pharm new version Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

what are the side effetcs of calcium channel blockers

A
  1. hypotension ,
    2, constipation
  2. headaches
  3. peripheral oedema

ccb’s: amlodipine (vasoselective), verapamil and diltiazem (cardio-selective)

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2
Q

what is baxdrostat

A

selective inhibitor of aldosterone synthase

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3
Q

what is aprocitentan

A

endothelin antagonist (PRECISION trial)

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4
Q

what drugs can be used in pregnancy (for hypertension)

A

labetalol (combined non selective B receptor antagonist + a1 blocker)

nifedipine (dihydropyridine - calcium channel blocker) but shorter half life than amlodipine

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5
Q

what are the significant absolute contradincations when considering anti-hypertensives?

A
  1. ACEi and ARB: hyperK (> 5.5) and pregnancy
    - bilateral severe renal artery stenosis
  2. diuretics: active gout (hyperuricaemia)
  3. beta-blockers: acute asthma excerbation
  4. beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers: bradycardia, heart block.
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6
Q

which alpha blocker cna produce parkinsonism

A

methydopa

May produce Parkinsonism
Hyperprolactinaemia, gynaecomastia and rarely, galactorrhea
Hepatotoxicity uncommon (5% of patients have abnormal LFTs)
Haemolytic anaemia

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7
Q

why are beta blockers useful in hypertension

A

Inhibits renin release from juxtaglomerular apparatus (stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system via B1 receptors)

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8
Q

what is sacubitril

A

Nephrilysin inhibitors, e.g. Sacubitril act by inhibiting Neprilysin, which is responsible for the breakdown of natriutic peptide into its inactive forms. Sacubitril acts by increasing levels of natriuretic peptide, increasing its effect, which is natriuesis (increasing Na+ and water excretion), vasodilation (decreasing TPR and afterload) and inhibiton of the RAAS system.

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9
Q

what are the 4 classes in the vaughan-williams classification

A
  1. sodium channel blocers
  2. beta blockers
  3. potassium channel blockers
  4. calcium channel blocers
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10
Q

what class is quinidine

A

class Ia

Blocks Na+ conductance
Blocks multiple K+ channels
Prolongs AP, vagal inhibition (increasing HR)
Recurrent ventricular arrhythmias

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11
Q

what class is lignocaine

A

IB

Blocks cardiac Na+ channels

Ventricular arrhythmias post-MI
C/I: AV block
SE: CNS side effects *

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12
Q

what class is flecainide

A

Flecainide is Ic

Blocks Na+ channels
Shortens AP
Supraventricular arrhythmia including AFib.
C/I: LV dysfunction, heart failure

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13
Q

what is the ABC approach to Afib

A

AFib approach: ABC
1. Anticoagulation and Avoid stroke
2. Better symptom control (rate and rhythm control)
3. CVS risk factors and concomitant disease management.

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14
Q

what drugs can cause brady cardia

A

Pharmacodynamic:
Beta Blockers + Digoxin + Verapamil = Heart Block
Beta Blockers + Verapamil - negative chronotropes (reduce heart rate) and negative inotropes (decrease myocardial contractility). When used together, they can lead to excessive suppression of heart rate and cardiac contractility, causing bradycardia, heart block, or even heart failure in susceptible patients.
Pharmacokinetics:
Verapamil + Digoxin - Verapamil inhibits the P-glycoprotein (P-gp) transporter, a protein that plays a crucial role in the elimination of digoxin from the body. When verapamil is administered, it can reduce digoxin clearance, leading to increased digoxin plasma levels and a higher risk of digoxin toxicity (manifesting as gastrointestinal symptoms, arrhythmias, or CNS disturbances).

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15
Q

side effects of amiordarone

A

CROHN-DE

CVS - brady, hypotension, qtc prolongations and arrhythmias (torsades)
Resp - pulmonary fibrosis
Ocular - corneal microdeposits
Hepatic - enzyme inhibition, abnormal LFTs
Neuromuscular - peripheral neuropath
Derm - photosensitivity
Endocrine - hypo or hyperthyroidism

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16
Q

what drug interaactions does amiordaone have

A

CYP enzyme inhibitor: could increase warfarin (CYP 2C9) concentration
P-glycoprotein inhibitor: increase digoxin (PgP) uptake and concentration
Hence interaction with digoxin may be PK and PD. (Amiordarone produces bradycardia, so does digoxin)

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17
Q

what CYP can amiodarone inhibit

A

2C9

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18
Q

what are the 2 most impt side effects of all statins

A
  1. hepatotoxicity
    - most likely in the first few months
    - monitor LFTs, basline and while on treatment
    - if AST and ALT > x3 of ULN, stop/avoid the statin
  2. myopathy which can progress to rhabdomyolyisis
    - presenting as muscle pain or weakness
    - muscle specific CK levels rise, can be up to x5-10 ULN, so monitor
    - AKI possible
    - if symptoms resolve, consider rechallengign with lower dose or alternate statin
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19
Q

what enzyme does statins inhibit

A

hmg-coa reductase

Inhibits HMG-coA reductase (cholesterol synthesis), causes
1. Activation of SREBP, upregulation of LDL receptors
2. Depletion of cholesterol supply, reduction of VLDL synthesis

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20
Q

what statin is not metabolised by CYP450

A

pravastatinwh

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21
Q

which is the preferred stattin of choice

A

atorvastatin

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22
Q

what receptor does Ezetimibe act on

A

NPC1L1 (enterocyte absorption of cholesterol)

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23
Q

what receptors does cholestyramine inhibit

A

trick question

it binds to bile acids and salts in the small intestine, and the resin/bile acid complex is excreted in the poop, lowering bile acid concentraton.
1. liver uptakes more cholesterol containing LDL particles to make more bile, hence decrease blood LDL levels
2. upregulation of LDL receptors

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24
Q

which lipid therapy agent itnerferes with absorptio of fat soluble vitamins

A

cholestyramine

Interferes with absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, thyroxine, thiazide diuretics, digoxin, warfarin, beta blocks, therefore taken at least 1h before or after 4-6h after taking the resin

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25
what are examples of PCSK9 inhibitors
mAbs: Evolucumab siRNA: Inclisiran
26
what enzyme does bempedoic acid inhibit
ATP citrate lyase, upstream inhibition of HMG-coA reductase
27
which P2y12 inhibitor is not a prodrug
ticagrelor
28
what enzyme is warfarin metabolised by
2c9
29
receptor that warfarin acts on
vitamin K epoxide reductase inhibitor
30
what is the antidote for warfarin
vitamin K
31
what is the antidote for heparin
can cause heparin induced thrombocytopenia protamine sulphate
32
what are the indications for DOACs
1. VTE prophylaxis for THR/TKR (not Edoxaban) 2. Stroke prevention in patietns wtih NVAF 3. Tx and preventino of DVT/PE 4. prevention of atherosclerothromboembolic events in patients with CAD/PAD together with aspirin (only Rivaroxaban)
33
what are DOACs contraidicated in
Age ( ≥ 80 years) Renal function (serum creatinine ≥ 133 umol/L) Weight (< 60kg) CrCl < 15 ml/min
34
what is the reversal agent for dabigatran
idarucizumab
35
what are the side effects of ticagrelor of significance
transient dyspnea and bradycardia (C/I in paitents with heart bloc) - but also C/I in liver failure, prev stroke or TIA, and bradycardai
36
what is the first line manamgent of patients in acute STEMI
1. morphine (chest paain) + cyclizine to prvent opioid induced n&V 2. atropine (treating with bradycardia and hypotension) 3. PCI ASAP (within 90 minutes of first medical contact) - all paitents should be given Triple therapy, which is Aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor + Anticogulant (Enoxaparin)
37
what is the manamgent of NSTEMI
1. antiischaemic agents - aim is to decrease myocardial o2 demand and increase O2 supply - nitrates (e.g. ISMN) - beta-blockers - calcium channel blockers, e.g. dilttiazem, verapamil and amlodipine (vasodilation) 2. DAPT 3. Anti-coagulants
38
managment of acute stable angina pectoris
1. antiischemic agents 2. anti-platelets 3.statins 4. ACEIs
39
why is ome / esomeprazole contraindicated with clopidogrel (e.g. in DAPT+PPI)
ome ihibitrs 2C19, which is required for clopidgrel and prasugrel activation
40
how does metform act
1. increased insulin sensitivty 2. decerased hepatic glucose production
41
side effects of metform
1. GIT upset 2. Lactic acidosis 3. B12 deficiency
42
which ACE inhibitors are not prodrugs
lisinopril and captopril
43
which drugs inhibit de novo purine synthesis
methotrexate mycophenolate mofetil axathioprine
44
whats the difference btwn tacrolimus, ciclosporin and sirolimus
ciclosporin and tacrolimus are calcineurin inhibitors sirolimus is a mTOR kinase regulator inhibior
45
what are some side effects common to all of the monoclonal antibodies
1. acute infusion reactions, including anaphylaxis 2. infection, reactivation of TB and HelpB 3. increased risk of haematorlogical and solid malignancies
46
what are benralizumab, mepolizumab and reslizumab inhibiting
anti-IL-5's used in paitents with severe asthma, frequent exacerbations and high eosinophil counts. as an add on therapy with inhaled corticosteroids and other asthma medication.
47
what are hte side effects of nirmatrelvir
nause and vomiting diarrhoea
48
what is the indication for terbinafine
indicated in the treatment of the fungal infectinos of the skin and nail, caused by Trichophyton
49
what are the side effects of DPP-4 inhibitors and GLP-1 agonists
DPP-4 inhibitors: GIT disturbance, pancreatitis, autoimmune skin conditions GLP-1 agonists: GIT disturbance, pancreatitis (rare), injection site reactions
50
why are GLP-1 agonists preferred over DPP-4 inhibitors
- Sitagliptin associated with increased risk of HF - GLP-1 agonists have (i) CVS protective effects and (ii) weight loss TECOS trial: found to be safe but provided no benefit SUSTAIN6: safe, decreased incidence of CVDs, beneficial in secondary prevention and the preferred second line agent in T2DM managment STEP: weight loss regardless wthr they hv diabetes or not
51
what did the TECOS, SUSTAIN6 and STEP trials prove
TECOS trial: found DPP-4 inhibitors to be safe but provided no benefit SUSTAIN6: semaglutide safe, decreased incidence of CVDs, beneficial in secondary prevention and the preferred second line agent in T2DM managment STEP: weight loss regardless wthr they hv diabetes or not
52
what is 3rd line indication ofr T2DM
sulphonyureas (empaglifozin)
53
side effects of sGLT-2
- euglycaemic DKA - UTI and genital tract infections - hypotension from volumen depletion - increased risk of fractures and lower limb amputations (canaglofozin)
54
which drugs is the CREDENCE and EMPEROR-preserved trials pointing to
SGLT-2 inhitbors, e.g. Empaglifozin
55
what is the MOA of sulphonyureas
atp-dependent K+ channels on beta cells increased insulin exocytosis inot the bloodstream
56
side effect of sulphonyureas
- beta call exhaustion - hypoglycaemia - weight gain CREDENCE: safe in CVD but show no benefit
57
which classes of T2DM drugs show superiorty of CVOT
- GLP-1 (SUSTAIN6) - SGLT-2 (CREDENCE - kidney, EMPEROR-p/r for HF)
58
which T2DM drugs help with weight loss
GLP-1: semglutide GLP/GIP receptor agonsits: tirapatide
59
what is teripatide
recombinant PTH increasing osteoblast activation an dincreasing bone anabolism acting to increase BMD
60
which drug has a side effect of flu-like symptoms
IV Zoledronate
61
Acetazolamide side effects
A/Es: MENBAS SJS Metabolic acidosis, causing fatigue N&V, abdominal pain Electrolyte imbalances, e.g. hypokalemia causing paresthesia and impaired hearing (tinnitus) BM suppression, causing aplastic anaemia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia Abnormal LFTs
62
what is the MOA beta-2 agonsits used in asthma
1. bronchial SM relaxation 2. inhibition of bronchoconstrictino mediators from mast cells 3. inhibition of tnf-a from monocytes 4. increase mucous secertion for ciliary elevator
63
saba e.g.
salbuterol 3-5 min onset 15 min peaking used in prn asthma
64
laba e.g.
salmeterol 12h long acting highly lipophilic, not for acute attack, but for asthmatics with no symptoms but got ongoing inflammation in te nose used with ICS
65
action of M3 inhibitors used in resp
1. competitive inhibition of M3, bronchoconstriction 2. inhibition of mucous secretion
66
side effects of beta-2 agonists in
- tremor - tachycardia - hypokalaemai
67
side effects of muscarinic agonists in resp
anti-cholinergic symptoms - dry, hot, mad, red, full and blind
68
e.g. of lama and sama
ipratropium tiotropium
69
theophylline
pde inhibitor