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KAPS Paper 1 > Pharmacology 2 > Flashcards

Pharmacology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Phenolpthalin and castor oil are

A

Stimulant laxatives or
Intestinal irritants

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2
Q

Metamucil, psyllium husk, bran and dietary fibers are

A

BULK LAXATIVES

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3
Q

Mg citrate and Na biphosphate are which type of laxative

A

OSMOTIC

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4
Q

Na docusate is which type of laxative

A

SURFACE TENSION (softener)

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5
Q

Dioctyl Na sulfosuccinate is also known as

A

DOCUSATE

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6
Q

In laxative do not give ____ with mineral oil

A

COLACE

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7
Q

Ca polycarbophyl is used in tx of

A

CONSTIPATION

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8
Q

Glucocorticoid with highest potency

A

DEXAMETHASONE

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9
Q

Glucocorticoid release is controlled by

A

HYPOTHALAMUS

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10
Q

Prednisolone
Methylpred
Dexameth
Betamethasones

Are examples of

A

GLUCOCORTICOIDS

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11
Q

Metoclopramide ADR that requires monitoring

A

TARDIVE DYSKINESIA

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12
Q

Pencillin loses it’s activity by which reaction

A

HYDROLYSIS

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13
Q

Drug that decreases PRELOAD

A

NITRATES

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14
Q

Drugs that decreases AFTERLOAD

A

HYDRALAZINE
DIAZOXIDE

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15
Q

Drug that decrease PRE/AFTERload

A

NA nitroprusside

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16
Q

The drug with patient instructuction as:

Apply with non metalic applicator or tip to avoid erythema

Do not cover with occlusive dressing

Avoid prolonged sunlight/UV exposure

A

FLUOROURACIL

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17
Q

Indicated for estrogen dependent neoplasm

A

TAMOXIFEN

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18
Q

Drug with storage instruction:

Room temp do not refrigerate
Protect from light
Discard unused portion

A

CISPLATIN

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19
Q

Cisplatin SE

A

NEPHPROTOXIC

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20
Q

Tx of cisplatin toxicity

A

AMIFOSTINE

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21
Q

Nitrogen mustard
Chlorambucil
Cyclophosphamide

Are which kind of cancer drugs?

A

ALKYLATING AGENTS

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22
Q

MTX
6-Mercaptopurin (6-MP)
5-FU

Are which kind of cancer drugs?

A

Antimetabolites

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23
Q

Prednisolone
Chlorambucil
Rho immunoglobulin
6-MP

Are useful ____ in chemotherapy

A

IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS

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24
Q

The max time before bone marrow depression (BMD) occur

A

NADIR

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25
Q

Used in MTX toxicity

A

FOLIC/linic ACID

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26
Q

Is Na mercapto ethane sulfonate

A

MESNA

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27
Q

Alkylating agent which is a potent vesicant

A

MECHLOETHAMINE

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28
Q

Tx for extravasation/
unintentional leakage or escape of a fluid

A

THIOSULFATE
COLD COMPRESS

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29
Q

A granulocyte stimulating factor which stimulate the production of neutrophils

A

FILGRASTIM

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30
Q

Used in the treatment of lung cancer, testicular cancer, and certain types of lymphomas and leukemias. It may be used alone or in combination.

A

ETOPUSIDE
topoisomerase inhibitors. works by interfering with the DNA replication process of rapidly dividing cells, particularly cancer cells.

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31
Q

Anti cancer drug that is causing cardiac cumulative tocicity

A

DOXURUBICIN

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32
Q

Tx of breast/non small breast cancer

A

DOCETAXEL

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33
Q

Antibiotics use in cancer therapy

A

DACTINOMYCIN
MITHROMYCIN

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34
Q

Cytarabine is not alkylating agent

A

Cytarabine

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35
Q

Cause total bone marrow depression

A

CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE

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36
Q

Side effect of cyclophosphamide

A

HEMORRHAGIC CYSTITIS

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37
Q

Hemmorhagic cystitis cause by cyclophosphamide is treated with

A

MESNA

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38
Q

Bone marrow depression will lead to

A

AGRANULOCYTOSIS

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39
Q

Tx of cisplatin toxicity

A

AMIFOSTINE

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40
Q

Toxicity Caused by guanin e synthesis

A

6- thioguanine toxicity

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41
Q

5-FU causes which SE

A

MARKER BMD

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42
Q

Metastatic bone pain is treated by

A

FENTANYL PATCH

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43
Q

Used in methotrexate infusion to prevent toxicity

A

FOLIC ACID

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44
Q

Methotrexate toxicity treatment

A

LEUCOVORIN

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45
Q

shows higher activity because it differs to hydrocortisone in conformation in ring A

A

Prednisolone

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46
Q

Which drug has the following complications:
Dessimination of local infection, infection susceptibility, masking symptoms of infection, osteoporosis

A

CORTICOSTEROIDS

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47
Q

Fluoridated corticosteroids are CI in

A

ROSACEA

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48
Q

Fludrocortisone is use in tx of

A

ADDISON’s disease

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49
Q

Drug class that function as intermediate in metabolism, salt & water retention, muscle development and homeostasis

A

CORTICOSTEROIDS

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50
Q

Cortisol use can lead to rash on the face due to

A

TELANGIECTASIAS
small, dilated blood vessels near the surface of the skin, commonly referred to as spider veins or broken blood vessels.

SJS

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51
Q

Longterm use of corticosteroids will cause

A

OSTEOPENIA

bone mineral density that is lower than normal but not low enough to be classified as osteoporosis

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52
Q

Relative potencies of different CORTICOSTEROIDS

A

Relative Potencies (Anti-inflammatory Effects):

•	Cortisol (hydrocortisone): 1 (as std)
•	Prednisone: 4-5 times 
•	Methylprednisolone: 5-6 times
•	Dexamethasone: 25-30
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53
Q

Equivalent Doses (mg) of different CORTICOSTEROIDS

A

Equivalent Doses (mg):
• Hydrocortisone: 20 mg
• Prednisone: 5 mg
• Methylprednisolone: 4 mg
• Dexamethasone: 0.75 mg

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54
Q

Sodium-Retaining Potencies (Mineralocorticoid Activity) of different CORTICOSTEROIDS

A

Sodium-Retaining Potencies (Mineralocorticoid Activity):
• Cortisol (hydrocortisone): Significant
• Prednisone: Moderate
• Methylprednisolone: Moderate
• Dexamethasone: Minimal

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55
Q

Cough receptors are located in the

A

Brain stem- medulla

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56
Q

Ipecac expectorant dose

A

1ml

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57
Q

Use in depolymerization of mucous

A

BROMHEXINE

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58
Q

Acetyl cystein is given by

A

INHALATION

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59
Q

Tx of cystic fibrosis

A

Dornase
NAC
PANCREATIN

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60
Q

is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems. This leads to the production of thick and sticky mucus, which can clog the airways and ducts in various organs, such as the lungs and pancreas.

A

CYSTIC FIBROSIS

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61
Q

There is a change in ____ in cystic fibrosis. Sx

A

SWEAT

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62
Q

Diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis

A

FEV-1
Chloride in sweat

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63
Q

% occurence of different RNA

A

rRNA- 80%
tRNA- 15%
mRNA- 5%

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64
Q

NEVIRAPINE drug class

A

NNRTI

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65
Q

Kreb’s cycle occurs in

A

MITOCHONDRIA
(Respiration)

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66
Q

Storage in cell

A

GOLGI APARATUS

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67
Q

Contains cellular digestive enzyme

A

LYSOSOMES

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68
Q

Lipid synthesys in cell occurs in

A

SMOOTH ER

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69
Q

Protein synthesys in cell occurs in

A

ROUGH ER

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70
Q

RNA with specific amino acid attached

A

tRNA

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71
Q

Drug metabolism occur in which part of the cell

A

ER/ RIBOSOMES

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72
Q

Podophyllum resin is used in the tx of

A

WARTS

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73
Q

Otc drugs for Lice

A

PYRETHRINS
PIPERONYL BUTOXIDE
PTEROLLATUM DISTILLATE

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74
Q

Rx drugs for lice

A

CRETAMITON

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75
Q

Tx of rosacea

A

HYDROCORTISONE

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76
Q

Minocycline SE

A

NVD
VESTIBULAR TOXICITY

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77
Q

Epidermis is also known as

A

KERATIN

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78
Q

Substance that remove comedones

A

Al(OH)3

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79
Q

T or f, impetigo can complicate to endocarditis

A

False

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80
Q

Tx of acne and psoriasis

A

TRAZOTENE

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81
Q

Toxic effects of clindamycin may be increased by

A

LOMOTIL

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82
Q

Loperamide in ulcerative colitis will produce

A

INTESTINAL PERFORATION

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83
Q

Related to miperidine, which stimulates the opiate center in GIT causing constipation

A

DIPHENOXYLATE

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84
Q

Citrate use in ORS

A
  1. Alkalinizing Agent:
    1. Enhance the flavor
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85
Q

MAOi can take red meat 🥩 but not

A

Wine
Beer
Chicken Liver
Cheese

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86
Q

TCA with least anticholinergic SE

A

TRAZODON

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87
Q

Tranyl cypromine is a

A

MAOi ANTIDEPRESSANT

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88
Q

Lithium concentration is decreased by

A

THEOPHYLLINE

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89
Q

Onset of TCA requires

A

3-4 weeks

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90
Q

TCA should not be used together with

A

GUANTIDINE
- alpha2 agonist

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91
Q

TCA is CI in which eye disease

A

GLAUCOMA
also SEDATION
ANTICHOLINERGIC effects
TACHYCARDIA

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92
Q

TCA + MAOi

A

⬆️ action of MAOi

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93
Q

Antidepressant classes

A

TCA
MAOi
ALPHA blockers
Tranylcypromine

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94
Q

Ampethamine
Phenylephrine
Ephedrine
Tyramine + MAOi’s

A

HYPERTENSIVE CRISIS

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95
Q

Affects neural amine reuptake mechanisms
(Serotonin, NE)

A

TCA

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96
Q

Sertraline and fluoxetine belongs to which drug class

A

ANTIDEPRESSANTS- SSRI

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97
Q

SE of cyclobenzaprine is similar to

A

AMITRYPTILINE

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98
Q

Common SE of antidepressants

A

Antimuscarinic effects
Postural hypotension
Drowsiness

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99
Q

Venlafaxin specific SE

A

HTN

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100
Q

Patient on Li should not restrict which intake

A

SODIUM

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101
Q

Tranylcypromine should restict intake of

A

FOOD AND DRUGS

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102
Q

Pseudoephedrine should take precaution in taking

A

IPRONIAZID

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103
Q

A MAOi requiring dietary restriction

A

PROCARBAZINE

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104
Q

Inhibits reuptake of 5HT - increase conc
SE: Heparic failure
CI: Cisapride, TCA, MAOi, Terfinadine, astimazole

A

NEFAZODONE

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105
Q

Use of MAOi’s

A

PSYCHOTROPIC
ANTIDEPRESSANT
ANTIEPILEPTIC

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106
Q

MAOi’s SE:

A

HALLUCINATIONS
TREMORS
HYPERTHERMIA
ANTICHOLINERGIC effects

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107
Q

Tranylcypromine
Phenelzine
Meclobimide
Iproniazide

Belongs to which antidepressant class

A

MAOi’s

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108
Q

Used in bipolar disorder but causes SE: diabetes insipidus

A

LITHIUM

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109
Q

Lithium is used in bipolar disorder but causes SE: diabetes insipidus, hypothyroidism, convulsion(treated by?)

A

VASOPRESSIN

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110
Q

A MAOi antidepressant used with caution with TCA, Tyramine, levodopa, cathecolamines, pethidine, rawoulfia

A

IPRONIAZID
⬇️action of adrenergic blockers

⬆️action of oral hypoglycemics

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111
Q

Drugs for bipolar mood disturbances

A

LITHIUM
CARBAMEZEPINE
NA VALPROATE

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112
Q

Imipramine metabolized by demethhlation will yeild

A

DESIPRAMINE

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113
Q

SE of nortryptiline

A

CONSTIPATION

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114
Q

Impiramine + oral anticoagulant

A

⬆️ action of imipramine

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115
Q

Trazodone + MAOi

A

SEROTONIN SYNDROME

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116
Q

L-dopa + MAOi

A

HTN CRISIS

117
Q

Methylphenidate + MAOi

A

⬆️ CNS STIMULATION

118
Q

Anti hypertensive effect of guanethidine is inhibited by

A

TCA (Amitryptiline)

119
Q

glaucoma, a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure that can lead to optic nerve damage. These include:

1.	Prostaglandin Analogs:  They help reduce intraocular pressure by increasing the drainage of aqueous humor.
A

Examples include
latanoprost and
travoprost.

120
Q

glaucoma, a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure that can lead to optic nerve damage. These include:

Beta-blockers:

decrease the production of aqueous humor, thereby lowering intraocular pressure.

A

timolol and
betaxolol

121
Q

glaucoma, a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure that can lead to optic nerve damage. These include:

Alpha Agonists:
reduces intraocular pressure by decreasing aqueous humor production and increasing its outflow.

A

Brimonidine

122
Q

glaucoma, a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure that can lead to optic nerve damage. These include:

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors:
reduce intraocular pressure by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase, slowing down aqueous humor production.

A

Dorzolamide and
brinzolamide

123
Q

glaucoma, a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure that can lead to optic nerve damage. These include:

Rho Kinase Inhibitors:
increases the outflow of aqueous humor.

A

Netarsudil

124
Q

is a prodrug, meaning it gets converted to epinephrine (adrenaline) in the eye, which then helps reduce intraocular pressure by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor

A

Dipivefrin

125
Q

Eyedrop not destroyed by heat (autoclave)

A

SULFACETAMIDE

126
Q

Preservatives in eye drops

A

Cetrimide 0.005%

Benzalkonium Cl 0.02%
Phenyl Hg nitrate 0.02%

Cholrocresol 0.1%
Chlorhexidine 0.1%
Na edetate 0.1%

Chlorambutol 0.5%

127
Q

Eyedrops storage condition of 2-8 •C

A

CORTISONE ED
PHOSPHOLINE ED

128
Q

Tx of allergic conjuctivitis

A

LOTEPREDNOL

129
Q

Dose increment of latanoprost

A

30mg/day

130
Q

Cyclopentolate is an eye drop medication commonly used as a mydriatic agent, meaning it dilates the pupil. Answer if asked to choose the odd among the group of miotic agents such as

A

morphine, codeine, epinephrine,
pilocarpine, bromocriptine
physostigmine/neostigmine
pramipexole, timolol

131
Q

Several drugs have been associated with visual disturbances as potential side effects.

A

HAPDE

Hydroxychloroquine/Chloroquine
Amiodarone- microdeposits, blur, photoS
PDE-5 Inhibitors: color
Digoxin: blurred or yellow-tinted
Ethambutol: color

132
Q

Contraindicate in NARROW angle glaucoma

A

ATROPINE
HOMATROPINE
EPINEPHRINE

133
Q

Timolol afvantage over pilicarpine

A

LONGER DURATION
NO VISUAL ACCOMODATION
MINIMAL EFFECT- pupil size

134
Q

Short acting mydriatic effect

A

ADRENALINE

135
Q

Shelf life of Eyedrops

A

28 days

136
Q

Duration of mydriasis by tropicamide

A

3-4 hours

137
Q

Dose for ocusert pilo

A

Pilo 20- 20mcg/hr
Pilo 40- 40mcg/hr

Covering a week

138
Q

Demographics of narrow angle glaucoma

A

10% of all glaucoma population

139
Q

Miotic effect of this drug:
Starts in 15-30mins
Max reduction IOP in 2-4 hrs
Duration 4-8 hrs

For open angle galucoma, causing constriction of pupil and producing dimming night vision

A

PILOCARPINE

140
Q

Eyedrops that is 3 hours shorter duration than atropine

A

CYCLOPHENTOLATE
TROPICAMIDE

141
Q

Used as replacement to pilocarpine intolerance/resistance

A

CARBACHOL

142
Q

Eye drops for eye lid edema

A

GUANTHIDINE

143
Q

syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that occurs in males and is characterized by the presence of one or more extra X chromosomes.

Physical Features: physical characteristics such as tall stature, reduced muscle mass, gynecomastia (enlarged breasts), and a small testicular

A

Klinefelter syndrome

144
Q

A uricosuric agent that increase excretion of uric acid

A

PROBENECID

145
Q

Uric acid is a derivative of

A

PURINE

146
Q

Tophus is also known as

A

GOUT

147
Q

Probenecid should not be combined with these drugS

A

ASPIRIN
INDOMETHACIN
THIAZIDE

148
Q

Phenylbutazone is used in

A

GOUT

149
Q

Not to be taken with tea

A

ALLOPURINOL

150
Q

Drug used it tx of gout that does not affect urate metabolism or secretion, it interferes inflammatory response to gout

A

COLCHICENE

151
Q

Combination of Allopurinol (oxidation) with azathioprine and 6-MP will result to

A

⬆️concentration of azathioprine and 6-MP

Not thioguanine- methylation

152
Q

Allopurinol are safe to take with

A

Warfarin
CPM

153
Q

Inhibits xanthine oxidase

A

ALLOPURINOL
Counselling: drink plenty of water

154
Q

Decreases uricosuric effect of probenacid

A

ACETAMINOPHEN

155
Q

an older term for what is now commonly referred to as Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS).

Hyperandrogenism: Elevated levels of androgens (male hormones)

A

Stein-Leventhal syndrome

156
Q

Skin contraceptive implant

A

LEVONORGESTREL

157
Q

Antiemetic and apetite stimulant

A

DRONABINOL

158
Q

Antiemetic that is
CI with hypokalemic
Hypomagnesemia
Anti arrhythmias

A

DOLASETRON

159
Q

Anti emetic/ anthelmintic

A

TARTAR emetic
No longer used - toxicity

160
Q

Vitamin CI with levodopa, parkinson, phenytoin

A

B6- PYRIDOXINE

161
Q

A heat liable vitamin used in tx of BERIBERI (Wernicke-Korsakoff)

A

B1- Thiamine

162
Q

Vitamin that is a precurson for NAD/FADH

A

Vit B2- Riboflavin

163
Q

Also known as panthotenic acid

A

Vit B5

164
Q

Niacin deficiency will result to

A

PELLAGRA

165
Q

Cyanocobalamine deficiency

A

Pernicious Anemia

166
Q

Impairs vitamin K absorption

A

MINERAL OIL

167
Q

Phytonadione
menadione is

A

P- Vit K1
M- Vit K2

168
Q

Folic in pregnancy to prevent

A

SPINA BIFIDA

169
Q

Fish liver oil contains

A

VIT a/d

170
Q

Iron form least absorbed by intestines

A

FERRIC

171
Q

Vitamin with lactone structure

A

VITAMIN C

172
Q

Vitamine with steroid structure

A

VITAMIN D

173
Q

Ascorbic acid with methenamine is used for

A

URINARY CYSTITIS

174
Q

Probucol is

A

ANTIHYPERLIPIDEMIC

175
Q

Most common SE of simvastatin

A

HEPATOTOXIC

176
Q

Drug interaction simvastatin + warfarin

A

Inhibit warfarin metabolism
BLEEDING

177
Q

TXA2 cause

A

Platelet agregation

178
Q

Primary response to antigen

A

T/B cells

179
Q

T cells matures in

A

THYMUS GLAND

180
Q

IMMUNOGLOBULIN
• Role: Found in mucous membranes, saliva, tears, and other bodily fluids, helps prevent pathogens from entering the body through mucosal surfaces. It plays a key role in local immune defense.

A
  1. IgA (Immunoglobulin A)
181
Q

IMMUNOGLOBULIN
• Role: Although its precise function is not fully understood, is primarily found on the surface of B cells, where it may be involved in the activation of these cells during the immune response.

A

IgD (Immunoglobulin D)

182
Q

Immunoglobulin
• Role: Associated with allergic reactions, binds to mast cells and basophils. Upon exposure to allergens, triggers the release of histamine and other chemicals, leading to allergic symptoms.

A
  1. IgE (Immunoglobulin E):
183
Q

IMMUNOGLOBULIN

• Role: The most abundant antibody in the bloodstream, provides long-term immunity. It can cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to the fetus. is crucial for neutralizing toxins and enhancing phagocytosis.

A

IgG (Immunoglobulin G):

184
Q

IMMUNOGLOBULIN
• Role: Produced in the early stages of an immune response, is often the first antibody to appear after exposure to an antigen. It is effective at agglutination (clumping) of pathogens.

A

IgM (Immunoglobulin M)

185
Q

Hypersensitivity TYPE
• Mechanism: Involves IgE antibodies and mast cells or basophils.
• Examples: Allergic reactions such as hay fever, asthma, anaphylaxis to bee stings, or certain foods.

A
  1. Type I Hypersensitivity (Immediate Hypersensitivity):
186
Q

Hypersensitivity TYPE
• Mechanism: Involves antibodies (IgG or IgM) targeting cell surface antigens, leading to cell destruction.
• Examples: Blood transfusion reactions, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, and certain drug reactions.

A
  1. Type II Hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity):
187
Q

Hypersensitivity TYPE
• Mechanism: Involves immune complexes (antigen-antibody complexes) that deposit in tissues, causing inflammation and damage.
• Examples: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis, and certain forms of vasculitis.

A
  1. Type III Hypersensitivity (Immune Complex-Mediated Hypersensitivity):
188
Q

HYPERSENSITIVITY TYPE
• Mechanism: Involves T cells (specifically, cytotoxic T cells or helper T cells) and does not involve antibodies.
• Examples: Contact dermatitis (e.g., poison ivy), tuberculin skin test reactions, and some autoimmune diseases.

A
  1. Type IV Hypersensitivity (Delayed-Type Hypersensitivity):
189
Q

WBC
• Function: Phagocytosis (engulfing and digesting pathogens).
• Role: They are the most abundant white blood cells and play a key role in the early stages of the immune response.

A

Neutrophils

190
Q

WBC
• Types: T cells, B cells, and Natural Killer (NK) cells.
• Function: Adaptive immune response, including antibody production (B cells) and cell-mediated immunity (T cells).

A

Lymphocytes

191
Q

WBC
• Function: Phagocytosis and antigen presentation.
• Role: They can migrate into tissues and differentiate into macrophages, which are large phagocytic cells.

A

Monocytes

192
Q

WBC
• Function: Defense against parasites and involvement in allergic reactions.
• Role: They release substances that help modulate the immune response, particularly in allergic conditions.

A

Eosinophils

193
Q

WBC
• Function: Release histamine and other substances involved in inflammation.
• Role: They play a role in the inflammatory response and are associated with allergic reactions.

A

Basophils

194
Q

Occurs after second exposure to antigen

A

Anaphylactic reaction

195
Q

Drug related anaphylaxis occurs after

A

2 minutes of drug administration

196
Q

Myeloid reconstitution after bone marrow transplant

A

SARGAMOSTIN

197
Q

Acts on estrogen in bones and lipids

A

RALOXIFENE

198
Q

Cretinism in childrens is cause by which deficiency

A

IODINE

199
Q

Contrindicated in breast feeding

A

COMBINED ESTROGEN

200
Q

Inhibits folicular development and ovulation

A

ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES

201
Q

Symptom of hypothyroidism

A

MYXOEDEMA

202
Q

Test for human gonadotropins

A

WARNER LAMBENT TEST

203
Q

Used for INFERTILITY

A

MENOTROPIN

204
Q

Derived from theophylline, used in tx of PMS

A

PAMAPROM

205
Q

AntiHTN with the most Ca ch blocking activity

A

VERAPAMIL

206
Q

Contraindicated with digoxin, Ca, dysopyramide

A

VERAPAMIL

207
Q

Triamterin diuretic class

A

K sparing diuretic

208
Q

Toxicity of thiazied is due to decrease in

A

BLOOD VOLUME

209
Q

Thiazides decrease tolerance of

A

GLUCOSE

210
Q

A diuretic that is related to hyperurecimia, gout induction

A

THIAZIDE

211
Q

Metabolic effects of diuretics

A

Thiazides/ loop- ALKALOSIS
K- sparing- ACIDOSIS

212
Q

Electrolytes effect of diuretics

A

Thiazides: ⬇️Na, Cl, K, Mg; ⬆️ Ca

Loop: ⬇️Na, Cl, K, Mg, Ca

K-sparing: ⬇️ Na; ⬆️ K, Cl;

213
Q

Diuretics that antagonizes insulin

A

THIAZIDES

214
Q

Is added to methyldopa to relieve salt and water retention

A

THIAZIDES

215
Q

The MOA of amiloride is similar to

A

TRIAMTERENE

216
Q

Main source of pheripheral resistance

A

ARTERIOLES

217
Q

Anti hypertensive of guantadine is inhibited by

A

AMITRYPTILINE

218
Q

TCA and corticosteroids can cause

A

HTN

219
Q

Starting dose of HCTZ

A

50mg

220
Q

Site of action of spironolactone

A

DCT

221
Q

Sensitivity to sunlight is caused by

A

Bendroflumethiazide

222
Q

SE of Ca Ch blockers

A

CONSTIPATION AND EDEMA

223
Q

SE of B blockers

A

HYPOGLYCEMIC EFFECT
DEC HDL
COLD EXTREMITIES
BRONCHOSPAMS

224
Q

SE of amlodipine/ ACEi

A

PERIPHERAL EDEMA
PRURITUS

225
Q

Safe diuretic with sulfonamide sensitivity

A

ETHACRYNIC AC
SPIRONOLACTON

226
Q

Pallor or cyanosis of the fingers or toes

A

REYNAUD’s Disease

227
Q

Tx of HTN crisis in hospital

A

DIAZOXIDE

228
Q

Patients taking indapamide should take

A

K SUPPLEMEMENTS

229
Q

Hydralazine causes tachycardia which is treated by

A

PROPRANOLOL
- First pass effect metabolism

230
Q

Diuretics: Increase renal PG

A

LOOP DIURETICS

231
Q

Initial drug therapy in HTN

A

THIAZIDES

232
Q

Decreases Anti HTN effects of B blockers

A

INDOMETHACIN

233
Q

Indapamide pts should take ___ and avoid____

A

K SUPPLEMENTS
ALCOHOL

234
Q

Cough by ACEi should be treated with

A

GUAIFFENESIN

235
Q

A vasoconstrictor that should be avoided in HTN

A

Carbenoxolone

is a drug that has been used historically for its anti-inflammatory and anti-ulcer properties.

236
Q

HTN crisis caused by thyramine+ MAOi is treated with

A

ALPHA BLOCKERS

237
Q

Hydralazine causes a syndrome resembling

A

SLE

238
Q

Hydralazine cause anginal attack due to

A

CORONARY STEAL PHENOMENON

239
Q

AntiHTN of choice for pts with renal insuffeciency

A

HYDRALAZINE

240
Q

HTN pts on amitriptyline develops depression and tx should shift to

A

TRAZODONE

241
Q

Is taken in the morning with food or milk

A

HCTZ

242
Q

Combination of proranolol + ___ is not recommended

A

VERAPAMIL

243
Q

Causes first dose effect: hypotension+ syncope

A

PRAZOSIN
Not used for initial treatment

244
Q

A centrally acting alpha 2 agonist

A

GUANABENZ

245
Q

Appropriate perindopril dose

A

4-8 mg
16mg max dose/day

246
Q

Antihypertensive drug not to taken with tyramine rich food

A

PARGYLINE

247
Q

Overdose of Na nitroprusside will cause

A

CNS poisoning

248
Q

A vasodilator acting by direct muscolotropic and B agonistic activity

A

NYLIDRIN
(Buphenin)

249
Q

Decreases after load

A

HYDRALAZINE

250
Q

Is a arterrular/ venular dilator to be given by slow IV INFUSION

A

NA nitroprusside

251
Q

Is similar to chlorthalidone

A

METOLAZONE

252
Q

Increases effects of all antihypertensives

A

METHYLDOPA

253
Q

Furosemide
Bumetanide
Ethacryninc acid

A

LOOP
CI with gout

254
Q

Interacts with digoxin and lithium

A

HCTZ

255
Q

Hypertensive of choice in depression

A

HCTZ
HYDRALAZINE

256
Q

HCTZ in combination of this drug will decrease edema

A

PROPRANOLOL

257
Q

CI with guanthidine and methyldopa

A

HALOPERIDOL

258
Q

Gunathidine
Methyldopa
Clonidine

Causes

A

BRADYCARDIA

259
Q

Hydralazine causes

A

REFLEX TACHYCARDIA

260
Q

Guanthidine interacts withs

A

TCA

261
Q

Guanthidine makes parasympathetic tone predominate thus cause

A

DIARRHEA

262
Q

Venule dilator

A

NITROGLYCERINE (glyceryl trinitrate)

263
Q

Diaxozide
Minoxidil
Hydralazine

Dilates?

A

Arteries

264
Q

Duration of action of (t1/2)
Thiazide
Chlorthiazide
Chlorthalidone

A

Thiazide 15hrs
Chlorthiazide 3hrs
Chlorthalidone 50hrs

265
Q

TCA, OC
clonidine withdrawal
Corticosteroids

Causes ___ HTN

A

IATROGENIC HTN

266
Q

PRAZOCIN
NITROPRUSSIDE
KCL

Drugs that cannot be given by

A

IV BOLUS

267
Q

HCTZ dose

A

0.5-1g

268
Q

Dose of chlorthiazide

A

500-2000mg/day

269
Q

Diaxozide is administered by

A

RAPID IV INJ

270
Q

Hyperaldosteronemia is

A

COON’s

271
Q

Should not be taken in HTN, bec of salt and water retention

A

CODEIN
INDOMETHACIN

272
Q

Bumetanide SE

A

MYALGIA

273
Q

Increase vascular permeability to release PG12 to relax smooth muscles

A

BRADYKININS

274
Q

Bendrofluazide SE

A

PHOTOSENSITIVITY

275
Q

Least lipid soluble B BLOCKER

A

ATENOLOL

276
Q

Type of HTN that need immidiate medical attention

A

ARTERIAL HTN

277
Q

AntiHTN that causes angina

A

HYDRALAZINE

278
Q

Diuretic CI with amitryptiline

A

CHLORTHIAZIDE

279
Q

Least reflex tachycardia among ACEi

A

AMLODIPINE

280
Q

Methyldopa antagonizes

A

TCA

281
Q

All ACEi are prodrugs except

A

CAPTOPRIL
LISINOPRIL

282
Q

Acetazalomide cause systemic

A

ACIDOSIS

283
Q

CI in asthma, renal artery stenosis, anti HTN class

A

ACEi

284
Q

ACEi SE

A

HYPERKALEMIA
⬆️ CREATININE

285
Q

Pulse is taken on

A

RADIAL ARTERY

286
Q

Lisinopril max dose

A

20mg

287
Q

Cough medicine for chesty cough
With history of HTN + hyperlipidemia

A

GUAIFENESIN

288
Q

Drugs used in HTN/angina

A

CCB/ B blockers

KAPS Paper 1 (4 decks)

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