physio Flashcards

(79 cards)

1
Q

How does the volume of blood vary in different genders?

A

Women: 5 liters; men: 5.5 liters.

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2
Q

What percentage of total body weight is usually attributed to blood?

A

8%.

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3
Q

What are the two main components of blood and their percentages?

A

Plasma → 55% of blood volume
cellular elements → 45% of blood volume.

Cellular elements refer to RBCs, WBCs, platelets, etc.

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4
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

AKA the packed cell volume; it is the % of total blood volume occupied by RBCs only.

Normal hematocrit is around 45%.

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5
Q

A couples decides to get blood tests together before planning for future children. What should the RBCs and Hb values look like for a healthy hetero couple?
After they get the results, their doctor tells them their WBCs and platelet count is the same. What range does that typically lie in?

A

Woman → RBC = 4.8 million/mm³ ; Hb = 14g/dl;
Man → RBC = 5.4 million/mm³ ; Hb = 16 g/dl.

WBCs will be around 4000-11000/mm³;
platelet count will be 150,000 - 400,000/mm³.

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6
Q

What are the three specialized cellular elements in blood and their functions?

A
  1. Erythrocytes (RBCs) → important in O2 transport.
  2. Leukocytes (WBCs) → immune system defense units.
  3. Platelets → important in hemostasis (prevention of blood loss from damaged blood vessels).
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7
Q

What is plasma composed of?

A

It is 90% water and 10% solids.

1% accounts for electrolytes and 6% for plasma proteins. Solids include: electrolytes [Na⁺, Cl⁻, K⁺, HCO₃⁻, Ca²⁺], plasma proteins [albumin, globulins, fibrinogen], organic substances [glucose, amino acids, lipids, vitamins], waste products [urea, creatinine], gases [O₂ and CO₂].

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8
Q

What are the components of plasma?

A
  1. Plasma proteins (albumin, globulins, fibrinogen)
  2. Organic substances (glucose, amino acids, lipids, vitamins)
  3. Waste products (urea, creatinine)
  4. Gases (O2 and CO2)
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9
Q

Where is plasma synthesized?

A

Mostly in the liver

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10
Q

How many groups of plasma proteins are there? Name them.

A

3 main groups: albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen. Globulins have 3 subclasses: α, ß, γ.

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11
Q

What is the function of globulin protein in plasma?

A

Three types of globulins with different functions:
α, ß globulin → transport substances; contribute most to colloid osmotic pressure.
γ globulin → antibodies (immunoglobulins).

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12
Q

What components of plasma are responsible for transport?

A

Water, nutrients, albumins, alpha + beta globulins (water-insoluble substances).

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13
Q

What constituents of plasma are responsible for buffering pH changes?

A

Electrolytes and plasma proteins.

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14
Q

What is indicative of anemia?

A

Decrease in RBC and Hb.

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15
Q

What is indicative of polycythemia?

A

Increase in RBC and Hb.

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16
Q

What is indicative of leukocytosis?

A

Increase in WBC count (x > 11,000 mm-3).

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17
Q

What is indicative of leukopenia?

A

Decrease in WBC count (x < 4000 mm-3).

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18
Q

What is indicative of thrombocytosis?

A

Increase in platelet count.

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19
Q

What is indicative of thrombocytopenia?

A

Decrease in platelet count.

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20
Q

What are the 5 main types of blood vessels and their functions?

A
  1. Arteries → carry blood AWAY from the heart.
  2. Arterioles → resistance vessels that regulate blood flow and pressure.
  3. Capillaries → sites of exchange between blood and tissues.
  4. Venules → collect blood from capillaries and return it to veins.
  5. Veins → carry blood TOWARDS the heart and act as blood reservoirs.
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21
Q

What are the two main functions arteries are specialized for?

A
  1. Serve as passageways for blood (from heart to organs) with little resistance.
  2. Act as pressure reservoirs providing driving force when the heart is relaxing.
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22
Q

How does blood pressure vary in systole and diastole?

A

Systole → 120 mmHg; Diastole → 80 mmHg. The difference is called pulse pressure.

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23
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

Difference between systolic and diastolic pressures.

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24
Q

Describe the structure of arterioles.

A

Highly muscular walls (rich in smooth muscle), lack elastic fiber, and are major resistance vessels.

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25
What structures are involved in adjusting arteriolar resistance?
1. Vasoconstriction → narrowing of a vessel (increases pressure). 2. Vasodilation → widening of arteriole (decreases pressure but increases blood flow).
26
Describe the structure and function of capillaries.
Narrow, water-filled gaps (pores) lie at junctions between cells; thin-walled, small radius, extensively branched. • Site of exchange between blood and tissue cells. • Permit passage of water-soluble substances. • Lipid-soluble substances readily pass.
27
What type of blood vessels are referred to as capacitance vessels and why?
Veins; about 2/3 of blood is located in veins (64%). They serve as blood reservoirs.
28
Describe the structure and functions of veins.
Thin-walled, large radius (offer little resistance to blood flow), serve as blood reservoir (capacitance vessels).
29
What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?
Provides accessory route by which fluid can be returned from interstitial space to the blood via extensive network of one-way vessels.
30
What is membrane potential?
Electrical potential across the cell membrane due to the separation of opposite charges, caused by differences in the concentration and permeability of key ions.
31
What is resting membrane potential (RMP)?
Potential across the cell membrane at rest, typically ranging from -70 to -90 mV in excitable cells.
32
Which ions are responsible for establishing resting membrane potential?
Sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+), along with negatively charged proteins inside the cell.
33
What is the role of Na-K pump in maintaining membrane potential?
Actively transports 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ into the cell, maintaining the concentration gradient of these ions needed for resting membrane potential.
34
What is the equilibrium potential for an ion?
The electrical potential that exactly balances the concentration gradient of an ion, preventing further net diffusion. For K+, it is around -94 mV and around +61 mV for Na+.
35
Why is the inside of the cell negative at rest?
Due to K+ leakage, Na+-K+ pump pumps out 3 sodium ions and 2 potassium ions per ATP, and impermeable anions (proteins) are trapped inside.
36
What is the role of Na+-K+ pump in RMP?
Maintains ion gradient and contributes directly slightly (about -5 mV).
37
What are normal ICF and ECF concentrations of Na+ and K+?
Na+: 14 mM inside vs 142 mM outside; K+: 140 mM inside vs 4 mM outside.
38
What are normal ICF and ECF concentrations of Na+ and K+?
Na+: 14mM inside vs 142mM outside K+: 140mM inside vs 4mM outside
39
What is equilibrium potential?
Membrane potential where an ion's electrical and chemical gradients balance (no net movement). Ek = ~ -90mV Ena = ~ +60mV
40
Where does RMP usually lie and why?
Around -90 to -70 mV, closer to Ek than Ena because the membrane is 25-30 times more permeable to K+ than Na+ at rest.
41
What are excitable tissues?
Nerve and muscle tissues that generate rapid changes in membrane potential when excited.
42
Name two types of gates ion channels.
Voltage-gated → open or close with voltage changes Receptor-operated / ligand-gated → open or close with chemical binding.
43
Define depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization.
Depolarization: membrane becomes LESS negative (more positive). Repolarization: return to RMP after depolarization (moves back to neg. value = -70mV). Hyperpolarization: membrane becomes more negative than RMP.
44
What are the two major regulatory systems of the body?
- Nervous → neural communication accomplished by nerve cells. - Endocrine → hormonal communication accomplished by hormones.
45
Define graded potential.
A localized change in membrane potential due to Na+ entry at a small membrane region.
46
How does graded potential spread and how does its magnitude relate to stimulus strength?
Passive current flow; directly proportional → stronger the stimulus, larger the graded potential.
47
Why do graded potentials die out over short distances?
They spread passively, meaning no voltage-gated channels are present to regenerate the signal.
48
Give 3 examples of graded potentials.
1) Receptor potential 2) Pacemaker potential 3) End-plate potential.
49
Can graded potentials be summated?
Yes, unlike action potentials.
50
What is an action potential?
Brief, rapid, large (100mV) reversal of membrane potential that propagates without weakening; does not decrease in strength as it travels from site of initiation.
51
What type of neural communication can the 'all-or-none' law be applied to?
Action potential; an action potential fires MAXIMALLY or not AT ALL.
52
Define threshold potential.
The minimum depolarization needed to trigger an action potential.
53
What aspect of action potentials can be classified as positive feedback cycles?
They amplify the signal through the spread of current from depolarized site along membrane, causing further depolarization of adjacent site and opening of more Na+ ion channels until threshold is reached.
54
What happens during depolarization?
Na+ channels open; Na+ rushes in; membrane potential reverses (+30mV).
55
What causes repolarization?
Na+ channels inactivate; K+ channels open; K+ efflux (exit).
56
Why does hyperpolarization occur?
K+ channels remain open briefly, overshooting RMP.
57
How is the gradient restored after an AP?
Na+ - K+ pump pumps out 3 Na+ and 2 K+ per ATP.
58
What are the types of refractory periods? What is the difference between them?
Absolute and relative. • In absolute refractory period, no new AP can be initiated because Na+ channels are inactive. • In relative refractory period, a strong stimulus may trigger a new AP (some Na+ channels have recovered).
59
How do graded and action potentials differ?
Graded potentials: no threshold, cause local change, die down, summate, don't obey all or none law. Action potentials: threshold, cause depolarization to threshold level, propagated, can't be summated, obey all or none law.
60
A neuron’s membrane depolarizes from -70mV to -50mV but does not propagate. What is this?
b) Graded potential.
61
A drug blocks voltage-gated Na⁺ channels. Which AP phase is blocked?
b) Depolarization.
62
A toxin blocks voltage-gated K⁺ channels. Which phase is most affected?
b) Repolarization.
63
What are the three main parts of a neuron?
Cell body, dendrites, axon.
64
What part of the neuron is the input zone?
Dendrites and cell body.
65
What happens in the cell body?
Houses nucleus and organelles.
66
How many dendrites can a neuron have?
400,000 dendrites.
67
What is the axon's primary role?
Conducts action potentials away from cell body.
68
Site where action potentials are initiated?
Axon hillock.
69
Output zone of a neuron?
Axon terminals.
70
What cells form the myelin sheath?
CNS → oligodendrocytes; PNS → Schwann cells.
71
Why is saltatory conduction faster than continuous conduction?
AP jumps between nodes of Ranvier which is faster than traveling the full length of the axon.
72
What factors affect nerve conduction speed?
Fiber diameter (larger = faster); myelination (true = 50x faster).
73
What is myelin sheath made of?
Lipoproteins.
74
Role of myelin sheath in AP transmission?
Insulates axons which prevents ion leakage; interrupted by nodes of Ranvier through which ions can pass; impulse jumps from node to node = saltatory conduction; increases speed of conduction of impulses.
75
Role of nodes of Ranvier?
Unmyelinated gaps so ions flow and are able to regenerate action potentials.
76
Why is conduction of AP along unmyelinated fibers slower?
APs must regenerate continuously along the entire axon.
77
What allows ions to flow and regenerate action potentials?
Gaps in the myelin sheath allow ions to flow and are able to regenerate action potentials.
78
Why is conduction of action potentials along unmyelinated fibers slower?
Action potentials must regenerate continuously along the entire axon.
79
What are the conditions for regeneration of the axon following an injury?
Regeneration only occurs in the PNS, where the axons are myelinated by Schwann cells. ## Footnote For CNS, the axons are myelinated by oligodendrocytes which are NOT capable of regeneration.