Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

KAPS Paper 1 > Pharmacology 1 > Flashcards

Pharmacology 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The pharmacological effects of sumatriptan arise from its ability to:

A

Antagonise the actions of serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Each of the following is a major determinant of myocardial oxygen demand EXCEPT
for:

A

Coronary blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Antidote for belladona/
anticholinergic drugs overdose

A

PHYSOSTIGMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Beta 3 receptor agonist used im tx of overactive bladder

A

Mirabegron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MAOi used in tx of movement disorders
(clue benjamin/musa)

A

Tetrabenazine SE suicidal toughts
Reserpine also for paychiatric disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Selective Beta blockers without Intrinsic Sympathetic Activity

A

AMEBBN

Atenolol
Metoprolol
Esmolol
Bisoprolol
Nevibolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Non selective beta blockers without ISA
(Clue Vee’s luggage)

A

PNSTT

Propranolol
Nadolol
Sotalol
Timolol
Tortalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Succinylcholine should be taken with caution in patients taking

A

Phospholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nylidrin use

A

Vasodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Short acting DEPOLARIZING skeletal muscle reaxant

A

Suxamethonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Skeletal muscle relaxant

A

Meprobamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Levarterenol is also called

A

L-NOREPINEPHRINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dose of Atropine

A

0.2 - 2 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cause hemodynamic alteration, initial tachycardia

A

ATROPINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Similar action to atropine

A

BETHANECOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cholinergic agonist

A

Carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

COMT does not metabolize

A

ISOPRENALINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CENTRALLY acting muscle relaxant

A

DANTROLENE

SE: seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PERIPHERALY acting skeletal muscle relaxants

A

BACLOFEN
ORPHENADRINE
CYCLOBENZAPRINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Adrenaline is metabolized by

A

MAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MAOi(pargyline) + Phenylephrine will cause

A

Elevated BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ACH is

A

Choline ester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Damage of protein and peptides is due to

A

Deamination & oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tubocurarine MOA

A

Blocks postsynaptic ganglia
By competitive antagonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pts different response to suxamethonium is due to

A

Alternation in PSEUDOCHOLINESTERASE enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Antiarrythmic causing pulmonary fibrosis, blood discrasias

A

Tocainide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The use of sotalol, it is necessary to monitor

A

CrCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sotalol causes

A

TDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Quinidine causes which toxicity

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Quinidine SE

A

Cinchonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Drug of choice in tx of Atrioventricular reinterent tachycardia

A

Procainamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Decreases toxicity of digoxin

A

Na Lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Increases QT interval

A

Ketokonazole
Cisapride
Phenothiazine
Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CHF patients requires dose adjustment of lidocaine because of

A

Impaired liver/metabolism
Of lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Do not treat ventricular arrythmia

A

Digitialis
Tx of atrial arrythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Amiodarone causes

A

Yellow deposits on cornea
Photosensitivity
Occular/sight problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Adam stoke syndrome is cause by

A

Heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ventricular contraction is

A

Systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Mimics serotonin action

A

Sumatriptan
CI in CHF, angina & MAOi’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tocoloytic, oxytocic, uterine relaxation

A

Ritodrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Prostaglandin is related to

A

Fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tx of Reynolds disease

A

Pentoxyphylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Serotonin antagonist in the brain

A

Methylsergide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Produces cardiac stimulation

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Used in tx of migrane, post partum hemorrhage

A

Ergotamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Ergot alkaloids not taken sublingually

A

Ergometrin
Ergotamine Maleate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Antihistamin & anti 5HT (serotonin)

A

Cyproheptadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

2nd generation antihistamine not causing drowsiness

A

Astimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Used for patent ductus arteriosus

A

Alprostadil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Most common complication of MI

A

Ventricular fibrilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Most specific lab investigation for MI

A

Cardiac troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A risk factor not related to MI

A

Rheumativ fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Prescribe to pts with angina+ HTN

A

Na Nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ther dose of gyceryl trinitrate

A

0.5 - 1mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Nitrogycerin increases which sexondary messenger

A

C-GMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Finrinolytics(thrombolytics) are CI in

A

Duodenal ulcer pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In MI it is necessary to monitor the level of

A

CPK
Increased level in CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The only antianginal inhalation

A

Amyl Nitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Perhexiline use

A

Prophylactic antianginal
Coronary vessel dilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Decreases metabolism of perhexiline

A

Chlropromazine
Acebutolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Betaxolol can worsen which cardiac condition

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

CI in use of NGT

A

Alcohol
Sildenafil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Warfarin’s aftivity is due to

A

Optical isomer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Streptokinase dose

A

1.5MIU IV/ 60 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Streptokinase administration interval

A

6months
12 months if pt on antiplatelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Antidote for heparin overdose

A

Protamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Normal prothrombin time

A

12-15 secs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Normal APTT
(Activated partial thromboplastin time)

A

30-45 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Heparin is obtained from

A

Beef lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Warfarin inhibits which enzyme

A

K epoxide reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Protamine dose limit in tx of heparin overdose

A

Not more than 100mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

In mild to moderate bleeding, The use of vit k in anti coagulant therapy will make it difficult to

A

Bridging therapy
To cover delayed action of warfarin use enoxaparin or heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Normal APTT
(Activated partial thromboplastin time)
Is used to measure

A

Heprin anticoagulation activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Used to reverse hypo prothrombinemia

A

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Anticoagulant DOC in pregnancy

A

Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Clofibrate decrease platelet aggregation but increases (old fibrates)

A

HEPATIC CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Used to tx of streptokinase overdose

A

Aminocaproic acid
Tranexamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Used in tx of sever bleeding/hemorrhage

A

Vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In coagulation factors, thrombin and fibrin requires which ion

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

LMW heprin are prefered As it can be given

A

IM
Heparin by IM cause HEMATOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Sulfazaline is metabolized to

A

5-amino salicylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Used in tx of rheumatoid arthritis & ulcerative colitis (chron’s disease)

A

Sulfazalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Methotrexate and salicylate will cause

A

Bone marrow depression- anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Goeckerman treatment consists

A

Coal tar + UV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Dithranol used in psoriasis, therapeutic dose

A

0.1- 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Dithranol is stabilized in preparation of

A

ZnO paste + 2% salicilic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Cyclosporine and methotrexate are

A

Immunosuppressants
Cyclo- gum hyperplasia, not to combine with other immunosuppressants

88
Q

oral solution to be mixed with milk, chocolate milk or orange juice to consume immediately

A

Cyclosporin

89
Q

Butazolidin: To be mixed with milk, antacids or meals to decrease

A

Gastric irritation

90
Q

Methotrexate antidote

A

Folinic acid

91
Q

Lupus symptoms

A

Butterfly rash

92
Q

Tx of MS

A

Interferon B1
Baclofen
Dantrolene

93
Q

Has NO loading dose
Cause GIT disturbance
Bind to Na/K ATPase pump
- SE Hypokalemia, Arrythmia
Excreted unchange in KIDNEYS
-dose adjustment in RENAL impairment (elderly)

A

DIGOXIN

94
Q

Used in digitalis toxicity

A

Potassiumm
K

95
Q

Symptoms such as sweating and dyspnea

A

CHF

96
Q

Inotropics such B agonists increase entry of which ion

A

Calcium
Ca

97
Q

Dose of digitalis

A

0.125- 0.25mg daily

98
Q

Digoxin absorption is decreased by

A

KCChENT

Kaolin
Cimetidine
Cholestyramine
Erythromycin
Neomycin
Tetracycline

99
Q

Clearance of Digitalis and Digoxin

A

Digitalis- Hepatic (bound to albumin)
Digoxin- Renal

100
Q

Alternative to digoxin
Tx of CHF

A

Amrinone

101
Q

Blood is fastest in

A

Arterioles

102
Q

LisinoBril max dose

A

Bente 20mg

103
Q

Right HF Sx

A

Systemic Edema

Left HF- LUNGS 🫁 Dyspnea

104
Q

Digoxin + Verapamil

A

⬆️digoxin level

Verapamil inhibits metabolism (CYP3A4)

105
Q

Amiodarone is an

A

Anti arrythmia

106
Q

Amiloride is an

A

K sparing diuretics

107
Q

Cooleys Disease is also known as

A

Familial erythroblastic, Thalasemia

a genetic blood disorder characterized by reduced or absent production of hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells.

108
Q

Hansen’s disease

A

Leprosy

109
Q

Thiotixine classification

A

ANTIPSYCHOTIC

110
Q

Protryptiline

A

ANTIDEPRESSANT

111
Q

Trimethadione

A

Anticonvulsant

112
Q

Oxazepam classification

A

Anxiolytic

113
Q

Trimethobenzamide use

A

ANTIEMETIC

114
Q

Isocarboxazide classification

A

MAO INHIBITOR

115
Q

Tripelennamine

A

ANTIHISTAMINE

116
Q

Drug that cause osteoporosis, given alternate days

A

PREDNISOLONE

117
Q

Overgrowth of fibrous tissue

A

Sclerosis

118
Q

inflammation of the vertebrae, which are the bones that make up the spine.

A

Spondylitis

119
Q

Mgt of rheumatoid arthritis

A

NSAID
DMARDS

120
Q

A chelating agent, used in rheumatoid arthritis and wilson’s disease

A

PENICILLAMINE

121
Q

Tx of HYPOparathyroidism
Sx: HypoCal, HyperPhosphatemia

A

PARICALCITROL
Calcitriol
Dihydrotachysterol

Vit D

122
Q

Parathyroid glands affect abosorption of

A

CALCIUM

123
Q

Used in tx of rheumatoid arthritis. pregnancy category X

A

LEFLUNOMIDE

124
Q

Etarnecept is for rheumatoid arthritis not for

A

OSTEOARTHRITIS

125
Q

Early morning symptoms of stiffness/rigidity tx

A

BENSTROPINE

126
Q

Colchicene dose

A

500mcg

127
Q

Aspirin dose for rheumatoid arthritis

A

6 gm

128
Q

Sx hypercortisone secretion, hypoparathyroidism, low level of estrogen

A

OSTEOPOROSIS

129
Q

Alendromate not to be given sitting/lying down as it cause

A

ESOPHAGEAL ULCER

130
Q

Parathyroid: Increased phosphate will cause

A

HYPOCALCEMIA

131
Q

pannus refers to abnormal tissue growth that occurs in the synovium, the lining of the joint.

A

RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

132
Q

The combinition of phenobarbitone and chloramphenicol will result in

A

PPT of BARBITURIC ACID

133
Q

Fast onset and short duration hypnotic

A

ZOLPIDEM

134
Q

Short acting Benzodiazepine and hypnotic in elderly

A

TRIAZOLAM

135
Q

Ultra short acting barbiturate

A

THIOPENTAL

136
Q

Benzodiazepine that is metabolized by GLUCORONIDATION

A

TEMAZEPAM

137
Q

Temazepam is oxidized outside the liver to it’s INACTIVE metabolite as

A

OXAZEPAM

138
Q

Tryptiphan and doxylamine are

A

Sleep aids

139
Q

Phenobarbital is a metabolite of

A

PRIMADONE

140
Q

Phenobarbitone (basic) ppt in the

A

URINE
(Acidic)

141
Q

Normal dose of chloral hydrate

A

0.3 - 2g

142
Q

Benzodiazepine causing daytime sedation (30hrs), is avoided in elderly to avaid falls
- accumulation of sedative effects

A

NITRAZEPAM

143
Q

An inhibitory NT causing INC in Cl conductance

A

GABA A

144
Q

An inhibitory NT causing INC in K conductance
(DEC in Ca)

A

GABA B

145
Q

Most suitable sedative in elderly

A

LORAZEPAM

146
Q

Longest duration BZD (1-3 days) found to be LEAST effective and causes hangover

T1/2 <100hrs

Requiring several nights to become mac effective

A

FLURAZEPAM

147
Q

Drug induced jaundice, hyperbilirubinemia tx.

Failure of tx is caused by premature discontinuation

A

PHENOBARBITAL

148
Q

Diazepam and temazepam difference

A

Dizepam longer duration

149
Q

Drug that induce it’s own metabolism in long term use

A

CARBAMAZEPINE

150
Q

An antiaxiety agent. Having LESS sedative, muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant effect

A

BUSPIRONE

151
Q

Duration of action of barbiturates

A

LONG: Phenobarbital
INTERM: Amo/buta
SHORT: Pento/Seco
ULTRA S: Thiopental

152
Q

Barbiturates are metabolized by

A

SULFATE CONJUGATION

153
Q

BZD: Chlordiazepoxide, diazepam, chlorazepate, prazepam are all metabolized in the liver by oxidation to

A

DESMETHYLDIAZEPAM

154
Q

BZD used in anesthetics

A

MIDAZOLAM

155
Q

DIAZEPAM will cause pptn in NS. What is the suitable solution

A

70% H2O
10%
20% PEG

156
Q

is a medication used to treat asthma by inhibiting the action of an enzyme called 5-lipoxygenase.

A

ZILEUTON

157
Q

leukotriene receptor antagonists.

A

ZAFIRLUKAST
MONTELUKAST

158
Q

The amount of air breathed in and out during a normal breath. In asthma, this might be normal or slightly decreased.

A

Tidal Volume (TV)

159
Q

The maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation. Asthma may reduce this volume due to increased resistance in the airways.

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

160
Q

The maximum amount of air that can be EXHALED after a normal exhalation. Asthma can lead to difficulties in fully exhaling, potentially reducing this volume.

A

Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)

161
Q

The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal exhalation. In asthma, this volume might be slightly increased due to air trapping.

A

Residual Volume (RV)

162
Q

The maximum amount of air a person can exhale after taking the deepest breath possible. It may be reduced in asthma due to limitations in inspiratory and expiratory volumes.

A

Vital Capacity (VC):

163
Q

The amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in one second. Asthma often results in a decreased of this volume due to airway obstruction.

A

Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1):

164
Q

GOPRC ezyme inductors means

A

Griseofluvin
Omeprazole
Phenytoin
Rifampicin
Carbamazepine

165
Q

Antidote for theophyline toxicity

A

B BLOCKERS

166
Q

Theophylline SE

A

ANTT

ANXIETY
NV
TACHYCARDIA
TREMORS

167
Q

Anti asthma drug that is given via slow IV (10-20mg/L)

A

THEOPHILLINE

168
Q

Theophylline + ethelyn diamine

Better used rectally

A

AMINOPHYLLINE

169
Q

Theophylline can be potentiated by

A

COCCE IN theophylline

CARBAMAZEPINE
OMEP
CIMETIDINE
CIPROFLOXAXIN
ERYTHRO

INFLUENZA VACCINE

170
Q

A mast cell stabilizer used for asthma prophylaxis, allergic asthma and does not cause direct bronchodilation

A

SODIUM CHROMOGLYCATE

171
Q

Normal adult dose of Salbutamol,

To use 10 minutes before betamethasone inhaler

A

1-10mg
Can also lower BP

172
Q

Used for seasonal asthma

A

CORTICOSTEROIDS

173
Q

In RAGWEED ALLERGY, Avoid

A

PYRETHRINS

natural insecticide derived from chrysanthemum flowers

174
Q

Increases theophylline by 100%

A

INTEFERONE

175
Q

Avoid giving to children under 10.
Inhaler or long acting theophylline is okay

A

ORAL PREDNISLONE (tab)
Over 10 is okay - longterm

176
Q

Secondary messenger which is decreased in asthma

A

c-CAMP

177
Q

Methylxanthines MOA

A

Phosphodiesterase Inhibition:

It inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase. Phosphodiesterase normally breaks down cyclic AMP (cAMP).

By inhibiting phosphodiesterase, methylxanthines increase intracellular cAMP levels.

178
Q

Long residence of CO2 in the body will result to

A

HYPOVENTILATION

LACTIC ACIDOSIS- dec in HCO3

179
Q

Preferred first line of therapy in asthma (ER)

A

B AGONIST

Aminophylline iv infusion- acute

180
Q

Resp stimulant in COPD
⬆️ resp depth
Not resp rate

A

DOXAPRAM

181
Q

Prophylaxis for exercise induced asthma

A

CROMOLYN SODIUM

182
Q

Drug used in asthma that:
* inhibit release of mediators
* antiinflammatory
* decongestant
* ⬇️ immune reactions
* ⬇️ airway hyperresponsiveness

A

CORTICOSTEROIDS

183
Q

Mucolytic, decreases mucous membrane hyperplasia

A

CARBOXYMETHYLCYSTEIN

184
Q

Drugs sensitivity to this drug causes asthma by:
1. Decreasing prostaglandin synthesis
2. Increasing leukotriene synthesis

A

ASPIRIN

185
Q

Theophylline concentration is reduced by

A

SMOKING
CIPROFLOXACIN

186
Q

Formoterol onset of action

A

10-20 minutes

187
Q

Oxidation of ethylene glycol will give
(Also metabolism of ascorbic acid)

A

OXALIC ACID

188
Q

Leukocytes, basophils, eosinophils, monocytes, lymphocytes are

A

WBC

189
Q

Unamatured RBC’s are called

A

RETICULOCYTES

190
Q

Highest count in plasma

A

ERYTHOCYTES

191
Q

Erythocyte of iron deficiency

A

MICROCYTIC
HYPOCHROMATIC

192
Q

Blood speed is faster in arteries or arterioles?

A

ARTERIES

193
Q

is a diagnostic test used to investigate the cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, specifically determining if the deficiency is due to malabsorption.

A

Schilling’s test

194
Q

RBC + HYPERTONIC SOLUTION

A

CRENATION
shrink or shrivel due to the loss of water

195
Q

is a medical condition characterized by an increased number of red blood cells (erythrocytes) in the blood.

A

POLYCYTHEMIA
Primary- P.Vera
Secondary

196
Q

Approximate total plasma volume?

A

55ml/kg

197
Q

Normal pH of blood

A

7.4

198
Q

Drug that enhance platelet production

A

O pre burkin bag
OPRELVEKIN

199
Q

Normal hematocrit value

A

35-45%

200
Q

No of rbc in healthy person

A

5*10^6 /ml

201
Q

Normal blood ELECTROLYTES values

A

1923

Sodium (Na): 135-145 (mEq/L)
Chloride (Cl): 98-106 (mEq/L)
Bicarbonate (HCO3): 22-30 (mEq/L)
Potassium (K): 3.5-5.0 (mEq/L)

  1. Calcium (Ca): 8.5-10.5 (mg/dL)
  2. Magnesium (Mg): 1.5-2.5 (mg/dL)
  3. Phosphate (PO4): 2.5-4.5 (mg/dL)
202
Q

Microcytic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by abnormally small red blood cells. Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) is a measure of the average volume or size of a single red blood cell. Normal value is?

A

MCV 90

203
Q

Anemia cause by folic acid deficiency/ tx

A

MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA

LEUCOVERIN

204
Q

Hemoglobin normal value by gender

A

Male 14-17 g/dl
Female 12-15 g/dl

205
Q

Protein bound drugs

A

C Vice Ganda Ay Walang PHera Fur Di PROarty

Clopidogrel
Valproic acid
Gemfibrozil
Aspirin
Warfarin
Phenytoin
Furosemide
Diazepam
Propranolol

206
Q

Hemoglobin qty in blood per 100ml

A

15g

207
Q

Interferes with diagnosis of pernicious anemia

A

FOLIC ACID

208
Q

Filgrastim is a

A

PROTEIN

209
Q

Is the stimulation of RBC production in bone marrow

A

ERYTHROPOIESIS

210
Q

Test to measure conjugated bilirubin in the blood

A

VAN DEN BERG

211
Q

deficiency is primarily caused by a lack of intrinsic factor, a protein produced by the stomach that facilitates the absorption of B12 in the small intestine.

A

PERNICIOUS ANEMIA

212
Q

End product of hemoglobin metabolism/ decomposition

A

BILIRUBIN

213
Q

Antineoplastics, cytotoxics, immunosupressants causes

A

ANEMIA

214
Q

Drugs causing agranulocytosis

A

Mmd Of PHElippines PROPosed & PROClaimed Her Love to CLO DIn in the CAR

Methimazole
Omeprazole (rare cases)
Phenylbutazone
Propylthiouracil
Procainamide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Linezolid
Clozapine
Diclofenac
Carbamazepine

215
Q

is a condition characterized by a severe decrease in the number of granulocytes, a type of white blood cell.

A

Agranulocytosis

216
Q

Drugs used in polycythemia

A

BUSULFAN
radioctive PHOSPHOROUS

217
Q

Innert plasma expander

A

DEXTRAN

KAPS Paper 1 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions