Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

N1A > Pharm Midterm Review > Flashcards

Pharm Midterm Review Flashcards

(120 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Why is drug transfer to the fetus during the third semester likely

A

•⬆️placental blood flow
•⬆️fetal surface area
•⬆️free drug in mother’s circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Category A

A

No risk to human fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Category B

A

Studies indicate no risk to animal fetus, human info not available yet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Category C

A

Adverse effects in animal fetus, no human info available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Category D

A

Possible fetal risk however risk vs benefit should be considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Category x

A

Fetal abnormalities reported. This drug is not to be taken during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is diffusion

A

the passive movement of substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main physiological factor responsible for the differences between pediatric patients and adults?

A

Organ immaturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What drug discolors children’s teeth

A

Tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which drug suppresses growth in children

A

corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which abx damages cartilage causing deformities

A

quinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most accurate pediatric dosage formula

A

body surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is polypharmacy

A

the use of many different drugs concurrently which increases the risk of drug interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which lab tests are for kidney function

A

BUN, creatinine, creatinine clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which lab tests are for liver function

A

AST, ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Schedule C-1 Drug

A

only with approved protocol; research drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

schedule C-II drugs

A

written Rx only; no refills, container must have warning label

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Schedule C-III drugs

A

written or oral rx that expires in 6 months ; no more than 5 refills in 6 months; container must have warning label

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Schedule C-IV drugs

A

Written or oral rx that expires in 6 months; no more than 5 refills in 6 months; container must have warning label

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Schedule C-V drugs

A

written rx or over the counter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

IND

A

Investigational new drug: a drug for use in experiments to determine safety and efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

informed consent

A

permission obtained from a patient consenting to a specific test or procedure, must be informed, voluntary, patient mentally competent, and patient has the right to withdraw at any time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

in vitro phase

A

studies using tissue samples and cell cultures in test tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

preclinical testing

A

animal studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
phase I
small number of healthy subjects; to determine optimal dosage range
26
phase II
small number of volunteers with disease ; determine drug efficacy and side effects
27
Phase III
large number of subjects or study participants
28
Placebo
inert substance that is not a drug used to separate the real benefits of a drug from apparent benefits arising from researcher or subject bias
29
blind study
subject does not know whether he got placebo or IND
30
Double blind study
neither subject nor researcher know if participant received placebo or IND
31
Phase IV
postmarketing studies voluntarily conducted by pharmaceutical company
32
Autonomy
self determination and the ability to act on one’s own
33
Beneficence
the ethical principle of doing or actively promoting good
34
confidentiality
the duty to respect privileged information about a patient
35
justice
the ethical principle of being fair or equal in one’s actions
36
Nonmaleficence
the duty to do no harm to a patient
37
veracity
the duty to tell the truth
38
drug polymorphism
variation in response to a drug based on a person’s age, gender, race, size, or body composition
39
slow acetylators
people who metabolize drugs at a slower rate
40
Culture
an integrated system of beliefs, values, and customs that are associated with a particular group of people
41
cultural competence
the ability to work with patients with proper consideration for the cultural context which includes patients’ belief systems and values regarding health, wellness, and illness
42
Ethnicity
ethnic affiliation based on shared culture or genetic heritage or both
43
ethnopharmacology
the study of the effect of ethnicity on drug responses, drug absorption, metabolism, distribution, and excretion
44
race
a class of individuals with a common lineage
45
Madeline leininger
sunrise model on transcultural nursing
46
adverse drug effect
any undesirable occurrence regarding medications
47
medication error
preventable ADE involving inappropriate medication use
48
adverse drug reaction
unexpected, unintended, or undesired response to medications driven at therapeutic dose
49
iatrogenic
disease or condition caused by the cure
50
nosocomial
disease or sxs acquired after hospitalization
51
pharmaceutical phase
disintegration of dosage form; dissolution of drug in the body
52
pharmacokinetic phase
absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
53
Pharmacodynamic phase
drug-receptor interaction
54
What is the primary site of process or absorption
mucosa of the stomach, mouth, small intestine or rectum; blood vessels in the muscles or subcutaneous tissues; or dermal layers
55
What is the primary site of the process of distribution
circulatory system, through capillaries and across cell membranes
56
what is the primary site of the process of metabolism
liver
57
what is the primary site of the process of excretion
Kidneys, sweat gland, lungs, or intestines
58
First pass effect
antyhing going thru the intestines when absorbed end up going thru the liver for processing before ending up in systemic circulation. Detoxifies anything absorbed from intestines before entering systemic circulation to avoid damaging tissues. EX: Nitro taken sublingually is not effected by the first pass effect
59
The most common blood protein that carries the majority of protein-bound drug molecules
albumin
60
Low albumin
increased risk of drug toxicity
61
what is half life
the time required for one half of a given drug to be removed from the body
62
Agonist
the better the fit the better response, complete attachment
63
antagonist
drugs that attach but do not elicit a response
64
Partial agonists or agonist-antagonists
drugs that attach, elicit some response, block other responses
65
Competitive antagonist
drug competes with the agonist for binding to the receptor, if it binds, there is no response
66
noncompetitive antagonist
Drug combines with different parts of the receptor and inactivates it; agonist then has no effect
67
acute therapy
more intensive drug tx; acutely ill or critically ill
68
maintenance therapy
Prevent progression of a disease or condition; chronic illnesses
69
supplemental therapy
supplies the body with a substance needed to maintain normal function; i.e. insulin for diabetics
70
palliative therapy
goal is to make the patient as comfortable as possible; end stages of an illness
71
supportive therapy
maintains the integrity of body functions while the patient is recovering from illness or trauma; fluids and electrolytes
72
prophylactic therapy
drug therapy to prevent illness; example: abx before surgery
73
empiric therapy
based on clinical probabilities
74
Therapeutic index
the ratio of a drug’s toxic level to the level that provides therapeutic benefits
75
higher TI
safer
76
lower TI
less safe
77
Acetaminophen antidote
acetylcysteine
78
benzodiazepines antidote
flumazenil
79
Opiates antidote
narcan
80
heparin antidote
protamine
81
Coumadin antidote
vitamin K
82
What are the four mechanisms of action of abx
1. Inhibit protein synthesis 2. Inhibit bacterial cell wall syntheis 3. Inhibit RNA and DNA replication 4. Anti metabolite action
83
Birth - 1 yo
trust vs mistrust
84
3-6 years old
initiative vs guilt
85
6-12 years old
industry vs inferiority
86
12-18 years old
identity vs role confusion
87
18-45 years old
intimacy vs isolation
88
45-65 years old
generativity vs stagnation
89
over 65 years old
integrity vs despair
90
Pharmacokinetics
What the body does to the drug
91
Pharmacodynamics
What the drug does to the body
92
What part of the cell makes proteins
Ribosomes
93
Which cell turns into macrophage
monocytes
94
What is a superinfection
a strong infection caused by antibiotics killing normal bacteria flora and allowing other organisms to cause infection
95
Superinfection caused by c diff resulting in watery diarrhea, abd pain, and fever
pseudomembranous colitis
96
signs and sxs of INFECTION
fever, chills, sweats, redness, pain, swelling, fatigue, weight loss, increased WBC, pus formation and discharge
97
signs and sxs of ALLERGIC REACTION
rash, pruritis, hives, fever, chills, joint pain, dyspnea, wheezing
98
signs and sxs of ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
flushing, itching, hives, anxiety, tachycardia, throat/tongue edema - LIFE THREATENING
99
What is beta-lactamase
enzyme that destroys the beta-lactam ring of beta-lactam abx; inhibits synthesis of bacterial peptidoglycan cell wall
100
the only PO beta-lactamase inhibitor antiobiotic
augmentin
101
the most common beta-lactamase inhibitor antibiotic
Zosyn
102
why is erythromycin not used as commonly as before
GI upset
103
chelate
grabs calcium. In tetracycline and the reason it cannot be given to children
104
The mosquito that carries malaria
Anopheles
105
Which antibiotic cannot be taken with alcohol
Flagyl
106
How long does vancomycin need to be infused over
60 minutes
107
which antibiotic is used for UTI in pregnancy
Macrodantin (Nitrofurantoin)
108
which abx is used for MRSA
Vancomycin
109
which abx sees neutrophil and attack bacteria
quinolones
110
What is the first WBC at the site of infection
neutrophils
111
anti metabolite abx
*sulfonamides *Macrodantin (Nitrofurantoin)
112
cell wall synthesis inhibition abx
*penicillins *cephalosporins *carbapenems *monobactams *vancomycin
113
DNA replication inhibition abx
*quinolones *metronidazole
114
Protein synthesis inhibition abx
*macrolides *tetracyclines *clindamycin *Linezolid (Zyvox)
115
Synergistic effect
combined effects of 2 abx greater than the effect of one
116
postantibiotic effect
period of continued bacterial growth suppression that occurs after short term abx exposure
117
what is the sugar in DNA
Ribose
118
Which abx is used for Rocky Mountain Fever
doxycycline
119
which abx is used for Lime disease
Tetracyline
120
what is a common side effect of tetracycline
*photosensitivity *avoid sunlight, wear sunscreen

N1A (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions