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Flashcards in Pharm final Deck (180):
1

Choose the term that is defined as seizures that occur at periodic intervals during treatment with anti epileptic drugs.

a. Breakthrough seizures
b. Cluster seizures
c. Status epilepticus
d. Refractory seizures

a. Breakthrough seizures

2

True or False?

Glutamate is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and GABA is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?

True

3

Which of the following is the drug of choice for stopping a seizure in progress?

a. Phenobarbital
b. Propofol
c. Diazepam
d. Midazolam

c. Diazepam

4

How do benzodiazepines work to stop a seizure in progress?

a. GABAa potentiation
b. GABAa inhibition
c. Glutamate potentiation
d. Glutamate inhibition

a. GABAa potentiation

5

Which anti epileptic therapy should be avoided in cats because it is associated with the development of asthma in these patients?

a.Levetiracetam
b. Phenobarbital
c. Bromide
d. Zonisamide

c. Bromide

6

Which of the following drugs is the safest choice for seizure management in patients with hepatic disease?

a. Bromide
b. Phenobarbital
c. Zonisamide
d. Levetiracetam

d. Levetiracetam

7

Rank these anti epileptic drugs from longest to shortest half life
1. Phenobarbital 2. Levetiracetam 3. Bromide 4. Zonisamide

a. 2,4,1,3
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 3,1,4,2
d. 2,3,1,4

c. 3,1,4,2

8

Which of the following drugs is a cytochrome p450 enzyme inducer, making its half-life decrease overtime?

a. Diazepam
b. Bromide
c. Phenobarbital
d. Levetiracetam

c. Phenobarbital

9

Which drug is known to have a "honeymoon" effect, where the patient develops tolerance to treatment overtime, and the dose will need to be increased after ~7 months?

a. Bromide
b. Diazepam
c. Phenobarbital
d. Levetiracetam

d. Levetiracetam

10

Which of the following is a peripherally acting muscle relaxant?

a. Guaifenesin
b. Methocarbamol
c. Dantrolene
d. Levetiracetam

c. Dantrolene

11

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in horses receiving guaifenesin?

a. Physostigmine
b. Glycopyrrolate
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Albuterol

a. Physostigmine

12

Choose the correct formulation of "triple dip" used in large animals

a. Ketamine, Dexmedetomidine, Buprenorphine
b. Guaifenesin, Xylazine, Ketamine
c. Ketamine, Buprenorphine, Guaifenesin
d. Xylazine, Dexmedetomidine, Morphine

b. Guaifenesin, Xylazine, Ketamine

13

Which of the following is indicated for treating pyrethrin/permethrin toxicosis in cats?

a. Guaifenesin
b. Dantrolene
c. Xylazine
d. Methocarbamol

d. Methocarbamol

14

True or False?

Horses are more sensitive to Guaifenesin than cattle?

False

15

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

a. Guaifenesin
b. Dantrolene
c. Dexmedetomidine
d. Methocarbamol

b. Dantrolene

16

Which of the following drugs is concentration dependent?

a. Ampicillin
b. Cefpodoxime
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Clarithromycin

c. Enrofloxacin

17

Which of the following best describes the optimal efficacy of time dependent antimicrobials?

a. T>MIC
b. T=MIC
c. T

a. T>MIC

18

Concerning concentration dependent antimicrobials, which Cmax is targeted for efficacy?

a. 20x MIC
b. 50x MIC
c. 5x MIC
d. 10x MIC

d. 10x MIC

19

A foal is suffering from a Rhodococcus Equi infection. This particular bacteria survives inside the macrophages to avoid the host's immune system. Which of the following antimicrobials would be the best choice to treat this infection?

a. Penicillin
b. Erythromycin
c. Gentamicin
d. Doxycycline

b. Erythromycin

20

A 3 year old FS Doberman is suffering from a urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials would be the best choice to target and treat this infection?

a. Sulfadimethoxine
b. Erythromycin
c. Polymyxin B
d. Penicillin

d. Penicillin

21

Which class of antimicrobials should be avoided in treating a chronic inflammatory processes with lots of pus and fibrosis present?

a. Sulfonamides
b. Penicillins
c. Cephalosporins
d. Tetracyclines

a. Sulfonamides

22

A cat is suffering from a bacterial pneumonia and requires antibiotic treatment. Which drug is known to cause direct tissue irritation in the esophagus, leading to esophageal stricture, and should not be chosen in this case?

a. Penicillin
b. Enrofloxacin
c. Ceftiofur
d. Doxycycline

d. Doxycycline

23

Which animal can suffer from fatal GI microfloral disruptions if given penicillins?

a. Goat
b. Cow
c. Rabbit
d. Horse

c. Rabbit

24

Which of the following antimicrobials does not target ribosomes?

a. Doxycycline
b. Gentamicin
c. Erythromycin
d. Moxifloxacin

d. Moxifloxacin

25

Which of the following beta-lactams is part of the new class "carbapenems" an is an extremely active drug, effective against a wide variety of bacteria because it is resistant to B-lactamase destruction?

a. Penicillin
b. Cphalexin
c. Imipenem
d. Amoxicillin

c. Imipenem

26

Which class of antimicrobials interacts synergistically with Beta-lactams?

a. Macrolides
b. Tetracyclines
c. Fluoroquinolones
d. Aminoglycosides

d. Aminoglycosides

27

Which of the following classes of antimicrobial drugs is bacteriostatic?

a. Aminoglycosides
b. Tetracyclines
c. Fluoroquinolones
d. Beta-lactams

b. Tetracyclines

28

Which of the following is not an adverse effect associated with aminoglycoside therapy?

a. Liver damage
b. Neuromuscular blockade
c. Ototoxicity
d. Renal tubular necrosis

a. Liver damage

29

Extra label use of _______ is prohibited in food animals in the USA

a. Beta-lactams
b. Tetracyclines
c. Nitroimidazoles
d. Aminoglycosides

c. Nitroimidazoles

30

Which of the following antimicrobials does not target the cell wall?

a. Chloramphenicol
b. Amoxicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Bacitracin

a. Chloramphenicol

31

For treating protozoal diseases, _____ is used in combination with sulfonamides?

a. Pyrimethamine
b. Gancyclovir
c. Diloxanide
d. Iodoquinol

a. Pyrimethamine

32

Which of the following classes of antimicrobials is the drug of choice to treat Rickettsia and Mycoplasma?

a. Beta-lactams
b. Tetracyclines
c. Macrolides
d. Sulfonamides

b. Tetracyclines

33

The only indication for use of parenteral vancomycin is for treating what?

a. Methicillin-resitant Staphylococcus aureus
b. MRSp
c. Rhodococcus Equi
d. Actinobacillus spp.

a. Methicillin-resitant Staphylococcus aureus

34

Which of the following local anesthetics, used for regional anesthesia in horses, has the shortest duration of action?

a. Mepicacaine
b. Bupivacaine
c. Lidocaine

c. Lidocaine

35

Which of the following is not a goal of antimicrobial stewardship?

a. Eliminate resistance of target organism
b. Appropriate selection
c. Safety, cost, and practicality
d. Duration of antimicrobial therapy

a. Eliminate resistance of target organism

36

Which drug is a second generation type 1 H1 receptor antagonist (antihistamine)?

a. Hydroxyzine
b. Loratadine
c. Trimeprazine
d. Diphenhydramine

b. Loratadine

37

Which of the following "anti-pruritic" drugs acts by inhibiting Janus-Kinase receptors?

a. Lokivetmab
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Oclacitinib
d. Zafirlukast

c. Oclacitinib

38

Which of the following antihistamines blocks H2?

a. Dimenhydrinate
b. Cimetidine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Hydroxyzine

b. Cimetidine

39

Which pro-inflammatory cytokine does Oclacitinib block, that is associated with the neuronal sensation of itching?

a. IL-2
b. IL-18
c. IL-46
d. IL-31

d. IL-31

40

Which drug is a T-cell (calcineurin) inhibitor that is used for treating allergic skin disease?

a. Cyclosporine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Hydroxyzine
d. Zafirlukast

a. Cyclosporine

41

Which diuretic would be the best drug to use to treat acute cerebral edema?

a. Furosemide
b. Mannitol
c. Spironolactone
d. Benazepril

b. Mannitol

42

Which of the following diuretics acts by inhibiting the Na/K/Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle?

a. Mannitol
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Spirolactone
d. Furosemide

d. Furosemide

43

Which of the following would be the best choice to manage systemic hypertension in a patient that also has renal disease?

a. Enalipril
b. Benazepril
c. Spironolactone
d. Methazolamide

b. Benazepril

44

Which group of diuretics is predominantly used to decrease intraocular pressure, and also can be used as adjunct treatment of HYPP in horses?

a. ACE inhibitors
b. Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors
c. Thiazide Diuretics
d. Osmotic Diuretics

b. Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors

45

Which portion of the nephron do potassium sparing diuretics predominantly act on?

a. Proximal tubule
b. Loop of Henle
c. Early distal convoluted tubule
d. Late distal convoluted tubule

d. Late distal convoluted tubule

46

Which diuretic is used for the treatment of pulmonary edema and EIPH?

a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Mannitol
c. Furosemide
d. Desmopressin

c. Furosemide

47

A horse presents with severe leg swelling. Which drug would be used to treat the edema, and how is it administered?

a. Mannitol, Parenteral
b. Mannitol, Oral
c. Hydrochlorothiazide, oral
d. Hydrochlorothiazide, parenteral

d. Hydrochlorothiazide, parenteral

48

Which drug can be used diagnostically to diagnose central diabetes insipidus?

a. Hydrochlorothiazine
b. Desmopressin
c. Mannitol
d. Spironolactone

b. Desmopressin

49

What is the most commonly used diuretic?

a. Hydrochlorothaizide
b. Spironolactone
c. Mannitol
d. Furosemide

d. Furosemide

50

Which category of diuretics are used in the management of protein-losing nephropathy?

a. Osmotic diuretics
b. ACE-inhibitors
c. Loop diuretics
d. Thiazide diuretics

b. ACE-inhibitors

51

Spironolactone is a competitive aldosterone antagonist that obviously blocks mineralocorticoids, and therefore should not be used in patients with which endocrine condition?

a. Hyperadrenocorticism
b. Hypoadrenocorticism
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Hypothyroidism

b. Hypoadrenocorticism

52

Which of the following is not an appetite stimulant?

a. Propofol
b. Capromorelin
c. Apomorphine
d. Mirtazapine

c. Apomorphine

53

Which appetite stimulant is most effective and safe in cats?

a. Propofol
b. Capromorelin
c. Mirtazapine
d. Cyproheptadine

d. Cyproheptadine

54

What is the mode of action of maropitant citrate?

a. Dopamine antagonist
b. NK 1 antagonist
c. Serotonin antagonist
d. H1 antagonist

b. NK 1 antagonist

55

Which drug is a bile acid salt that is used for the treatment of chronic inflammatory liver disease in small animals?

a. Aminopentamide
b. Misoprostol
c. Pancrelipase
d. Ursodiol

d. Ursodiol

56

Which drug is used for the treatment of megacolon and constipation in cats?

a. Cisapride
b. Loperamide
c. Ursodiol
d. Maropitant citrate

a. Cisapride

57

Norman the cat had an acute case of uncontrolled vomiting, he was take to RUVC. What drug would act best to stop his vomiting and how is this administered in cats?

a. Xylazine (sc)
b. Cyproheptadine (po)
c. Maropitant citrate (sc)
d. Cisapride (po)

c. Maropitant citrate (sc)

58

While at the clinic, they found that Norman's pancreatic enzymes were extremely low, indicating that he has exocrine pancreatic insufficiency. What drug is used to treat this condition?

a. Cisapride
b. Pancrelipase
c. Sucralfate
d. Cimetidine

b. Pancrelipase

59

Which anti-emetic is most commonly used for treating chemotherapy related nausea?

a. Ondansetron
b. Maropitant citrate
c. Bismuth subsalicylate
d. Metoclopramide

a. Ondansetron

60

Which of the following is the most potent anti-ulcer medication?

a. Cimetidine
b. Famotidine
c. Ranitidine
d. Omeprazole

d. Omeprazole

61

True or False?

Phosphate enemas can be given to cats?

False

62

Which drug is indicated for the treatment of NSAID induced gastric ulcers?

a. Cimetidine
b. Sucralfate
c. Misoprostol
d. Maropitant citrate

c. Misoprostol

63

Which drug is used in the management of hepatic encephalopathy?

a. Lactulose
b. Aminopentamide
c. Misoprostol
d. Cisapride

a. Lactulose

64

Which of the following ophthalmic drugs is a parasympatholytic?

a. Gancyclovir
b. Pilocarpine
c. Tropicamide
d. Phenylephrine

c. Tropicamide

65

Which of the following does not cause pupil dilation?

a. Pilocarpine
b. Atropine
c. Tropicamide
d. Phenylephrine

a. Pilocarpine

66

Which of the following drugs is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in the treatment of glaucoma?

a. Timolol
b. Brimonidine
c. Dorzolamide
d. Latanoprost

c. Dorzolamide

67

Which ophthalmic drug should be avoided in horses because it causes cycloplegia?

a. Atropine
b. Pilocarpine
c. Proparacaine
d. Flurbiprofen

a. Atropine

68

Which drug is specifically indicated for the treatment of canine keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

a. Gancyclovir
b. Cyclosporine
c. Latanaprost
d. Pilocarpine

b. Cyclosporine

69

A cat is suffering from a fungal infection in the eye, which drug would you use to treat her?

a. Pilocarpine
b. Tropicamide
c. Bacitracin
d. Natamycin

d. Natamycin

70

Which drug is used in the treatment of diabetic cataracts?

a. Diclofenac
b. Gancyclovir
c. Tacrolimus
d. Tropicamide

a. Diclofenac

71

Which drug is used for emergency management of glaucoma in dogs?

a. Brimonidine
b. Latanoprost
c. Flurbiprofen
d. Tacrolimus

b. Latanoprost

72

Which local anesthetic would you use for the diagnostic evaluation of the eye such as tonometry?

a. Bupivicaine
b. Proparacaine
c. Mepivacaine
d. Lidocaine

b. Proparacaine

73

Which of the following Beta 1 agonists has the least cardiac stimulation effect?

a. Isoproterenol
b. Epinephrine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Medium dose dopamine
e. Dobutamine

c. Norepinephrine

74

Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of calcium channel blocker toxicity?

a. Calcium salts
b. Glucagon
c. Pimobendan
d. Epinephrine

b. Glucagon

75

Which class of cardiac stimulants are considered cardiovascular diuretics?

a. Beta 1 agonists
b. Positive inotropic drugs-digoxin
c. Inodilators
d. Methylxanthines

b. Positive inotropic drugs-digoxin
d. Methylxanthines

76

Which of the following is the most commonly used catecholamine for congestive heart failure due to myocardial failure?

a. Dopamine
b. Dobutamine
c. Epinephrine
d. Isoproterenol
e. Norepinephrine

b. Dobutamine

77

Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating congestive heart failure in dogs due to dilated cardiomyopathy?

a. Pimobendan
b. Aminophylline
c. Epinephrine
d. Dobutamine

a. Pimobendan

78

Which of the following drugs is mainly used for bronchodilation, but can occasionally be used for the treatment of bradyarrhythmias due to AV block?

a. Epinephrine
b. Digoxin
c. Aminophylline
d. Pimobendan

c. Aminophylline

79

What is the mode of action of Digoxin?

a. Beta 1 agonist
b. Phosphodiesterase 2 inhibition
c. Calcium channel blocker
d. Inhibition of Na/K-ATPase

d. Inhibition of Na/K-ATPase

80

What is the drug of choice for atrial fibrillation in horses?

a. Procainamide
b. Propranolol
c. Quinidine
d. Diltiazem

d. Diltiazem

81

Which class of anti arrhythmic drugs does Diltiazem belong to?

a. Class 1a
b. Class 1b
c. Class 2
d. Class 3
e. Class 4

e. Class 4

82

What is the mechanism of class 3 anti arrhythmic drugs?

a. Beta blockers
b. Potassium channel blockers
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Sodium channel blockers

b. Potassium channel blockers

83

What is the drug of choice for treating ventricular tachycardia in dogs?

a. Lidocaine
b. Procainamide
c. Propranolol
d. Stall

a. Lidocaine

84

Which of the following drugs would be the best choice to treat supraventricular tachycardia long term, in a dog with concurrent bronchoconstrictive disease?

a. Esmolol
b. Propranolol
c. Metoprolol
d. Lidocaine

c. Metoprolol

85

Which of the following is not a Beta blocker?

a. Propranolol
b. Esmolol
c. Atenolol
d. Sotalol

d. Sotalol

86

Which drug is used for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias in dogs (due to left ventricular dysfunction) by converting A-fib to sinus rhythm?

a. Amiodarone
b. Diltazem
c. Lidocaine
d. Esmolol

a. Amiodarone

87

Which of the following is not a vasoconstrictor?

a. Norepinephrine
b. Enalapril
c. Vasopressin
d. Phenylephrine

b. Enalapril

88

Which of the following is a selective alpha-1 antagonist?

a. Phenoxybenzamine
b. Phentolamine
c. Phenylephrine
d. Prazosin

d. Prazosin

89

What is the drug of choice for first line treatment of hypertension in cats?

a. Acepromazine
b. Hydralazine
c. Amlodipine
d. Vasopressin

c. Amlodipine

90

Which drug is used for the treatment of hypertensive crisis by decreasing after load?

a. Hydralazine
b. Epinephrine
c. Amlodipine
d. Losartan

a. Hydralazine

91

Which of the following is a phosphodiesterase V inhibitor used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension?

a. Pimobendan
b. Aminophylline
c. Sildenafil
d. Benazepril

c. Sildenafil

92

How are Nitrates administered for emergency treatment of congestive heart failure/pulmonary crisis?

a. Topical in rectum
b. Topical on skin
c. Orally
d. Topical in ear

d. Topical in ear

93

You have a hospitalized cat, being treated for thromboembolic disease. What drug will you administer IV?

a. Warfarin sodium
b. Desmopressin acetate
c. Unfractionated Heparin
d. Aspirin

c. Unfractionated Heparin

94

Oh no! You accidentally overdosed the heparin in your hospitalized cat (from the previous question). What do you administer for the treatment of this heparin overdose?

a. Warfarin sodium
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Phytonadine
d. Tissue plasminogen activator

b. Protamine sulfate

95

A greyhound is undergoing surgery, what do you gibe to prevent post-op bleeding in this patient?

a. Aminocaproic acid
b. Dalteparin
c. Unfractionated heparin
d. Tissue plasminogen activator

a. Aminocaproic acid

96

A dog presents with spontaneous bleeding on all 4 limbs, and in the history you find out he ingested rodenticide containing warfarin. What is the drug of choice for treating this toxicity?

a. Unfractionated heparin
b. Tissue plasminogen activator
c. Protamine sulfate
d. Phytonadine

d. Phytonadine

97

A cat presents with paralysis of the hind limbs. On ultrasound you discover she is suffering from a saddle thrombus. Which drug do you administer to break down this clot?

a. Aspirin
b. Tissue plasminogen activator
c. Desmopressin
d. Unfractionated heparin

b. Tissue plasminogen activator

98

Which receptor does aspirin act on to reduce platelet aggregation?

a. COX-1
b. COX-2
c. Thomoboxane A1
d. Thromboxane A2

d. Thromboxane A2

99

Which drug will have the least paralytic effects on the respiratory muscles?

a. Dantrolene
b. Guaifenesin
c. Methocarbamol
d. Diazepam

c. Methocarbamol

100

Which muscle relaxant is used as part of an intra-venous anesthesia protocol (TIVA) along with ketamine and xylazine in large animals?

a. Dantrolene
b. Methocarbamol
c. Guaifenesin
d. Fentanyl

c. Guaifenesin

101

What is the mechanism of action of Guaifenesin?

a. Blockade of nerve impulse transmission to the spinal cord
b. Calcium release blocked from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. Centrally acting muscle relaxant and expectorant
d. Modulation of membrane cation conductance

c. Centrally acting muscle relaxant and expectorant

102

Guaifenesin targets which of the nociceptive pathways?

a. Transduction
b. Transmission
c. Projection
d. Modulation
e. Perception

c. Projection

103

Which of the following drugs is clinically used to treat intervertebral disc disease? (IVDD)

a. Guaifenesin
b. Methocarbamol
c. Dantrolene
d. Atracurium

b. Methocarbamol

104

What is the drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia?

a. Dantrolene
b. Methocarbamol
c. Midazolam
d. Bromide (KBr)

a. Dantrolene

105

Which drug can be considered long acting when providing a relaxation and intubation protocol?

a. Propofol
b. Guaifenesin
c. Acepromazine
d. Dantrolene

b. Guaifenesin

106

Which drug can be used to treat muscle rigidity caused by a clostridium tetani infection?

a. Methocarbamol
b. Dantrolene
c. Fentanyl
d. Guaifenesin

b. Dantrolene

107

Process by which "seizures beget seizures" where non-epileptic regions of the brain become epileptic leading to permanent brain damage?

a. Kindling
b. Cluster seizures
c. Hypermetabolic syndrome
d. Clonus

a. Kindling

108

Anticonvulsants target which pathway of nociception?

a. Perception
b. Projection
c. Modulation
d. Transmission

c. Modulation

109

What is the drug of choice for acute therapy at home for patients with a history of status epilepticus?

a. Diazepam
b. Midazolam
c. Methocarbamol
d. Dantrolene

a. Diazepam

110

All of the following are able to treat seizures effectively except?

a. Thiopental
b. Gabapentin
c. Bromide
d. Levetiracetam

b. Gabapentin

111

All of the following have excitatory activity except?

a. Glutamate
b. Sodium current
c. Calcium current
d. GABA

d. GABA

112

What is the mechanism of action of oclacitinib?

a. Janus kinase inhibitor
b. Leukotriene inhibitor
c. H1 antagonist
d. Serotonin antagonist

a. Janus kinase inhibitor

113

Which of the following drugs does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

a. Glycopyrrolate
b. Dantrolene
c. Propantheline
d. None of the above cross the BBB

d. None of the above cross the BBB

114

Which drug is veterinary approved anticonvulsant drug to use intra-venously?

a. Alfaxolone
b. Etomidate
c. Thiopental
d. Propofol

c. Thiopental

115

Which AED is used in the treatment of status epilepticus?

a. Zonisamide
b. Levetiracetam
c. Bromide
d. Phenobarbital

b. Levetiracetam

116

Which is the best first option for the treatment of seizures in cats?

a. Bromide
b. Levetiracetam
c. Phenobarbital
d. Zonisamide

c. Phenobarbital

117

What is the mechanism of action of zonisamide?

a. Alters chloride transport across neuronal membrane
b. Prolongs the opening of calcium channels
c. Inhibits voltage gated sodium channels
d. The mechanism of action is unknown

c. Inhibits voltage gated sodium channels

118

Which is the best treatment method for acute periparturient hypocalcemia in cows?

a. Calcitriol
b. Calcium gluconate IV
c. Calcium propionate
d. Calcium chloride SQ

b. Calcium gluconate IV

119

Which glucocorticoid has the greatest potency and most duration?

a. Methyprednisolone
b. Triamcinolone
c. Dexamethasone
d. Prednisone

c. Dexamethasone

120

Using insoluble esters with glucocorticoids may prolong their duration. Which ester will provide the longest duration and onset of glucocorticoids?

a. Sodium succinate
b. Acetate
c. Sodium phosphate
d. Acetonide

b. Acetate

121

Which AED does not bind to GABA receptor to exert it's effects?

a. Levetiracetam
b. Zonisamide
c. Imepetoin
d. Bromide

b. Zonisamide

122

How does Zonisamide act to deliver anti-epileptic effect?

a. Barbiturate site on GABA receptor
b. Alters chloride transport across neuronal cell membranes
c. Inhibits neuronal voltage gated ion channels
d. Synthetic GABA agonist

c. Inhibits neuronal voltage gated ion channels

123

What is the adverse effect of Zonisamide?

a. Hepatic necrosis
b. Urinary calculi
c. Lowers WBC count
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

124

Which AED requires therapeutic plasma protein monitoring?

a. Levetiracetam
b. Bromide
c. Phenobarbital
d. Zonisamide

b. Bromide

125

Which solution can be used to treat bromide toxicity (bromism)?

a. 5% dextrose
b. Normosol-R
c. 0.9% NaCl
d. Sodium succinate dilution

c. 0.9% NaCl

126

Why is bromide contraindicated in cats?

a. Hepatotoxicity
b. Acute renal injury
c. Bronchopulmonary changes
d. Bromide is not contraindicated in cats

c. Bronchopulmonary changes

127

Use of which AED will show elevated chloride levels on bloodwork?

a. Zonisamide
b. Bromide
c. Levetiracetam
d. Phenobarbital

b. Bromide

128

Which AED has minimal side effects when used in conjunct anti-convulsant therapy?

a. Zonisamide
b. Imepetoin
c. Bromide
d. Levetiracetam

b. Imepetoin

129

Repeated seizures that occur without full recovery between them are defined as?

a. Recurrent shock
b. Cluster seizures
c. Status epilepticus
d. Breakthrough seizures

c. Status epilepticus

130

Your client explains that her dog has had 2 seizures in the past 24 hours with apparent recovery between them. This is called?

a. Breakthrough seizures
b. Cluster seizures
c. Idiopathic epilepsy
d. Refractory seizures

b. Cluster seizures

131

Which of the following drugs is the best choice to stop a seizure in progress?

a. Propofol IV
b. Midazolam IM
c. Diazepam IV
d. Methocarbamol IM

c. Diazepam IV

132

Which drug can be used in a constant rate of infusion for the acute treatment of status epilepticus?

a. Propofol
b. Diazepam
c. Thiopental
d. Midazolam

a. Propofol

133

Which injectable anesthetic causes a loose laryngeal reflex and must be used along with intubation of the patient?

a. Alfaxolone
b. Propofol
c. Etomidate
d. Thiopental

b. Propofol

134

Which injectable anesthetic will have a stronger effect on the baroreceptor reflex?

a. Alfaxolone
b. Propofol
c. Ketamine
d. Thiopental

d. Thiopental

135

Which of the following drugs would be least likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?

a. Alfaxolone
b. Propofol
c. Etomidate
d. Thiopental

c. Etomidate

136

Which of the following drugs has the most cardiovascular depressive effect?

a. Etomidate
b. Ketamine
c. Propofol
d. Alfaxolone

c. Propofol

137

Which injectable anesthetic inhibits cortisol synthesis causing a hypoadenocorticism crisis?

a. Thiopental
b. Propofol
c. Alfaxolone
d. Etomidate

d. Etomidate

138

Which of the following cannot be administered subcutaneously due to it's caustic irritant effects?

a. Calcium carbonate
b. Calcium gluconate
c. Calcium chloride
d. Calcium propionate

c. Calcium chloride

139

True or False?

Dextrose 50% solution subcutaneously can be used for the treatment of acute hypoglycemia?

False

140

Which medication is a good choice when starting an insulin therapy on a canine patient?

a. Regular insulin
b. Vetsulin
c. Glargine
d. Deter

b. Vetsulin

141

Which medication is a good choice when starting an insulin therapy on a feline patient?

a. Regular insulin
b. Vetsulin
c. Glargine
d. Detemir

c. Glargine

142

Which is an approved oral medication for diabetes?

a. Glipizide
b. NPH
c. Detemir
d. Glargine

a. Glipizide

143

What is incorrect in regards to the use of Glipizide for diabetes?

a. It is only used in cats
b. It is only useful when the pancreas is still capable of secreting insulin
c. The cause hypoglycemia by blocking K+ channels
d. It is safer than injectable for the treatment of type 2 diabetes

d. It is safer than injectable for the treatment of type 2 diabetes

144

The most potent activated form of vitamin D is?

a. Glucagon
b. Cortisol
c. Calcitriol
d. Zinc

c. Calcitriol

145

A herd oc cows need to treated for acute hypocalcemia associated with birth and lactation. Calcium levels must be regulated as soon as possible. Which of the following drugs is your treatment of choice?

a. Calcitriol per os
b. Calcium gluconate IM
c. Calcium propionate as feed additive
d. Calcium chloride IV

d. Calcium chloride IV

146

Calcium is mainly excreted by?

a. Parathyroid gland
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. GI tract

c. Kidney

147

The only insulin that can be given IV is?

a. Detemir
b. Glipizide
c. Lente
d. Regular insulin

d. Regular insulin

148

True or False?

Increasing the concentration of regular insulin will also increase its potency?

False

149

Which of the following can be used to treat hyperthyroidism in cats and is consistently efficacious?

a. Levothyroxine
b. Levetiracetam
c. Liothyronine
d. Methimazole

d. Methimazole

150

Which of the following drugs is used as a mineralocorticoid due to its similarity to aldosterone?

a. Flunixin meglumine
b. Fludrocortisone
c. DOCP
d. Fluticasone

b. Fludrocortisone

151

Which of the following mineralocorticoids would have the least sodium retention and anti-inflammatory properties?

a. Aldosterone
b. Fludrocortisone
c. DOCP
d. Fluticasone

c. DOCP

152

Which glucocorticoid offers the most potency and duration of action when used orally as a base steroid?

a. Cortisol
b. Prednisone
c. Dexamethasone
d. Triamcinolone

c. Dexamethasone

153

Which of the following is suitable to be administered IV?

a. Dexamethasone sodium phosphate
b. Methyprenisolone acetate
c. Triamcinolone acetonide
d. Triamcinolone

a. Dexamethasone sodium phosphate

154

Which of the following formulations has the longest duration?

a. Methylprednisolone sodium succinate
b. Triamcinolone acetonide
c. Prednisolone acetate
d. Methylprednisolone acetate

d. Methylprednisolone acetate

155

The endogenous glucocorticoid is?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Aldosterone
c. Cortisol
d. Dopamine

c. Cortisol

156

What is the strongest glucocorticoid?

a. Prednisone
b. Dexamethasone
c. Predisolone
d. Cortisol

b. Dexamethasone

157

The endogenous mineralocorticoid is?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Aldosterone
c. Cortisol
d. Dopamine

b. Aldosterone

158

Which of the following drugs will not target the adrenal medulla in the therapy of hyperadrenocorticism?

a. Mitotane
b. Ketoconazole
c. Trilostane
d. Pergolide

d. Pergolide

159

What is the effect of aldosterone in the kidney?

a. Helps retain sodium and excrete calcium
b. Helps retain calcium and secrete sodium
c. Helps retain sodium and excrete potassium
d. Helps retain potassium and excrete sodium

c. Helps retain sodium and excrete potassium

160

A functional mass of the adrenal medulla producing catecholamines is called a pheochromocytoma. Using _______ in therapeutic doses can help when surgically removing these tumors.

a. Prednisone
b. Phoxybenzamine
c. Phenylpropanolamine
d. Proparacaine

b. Phoxybenzamine

161

Which drug is most commonly used to treat Cushing's?

a. Trilostane
b. Fludrocortisone
c. Pergolide
d. keoconazole

a. Trilostane

162

The following drugs act directly on the synthesis of cortisol except?

a. Trilostane
b. Pergolide
c. Keoconazole
d. Mitotane

b. Pergolide

163

Which drug is used for the treatment of canine cognitive dysfunction?

a. Selegeline
b. Pergolide
c. Mitotane
d. Trilostane

a. Selegeline

164

In atypical Addison's patients lack _____ and may be treated with _____?

a. Both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid; prednisone
b. Only mineralocorticoids; prednisone + fludrocortisone
c. Only glucocorticoids; prednisone
d. Both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoid; prednisone + fludrocortisone

c. Only glucocorticoids; prednisone

165

Which drug directly targets the cells of the zona fasciculata in the adrenal cortex and used when performing adrealectomy?

a. Pergolide
b. Trilostane
c. Selegeline
d. Mitotane

d. Mitotane

166

What is the mechanism of action of selegeline?

a. Dopamine antagonist
b. Inhibits beta-3 hydroxysteroid in the cortisol pathway
c. Inhibits MAO-B to increase dopamine
d. Direct ACTH release stimulation

c. Inhibits MAO-B to increase dopamine

167

Which glucocorticoid can be used to treat pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID) in horses?

a. Pergolide
b. Trilostane
c. Selegeline
d. Mitotane

a. Pergolide

168

Most cell degranulation triggers which type of hypersensitivity?

a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4

a. Type 1

169

Which drug works by directly inhibiting pruritus?

a. Cimetidine
b. Loratadine
c. Oclacitinib
d. Diphenhydramine

c. Oclacitinib

170

What is the first line drug used for general immunosuppression?

a. Tetracycline
b. Tacrolimus
c. Cyclosporin
d. Prednisone

d. Prednisone

171

Which of the following immunosuppressive drugs is generally contraindicated in cats?

a. Azathioprine
b. Mycophenolate
c. Leflunomide
d. Cyclosporin

a. Azathioprine

172

Which of the following is an FDA approved product in canines and felines for the treatment of allergic or autoimmune dermatitis?

a. Protopica
b. Sandimmune
c. Atopica
d. Apoquel

c. Atopica

173

Which of the following is a calcineurin T-cell inhibitor?

a. Azathioprine
b. Mycophenolate
c. Leflunomide
d. Cyclosporin

d. Cyclosporin

174

All of the following are uses for cyclosporin except?

a. treatment of karatoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS)
b. Adjunct therapy of immune mediated hemolytic anemia
c. Treatment of leukemia and bone marrow suppression
d. Oral treatment of perianal fistulas

c. Treatment of leukemia and bone marrow suppression

175

Antimicrobial protocol sed in diseased herds to cure infection in some individuals and prevent infection in others is?

a. Therapeutic use
b. Anaphylactic use
c. Metaphylactic use
d. Prophylactic use

c. Metaphylactic use

176

Which antimicrobial drugs acts only on gram-negative bacteria?

a. Penicillin
b. Fluoroquinolones
c. Polymixins
d. Glycopeptides

c. Polymixins

177

Which antibiotic has the broadest spectrum of activity?

a. Penicillin
b. Macrolides
c. Metronidazole
d. Fluoroquinolones

d. Fluoroquinolones

178

Which antibiotics target the production of bacterial DNA/RNA?

a. Tetracyclin
b. Macrolides
c. Beta lactams
d. Fluoroquinolones

d. Fluoroquinolones

179

What is the mode of action on sulfonamides?

a. Target bacterial cell wall
b. Affect DNA production
c. Disrupts protein synthesis
d. Disruption of cell membrane

b. Affect DNA production

180

Polymyxins target which component of gram-negative bacteria?

a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Cell envelope
d. Genome

b. Cell membrane