthma
2. COPD
3. Chronic bronchitis
72
What are adverse effects of Inhaled Anticholinergics?
| Ipratropium
1. Dry mouth and nasal area
2. Cough
3. Hoarseness
4. dizziness
73
What are contraindications for inhaled anticholingerics?
1. **Peanut allergy**
2. Caution with narrow-angle glaucoma
3. Caution in elderly
4. Avoid caffeine
5. Monitor for angioedema
74
T or F, inhaled anticholinergics are not rescue inhalers
True
75
What is an important nursing intervention for Inhaled Anticholinergics
Observe for angioedema
76
What are some examples of glucocorticoids?
Beclomethasone (Inhalation)
Prednisone (PO)
77
What is the action of glucocorticoids like beclomethasone?
Suppress airway mucus production
reduce inflammation
78
What indications of glucocorticoids?
Asthma, COPD, Emphysema, Acute & Chronic Bronchitis
79
What are adverse effects of glucocorticoids?
* Difficulty speaking,
* hoarseness, and
* candidiasis (rinse mouth after use). * Prednisone: suppress adrenal gland
* function,
* bone loss,
* hyperglycemia/glycosuria,
* myopathy,
* PUD,
* Infection,
* Fluid
* and
* Electrolyte disturbances
80
What are contraindications of glucocorticoids?
| beclamethasone
* Contraindicated if received a live
vaccine or fungal infection.
* Caution with children,
* DM,
* HTN,
* Hyperglycemia,
* Peptic Ulcer
* Disease,
* osteoporosis,
* kidney dysfunction
81
What are examples of Antileukotrienes (Leukotriene
Receptor Antagonist)?
Monetlukast
82
What is mmune system produces antibodies to antigens over weeks to months – long-lasting?
Active immunity
83
What is when the body produces antibodies to
killed or attenuated (live) virus via vaccination?
Active-artifical immunity
84
What is An antigen enters the body
naturally, producing antibodies?
Active-natural immunity
85
What do vaccinations do?
* Cause the immune system to produce antibodies for
active artificial immunity.
* Can take months to have an effect but give long-
lasting protection against infectious diseases.
86
What are indications of vacinations?
* Eradication of infectious diseases (polio, smallpox)
* Prevention of childhood and adult infectious diseases
(measles, diphtheria, mumps, rubella, tetanus, H.
influenzae) and their complications
87
What are contraindications and precautions of vaccines?
naphylaxis to a vaccine or any of its components contraindicates further doses
Do not administer live virus vaccines (varicella or MMR), if severely immunocompromised
or if severe febrile illness
Provider to analyze data and weigh the pros and cons of immunization. Discussion with
caregivers.
Use caution if moderate or severe illnesses with or without fever
Common colds and other minor illnesses are not contraindicated.
88
What injection site should young children get vaccines?
IM Vastus lat, and ventroglut
89
What site should older children get vaccines?
deltoid
90
Where should subcut vaccines be injected?
outer aspect of upper arm
or anterolateral thigh
91
Where do Im immunizations go for adults?
deltoid
92
Where do subcut injections go for adults?
outer aspect of the upper arm or anterolateral thigh
93
What is the mucous membrane lining the eyelids?
conjunctiva
94
What is group of diseases characterized by optic nerve damage and changes in visual fields, which is characterized by increased
intraocular pressure (IOP) (greater than 22 mm Hg)?
Glaucomaa
95
What is pressure inside the eye; normally less than 21 mm Hg (average 15–16 mm Hg?
Intraocular pressure (IOP)
96
What is pupil constriction?
miosis
97
What is pupil dilation?
mydriasis
98
What is application of pressure to the tear duct?
nasolacrimal occlusion
99
What is deflection of light rays in various directions according to the density of the ocular structures through
which they pass?
Refraction
100
What is myopia?
Nearsightedness
101
What is hyperopia?
Farsightedness
102
What is tonometry?
diagnostic test to measure the pressure inside the eye to determine if glaucoma is present
103
What is allergic, viral, bacterial, contact
* Inflammation of the conjunctiva?
Conjunctivitis
104
What is chronic infection of glands and lash follicles on the
margins of the eyelids?
Blepharitis
105
What is inflammation of the cornea?
Keratitis
106
How do we treat conjunctivitis?
Topical mast cell stabilizers, with or without antihistamines, are the preferred treatment for allergic
conjunctivitis.
107
What are common meds to treat conjunctivitis?
Ciprofloxacin (quinolone)
* Erythromycin
108
What condition occurs when when the eye does not produce tears properly or
when the tears are not of the correct consistency and evaporate too
quickly?
Dry eye
109
What are signs and symptoms of glaucoma?
blurred vision
* A halo around lights
* difficulty focusing
* Headache
* loss of peripheral vision
* aching around the eye
110
What is an example of an anticholinergic for opthalmic use?
Atropine sulfate
111
What does atropine sulfate do (action)?
produces mydriatic effects by relaxing the pupil of the eye and prevents accommodation of near vision
112
What are the adverse effects of atropine sulfate?
may cause local transient stinging
113
What are contraindications for atropine sulfate?
Glaucoma
114
What nursing interventions should you include for atropine sulfate?
Assess for pain and stinging; assess for blurred vision and sensitivity to light
* Teach effects should diminish and are reversible over time
* Teach to wear sunglasses after administration
115
What is an example of prostaglandin analogs? (for the eyes)
imatoprost (Latisse, Lumigan)
* Latanoprost (Xalatan)
116
What is the action of prostaglandin analogs
produces ocular hypotensive effects to lower IOP;
* Bimatoprost can increase the percent and duration of the growth phase of eyelash growth
117
What are indications for prostaglandin analogs?
glaucoma and ocular HTN
118
What are adverse effects of prostaglanding analogs?
conjunctival inflammation, erythema of the eyelid, allergic conjunctivitis, iris pigmentation, blurred vision, migraine
119
What are examples of beta blocking agents (for the eye)?
Blocks beta receptors to reduce the IOP by reducing aqueous humor production and increasing outflow
120
What is the action of beta blocking agents?
Blocks beta receptors to reduce the IOP by reducing aqueous humor production and increasing outflow
121
What are indications for beta blocking agents? (eyes)
Burning and stinging
122
What are contraindications of beta blocking agents?
Asthma, COPD, heart failure, and bradycardia (as with systemic beta blockers) can interfere with insulin effects, so patient must
monitor glucose closely
123
What are examples alpha2-adrenergic agonists?
Brimonidine (ophthalmic) Alphagan P
124
What are the actions for alpha2-adrenergic agonists?
reduces aqueous humor production and increasing uveoscleral outflow
125
What are uses for alpha2-adrenergic agonists?
lower IOP with patients with open-angle glaucoma and ocular HTN
126
What are the adverse effects of alphra2-adrenergic agonists?
bradycardia, hypotension, headache, somnolence, stinging, and burning of the eye
127
What are examples of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
Acetazolamide (Diamox)
Brinzolamide (Azopt)
128
What is the action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
Reduce the rate of aqueous humor production and reduce IOP by causing diuresis through renal
effects
129
What are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors used for?
second line for open-angle glaucoma, emergency med before surgery for closed-angle glaucoma,
130
What are examples of osmotics agents?
Mannitol
131
What is the action of osmotic agents?
Action: Decrease intraocular pressure by making the plasma hypertonic, thus drawing fluid from the anterior chamber of the
eye
132
What are osmotic agents used for?
Tx rapid progression of closed-angle glaucoma to prevent blindness
133
What are adverse effects of osmotic agents?
hyperosmolar nonketotic coma. Confusion, headache, syncope, cardiac dysrhythmias, nausea, vomiting,
and severe dehydration
134
What are patients teachings to maintain eye health?
To prevent eye disorders, try to avoid long periods of reading and computer work; minimize exposure to dirt, smog, and
cigarette smoke; wash hands often and avoid touching eyes to decrease the risk of infection
* Do not use nonprescription eye drops (e.g. Visine) on a regular basis longer than 48 to 72 hours.
* If you wear contacts, wash your hands before putting them in and follow instructions for care
* If you wear contact lenses, you must take them out before administering medication, and they should be instilled in 15 mins.
Or longer before inserting soft contacts.
* Never use someone else’s eye medications
135
What is any discharge from the ear (clear to purulent) following perforation of the tympanic membrane called?
Otorrhea
136
What is disorder of the external ear that produces inflammation; can be caused by
bacteria, moisture in the canal, allergies, or trauma related to itching or scratching, purulent
discharge
Otitis externa
137
What is acute infection or middle ear inflammation; more common in children than
adults; caused by bacteria, upper respiratory congestion, inflammation, or allergic reaction?
Otitis media
138
What medications are used for otitis externa?
Neomycin, polymyxin B-hydrocortisone (Cortisporin Otic
139
What is the action of Neomycin, polymyxin B-hydrocortisone (Cortisporin Otic)?
Neomycin and polymyxin combat bacteria, and hydrocortisone reduces inflammation,
redness, and swelling.
140
What are Neomycin, polymyxin B-hydrocortisone (Cortisporin Otic) used for?
treatment of otitis externa; only used in children for otitis externa due to adverse effect of
ototoxicity
141
What are adverse effects of Neomycin, polymyxin B-hydrocortisone (Cortisporin Otic)?
Burning, stinging, and ototoxicity
142
What is inflammatory response of skin to injuries, irritants, allergens, or
trauma?
Dermatitis (eczema)
143
What is an inflammatory response characterized by skin lesion called wheal
(raised edematous area with pale center and red border) and itches?
Urticaria (hives)
144
What is a chronic inflammatory disorder produced by activated T lymphocytes and
stimulates abnormal growth of affected skin cells and blood vessels
Psoriasis
145
a chronic disease characterized by erythema, telangiectases (fine, red,
superficial blood vessels), and acne-like lesions of facial skin
Rosacea
146
What are examples of retinoids?
isotretinoin (Accutane)
147
What is the action of retinoids?
suppression of sebum production and inhibition of inflammation
148
What are retinoids used for?
severe acne that is nonresponsive to other treatments
149
What are adverse effects of retinoids?
dryness and swelling of lips and mouth, n/v, muscle pain and weakness, hyperlipidemia
(elevated triglycerides), depression, aggression, changes in mood, psychosis, suicidal thoughts, and
hepatoxicity
150
What are contraindications of retinoids?
dryness and swelling of lips and mouth, n/v, muscle pain and weakness, hyperlipidemia
(elevated triglycerides), depression, aggression, changes in mood, psychosis, suicidal thoughts, and
hepatoxicity
151
What is the purpose of chemotherapy?
Kill cancer cells
152
What are Adverse Effects of Traditional Cytotoxic Antineoplastic Drugs?
Alopecia, anemia, bleeding
●Fatigue, mucositis
●N/V
●neutropenia, thrombocytopenia
●May damage
●Heart
●Liver, kidneys
●Nerves
153
What are Indications for Use of Traditional Cytotoxic?
Cure neoplastic disease
●Relieve neoplastic disease symptoms
●Induce/maintain remissions
●Treatment of nonmalignant conditions
●Rheumatoid arthritis
●Psoriasis
154
What are Safety Precautions With Cytotoxic Antineoplastic Medications?
Most are carcinogenic, mutagenic, and teratogenic.
●Avoid exposure while pregnant.
●Parenteral solutions irritate skin mucous membranes—avoid direct contact with skin or respiratory tract; wash hands thoroughly after administration.
●Do not administer injectable medications unless certified.
155
What patient teaching is required for doxorubicin?
Avoid crowds and contact with infectious individuals and practice good hand hygiene.
●Prevent pregnancy
●Avoid alcohol
●Consult the provider before receiving vaccinations.
●Practice good oral hygiene and avoid mouthwash
With alcohol, use warm saline mouth rinse
156
What are side effects vincristine?
Bone marrow suppression
●Severe tissue damage from vesicants
●Alopecia
●Injury to autonomic nerves (manifested by constipation, urinary hesitancy).
●Peripheral neuropathy (paresthesia, decreased reflexes, and sensory loss).
●Bradycardia, Heart Block, MI, Hypotension
●Severe hypersensitivity
157
What are the side effects Cyclophosphamide/
Cisplatin?
Bone Marrow Suppression
●GI- N/V
●Acutely hemorrhagic cystitis
●Sterility or decreased immune response
●Alopecia
●Pulmonary fibrosis
●Liver and kidney toxicity
●Hearing loss (increased risk w/ Cisplatin given w/ Lasix)
●Cisplatin Is Highly emetogenic Nausea. Vomiting begins within one hour after dosing and can persist for several days
158
What are indications for tamoxifen?
Estrogen receptor blockers
*treat or prevent breast cancer
*Aromatase inhibitors:
*treat breast cancer after menopause
*Monoclonal antibody
*treat metastatic breast cancer
*used alone or in w/ paclitaxel
159
What are side effects of tamoxifen?
Endometrial cancer
●Hypercalcemia (bone pain)
●Nausea and vomiting
●Thromboembolic events (DVT, PE, stroke)..
●Hot flashes
●Vaginal discharge or bleeding
●Muscle and joint pain, Headache
●Increased risk for osteoporosis
160
What is important patient teaching to tamoxifen?
Have a yearly gynecological exam and Pap smear
●Report chest pain, leg or calf, edema or SOB
161
What are side effects of interferon?
flu-like s/s after
●Bone marrow suppression
●Alopecia
●Cardiotoxicity
●Thyroid dysfunction
●Neurotoxicity w/ prolonged T
162
What are contraindications of beta 2 adrenergic agonists like albuterol?
Caffeien
163
What should you monitor for with beta 2 adrengergic agonists like albuterol?
a. Tremors
b. Anxiety
c. Tachyardia
d. Angina
164
What is the onset for beta 2 adrenergic agonists like albuterol?
5-15 minutes
165
What are s/s of anaphylaxis?
1. Hives/itching/flushed/pale skin
2. Dizziness/fainting
3. N/V/D
4. Hypotension
5. Wheezing/trouble breathing
166
What is some patient teaching for expectorants like guaifenesin?
Don't crush or chew tabs
Encourage fluids
167
What is important education for iniahled glucocorticoids like belcomethasone?
Rinse mouth to prevent thrush
168
What caution should we take for acetylcysteine (mucolytic)?
Asthma may cause bronchospasm
169
What is a unique feature of acetylcysteine?
It smells like rotten eggs
170
What is open angle glaucoma
Gradual loss of vision
few s/s at start
171
Is open angle glaucoma life-long?
yes
172
What is the most common type of glaucoma?
open-angle
173
T or F, open angle glaucoma can be reversed
False
174
What is the treatment for open-angle glaucoma?
Timolol- a beta blocking agent
175
What is atropine used for?
prevents eye accomodation
176
What does atropine do?
dilates pupils before eye exam
177
What are side effects of atropine?
local stinging
178
What is a contraindication for atropine?
glaucoma
179
What would you teach a patient using atropine?
the effects get better with time
wear sunglasses
180
What is closed angle glaucoma?
Sudden rise in IOP
181
What are s/s of close angle glaucoma?
1. Halos around lights
2. Brow pain
3. Nausea
4. Blurred vision
5. Photophobia
182
Whatis the treatment for closed angle glaucoma?
mannitol
183
What causes glaucoma?
optic nerve damage
increased IOP
184
What are s/s of glaucoma?
change in visual fields
185
What IOP puts you at risk for glaucoma?
Greater then 21
186
What IOP does glaucoma occur?
greater then 22
187
What ist he avg IOP, and the normal?
the avg is 15-16
normal is less than 21
188
What is the indication for mannitol? (what is it used for)
Closed-angle glaucoma
189
What are adverse effects of mannitol?
1. Hyperosmolar nonketoic coma
2. Confusion
3. Headache
4. Syncope
5. Cardiac dysrhythmias
6. Nausea
7. Vomiting
8. Severe dehydration
190
What should you monitor with mannitol?
1. Fluid and electrolytes
2. For dehydration
3. BP
4. Pulse
5. RR
6. Hyperglycemia
7. Breath sounds
8. Pupillary reflexes
191
T or F, you can wear your contacts while taking eye drops
False, you have to take them out
192
T or F, it doesn't matter if you touch the applicator to your eye
False; you can contaminate it
193
How long should you wait between two different eye drops?
5-10min
194
What patient teaching should you provide to a client pertaining to eye drops and eye health?
1. Avoid long periods of reading, computer work,
2. Minimize exposure to things that can get in eyes
3. Wash hands
4. Do not use non prescription eye drops (visine) for longer than 48-72 hours
5. Regular eye exams after 40 years
6. Wash hands before contacts
7. Never use someone else’s eye meds
195
What is conjunctivitis?
1. Inflammation of the conjunctiva (lining of eyelids)
2. allergic, viral, bacterial, contact, fungal
196
What is a common example of conjunctivitis?
pink eye
197
How do we treat conjunctivitis?
1. topical corticosteroids and nonsteroidal anti-
2. inflammatory drugs
3. topical mast cell stabilizers preferred treatment
198
What is Blepharitis?
chronic infection of glands and lash follicles on the margins of the eyelids
199
What is keratitis?
Inflammation of the cornea
200
What is dry eye?
a. Eye does not produce tears
b. Tears incorrect consistency and evaporate
201
What is otitis externa?
1. Inflammation of outer ear
2. Via bacteria, moisture in canal, allergies, trauma related to itching, purulent discharge
202
What is a common example of otitis externa?
simmwers ear
203
What is the treatment for otitis externa?
1. Ear drops
2. Cortisporin Otic (neomycin)
204
What is important info about cortisporin otic?
a. Three in one med
b. Neomycin and polymyxin combat bacteria
c. Hydrocortisone reduces inflammation
d. Can be ototoxic; not for rupture ear drum
e. Shake well prior
f. No more then 10 days
205
What ist he treatment for titis media?
1. Ofloxacin
a.
206
Wjahat is ofloxacin?
a. Quinolone antbiotic ear drop
b. Safe for ruptured ear drum
207
What are tips for ear drop administration?
1. Directly into canal
2. If suspension;shake before
3. Tilt head to opposite shoulder
4. Lie on opposite side of administration for 20 min
5. Don’t get water in eat
6. NEVER cold ear drops
7. Children 3 or less, ear lobe down and back
8. Children 4 and older, ear up and back
anti
208
What is the difference in gen 1 and gen 2 antihistamines?
gen 1 crosses the blood brain barrier (results in CNS depression)
gen 2 does not
209
What is a unique side effect of promethazine?
respiratory depression
210
What can help with the dry effects of antihistamines?
sucking on hard candy
211
what are examples of gen 2 fs?
Loratadine
Cetirizine
Fexofenadine
Desloratadine
212
What are indications for antihistamines?
upper respiratory disorders
allergies
common cold
cough
anaphylaxis
213
What is beclomesthasone used for?
asthma
COPD
emphysema
acute/chronic bronchitis
lower resp. stuff
214
What are considerations for antihistamines?
monitor with glaucoma
215
What are side effects of beclomethasone?
dryness (reduces mucus)
hyperglycemia
hypokalemia
GI ulcerations
bone loss
rinse mouth after (consideration)
216
What are indications for monekulast?
asthma
execise induced asthma
(can be used with children)
217
What are adverse effects of monketulast?
depression
suicide ideation
liver damage
218
What are some considerations for montekulast?
PO tabs best at bedtime
219
What are indications for codeine?
cough
upper resp. disorders
220
What is the aciton of codeine?
suppress cough by acting on CNS
221
What are the side effects of codeien?
dizzy
lighteaded
drowzy
N/V
constipation
decresed resp.
222
What are considerations for codeine?
change positions slowly
223
What are precautions for codeien?
potential for abuse
caution in elderly and children and history of abuse
224
What is chemotherapy for?
use of medications to treat
cancer (rather than surgery, radiation)
Damage or kill cancer cells
225
What are some general side effects of chemotherapy
Alopecia,
anemia,
bleeding (bone marrow suppression),
fatigue,
mucositis,
nausea,
vomiting,
neutropenia,
and thrombocytopenia,
which may damage the heart,
liver, kidneys, and nerves
226
What is important patient teaching for chemotherapy?
they will lose their hair in 7-10 days
it will grow back
227
What is important patient teaching for doxorubicin?
avoid crowds and infectious individuals
o Good hand hygiene
o Urine will turn red – normal finding
o Prevent pregnancy
o Avoid alcohol
o Use caution with vaccinations (live)
o Avoid mouthwash with alcohol
o Hair loss can occur 7-10 days after the
start of treatment and may last for a max
of 2 months after the last administration.
o Make provider aware of chest pain or SOB
228
What are side effects of vincristine?
Severe tissue damage from vesicants & Alopecia
o Injury to the autonomic nerve (constipation and
urinary hesitancy)
o Bone marrow suppression, Peripheral neuropathy,
Bradycardia, heart block, MI, hypotension
229
What are indications for tamoxifen?
Breast Cancer
230
What are side effects of tamoxifen?
Endometrial cancer
o Hypercalcemia (bone
pain)
o Nausea and vomiting
o Thromboembolic events
(DVT, PE, stroke).
o Hot flashes
o Vaginal discharge or
bleeding
o Muscle and joint pain,
Headache
o Increased risk for
osteoporosis
231
What is important patient teaching for tamoxefin?
Have a yearly
gynecological exam and
Pap smear
o Report chest pain, leg or
calf, edema or SOB
232
What are side effects of interferon?
flu-like s/s after
o Bone marrow suppression
o Alopecia
o Cardiotoxicity
o Thyroid dysfunction
o Neurotoxicity w/ prolonged Tx
o Depression/anxiety, insomnia, altered mental state
