Physiology Flashcards
0
Q
Depolarization phase AKA
A
ascending phase
1
Q
Depolarization has an influx of what
A
Sodium
2
Q
During which phase of the action potential is an impulse likely to occur
A
Depolarization phase
3
Q
What gates close during the end of depolarization phase
A
Na++ gates close
4
Q
When does threshold occur during depolarization
A
-55 to -50 mV
5
Q
Repolarization has in efflux of what
A
Potassium (through facilitated diffusion)
6
Q
During repolarization of an action potential, is the inside membrane more positive, or less positive
A
less positive inside membrane
7
Q
Repolarization AKA
A
descending phase
8
Q
What is the name of the stage before the action potential begins
A
resting state
9
Q
Membrane becomes polarized at what level mV
A
-90 mV
10
Q
During depolarization, the inside of the membrane becomes more positive, or less positive?
A
Na+ influx makes inside more positive
-90mV is immediately neutralized
11
Q
Repolarization stage happens how quickly?
A
10,000th of a second
12
Q
During repolarization phase, Na+ channels begin to close. What channels open wider to reestablish a negative resting membrane potential
A
K+ (potassium)
13
Q
What are the names of the two voltage gated sodium channel gates?
A
activation gate
inactivation gate
14
Q
What does the activation gate do
A
Outside of the channel, the activation gate will flip all the way open at -70 to -50 mV causing Na+ ions to pour in
15
Q
What does the inactivation gate do
A
The inactivation gate is inside of the channel. It closes more slowly than the activation gate. The inactivation gate will not re-open until membrane potential is at or nearly at “resting membrane potential” level
16
Q
What is the name of the most common synaptic transmission
A
Axodendritic
17
Q
Tunnels (connexons) to connect cytosol of two cells are called what
A
gap junction
18
Q
What is needed to burst the telodendria (terminal bulb) to release the stored neurotransmitter
A
Ca++
19
Q
Norepinephrine, glutamate, and nitric oxide are all excitatory or inhibitory
A
excitatory
20
Q
NE is found where
A
brain stem, hypothalamus
21
Q
Glutamate is found where
A
CNS, cerebral cortex
22
Q
Nitric oxide is found where
A
Brain (quickly diffuses)
23
Q
Acetylcholine, Dopamine, Glycine, GABA, and Serotonin are all excitatory or inhibitory
A
inhibitory
24
Avetylcholine is found where
Motor cortex
25
Dopamine is found where
substantia nigra
26
Glycine is found where
spinal cord
27
GABA is found where
spinal cord, cerebellum, basal ganglia
28
Serotonin
Brain stem
29
Myelin is stripped and replaced with scar tissue is called what
sclerosis
30
Myelin is primarily made of what
Fat
31
Post synaptic potentials spatial summation
buildup NT's released- SEVERAL presynaptic bulbs
32
Post synaptic potentials, temporal summation
NT released- SINGLE presynaptic bulb fires 2x or more
33
What are the 3 other names for a neuron cell body
soma, perikaryon, karyon
34
Free nerve endings, pain, tickle, itch and temperature are categorized as what type of receptor
Pain- nociceptors
35
Pressure, encapsulated mechanoreceptor is called what
End bulbs of Krause
36
Temperature perception, pressure, encapsulated and multi branched. 2-5 degrees perception is specifically what
Corpuscles of Ruffini
37
General touch is what type of receptor
Merkel's Disc
38
Fine touch is what type of receptor
Meissner's corpuscles
39
What tract is Merkel's disc located?
Anterior spinothalamic tract
40
Where are Meissner's Corpuscles located
Dorsal column
41
What is the only receptor that is NOT encapsulated
Merkel's Disc
42
Pressure, vibration, encapsulated is what type of touch receptor
Pacinian Corpuscle*
43
Which touch receptor is also known as the 'phasic receptor'
Pacinian corpuscles
44
Stretch (dynamic and static ONLY in skeletal muscle) is what type of proprioception receptor
Muscle spindles
45
Load or weight is which type of proprioception receptor
Golgi tendon organ
46
Prevents excessive tension in a muscle is which type of proprioception receptor
Golgi tendon reflex
47
Sympathetic response to blood vessels, skin, and muscle
vasoconstricts- shunts blood via vasomotor control to proximal limbs and lungs
48
Sympathetic response to heart
increases heart rate
'Tachycardia'
49
Sympathetic response to lung and bronchi
Deep breaths
dilates bronchi
'Mydriasis'= dilation
50
Sympathetic response to eyes-pupils
dilates
51
Sympathetic response to GI peristalsis and colon
decreases secretions
| decreases digestion
52
Sympathetic response to receptors
adrenergic
53
Sympathetic response to neurotransmitters- Preganglionic, postganglionic
Pre: acetylcholine
Post: epinephrine
norepinephrine
54
Parasympathetic response to blood vessels, skin, and muscle
Little or no effect
55
Parasympathetic response to heart
decreases heart rate
'bradycardia'
56
Parasympathetic response to lung or bronchi
shallow breaths
| constricts
57
Parasympathetic response to eyes-pupils
constricts
58
Parasympathetic response to GI peristalsis, and colon
Increase secretions
| Increase bowel movement activity
59
Parasympathetic response to receptors
Cholinergic
60
Parasympathetic response to neurotransmitter: pre and postganglionic
Pre: Acetylcholine
Post: Acetylcholine
61
Influx of sodium
Depolarization
62
Efflux of potassium
Repolarization
63
No action potential possible
Absolute refractory*
64
Action potential available with increase potential
relative refractory*
65
Many synapse single cell
spatial summation
66
Rapid succession of action potential, few synapses
temporal
67
Sympathetic ganglion has a _____ preganglion and a _______ postganglion
Short pre
| long post
68
When you see the word cerebellum, Think
Coordination
69
When you see the word pons, think
Breathing
70
Location of somatosensory input
postcentral gyrus (parietal lobe)
71
Location of Visual sensory area
occipital lobe, striate cortex, calcarine fissure
72
Location of auditory area
superior temporal lobe, gyrus (Heschl's gyrus)
73
Location of Gustatory area
base of postcentral gyrus
74
Location of olfactory area
Medial temporal lobe
75
Location of Wernicke's area
superior temporal lobe
76
What is the RECEPTIVE portion of language
Wernicke's
77
Location of motor area of cerebellum
precentral gyrus (frontal lobe)
78
Location of premotor area of cerebellum
anterior to motor cortex
79
What area are skilled movements of the cerebellum located
premotor, anterior to motor cortex
80
What area is the EXPRESSIVE portion of language located
Broca's area
81
Where is Broca's area specifically
Inferior portion of frontal lobe
82
When you see the word Pon's, think
Breathing
83
Which CN are involved in the origin of the pons
CN V, VI, VII, VIII
84
Midbrain is located where
superior colliculi
| inferior colliculi
85
What is the primary function of the midbrain at the superior colliculi
coordinate the eyeball movements in response to visual stimuli
86
What is the primary function of the midbrain at the inferior colliculi
coordinate head and trunk auditory stimuli
87
Which CN are involved with the midbrain
CN III, IV
88
Medulla is known as the reflex center for what
vitals
heartbeat, breathing, and blood vessel diameter
89
The medulla coordinates what actions
swallowing, vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and hiccuping.
90
Which nuclei helps to maintain equilibrium with the medulla
vestibular
91
What is the origin of the Medulla CN
CN VIII, IX, X, XI, XII
92
When you see the word cerebellum, think
coordination
93
'SIN' is a mnemonic for what, dealing with the cerebellum
staccato or slurred speech
intention tremor
nystagmus
94
Thalamus is the main relay between what two structures
cortex and spinal cord
95
Thalamus deals with what type of sensation
crude sensation
96
What two systems does the hypothalamus control
ANS and endocrine system
97
body temp, food intake, and thirst are all controlled by what brain center
hypothalamus
98
What helps to maintain a waking state and sleeping state
hypothalamus
99
What area of the brain releases somatostatin
hypothalamus
100
fornix, hippocampus, cingulate gyrus, amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus and parts of the thalamus all deal with what
emotional aspects of behavior
101
fornix, hippocampus, cingulate gyrus, amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus and parts of the thalamus are collectively known as what
limbic system
102
What is known as the pacemaker of the heart
SA node
103
SA node is innervated by what CN
X (vagus)
104
SA node prevents what from happening to the heart
tetany
105
What is the ONLY artery that is not oxygenated
Pulmonary artery
Carried deoxygenated blood from RV to lungs
106
What is the ONLY vein that is oxygenated
Pulmonary vein
Carries oxygenated blood to the LA
107
If there is a pathology associated with valves of the heart, what valves are most likely to be affected?
```
Mitral Valve (aka bicuspid, or left AV valve)
Aortic valve (aka left semilunar valve)
```
because they are on the left side of the heart and are pumping to the whole body
108
How many beats/min for the sinus node
60-80 beats/min
109
How many beats/min for the AV node
40-60 beats/min
110
How many beats/min for the bundle of HIS
20-40 beats/min
111
How many beats/min for the bundle branches
zero
112
How many beats/min for the purkinje fibers
0-20 beats/min
113
What is the ratio of Na+:K+ that maintains resting state of heart
3Na:2K
3 na out for every 2 k in
114
When looking at an EKG what is the P wave
Atrial depolarization
115
When looking at an EKG how long is the duration between the S wave and T Wave
.04 - .06 seconds
116
When looking at an EKG what is the QRS complex
ventricular depolarization AND
| atrial repolarization
117
When looking at an EKG what is the T wave
Ventricular repolarization
118
When looking at an EKG, what is happening during the depolarization phase
WORK
depol: apex-base
119
When looking at an EKG, what is occurring during the Repolarization phase
REST
120
When looking at an EKG, what is happening to the ventricles and atria while in the QRS phase
```
Ventricular contraction (shown on EKG)
atrial relaxation (hidden or obscured on EKG, because is occurring at same time as ventricular contraction)
```
121
The Closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves is referred to as what during normal heart contraction
S1- 'lub'
122
The closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves (semilunars) is known as what in normal heart contraction
S2- 'dub'
123
EKG (aka ECG) are used to test what organ
heart
124
EEG is used to test what
Brain
125
EMG is used to test what
Muscle
126
Force exerted by fluid against a wall is called what
hydrostatic pressure
127
Created by plasma proteins unable to move through the capillary membrane
osmotic pressure
128
** What type of murmurs are the most clinically significant
diastolic murmurs
129
* What are the diastolic murmur functions on the right side of the heart
Pulmonic regurgitation
Tricuspid stenosis
(PRTS)
** Opposite for systolic murmurs (Ie. pulmonic stenosis, tricuspid regurgitation)
130
**What are the diastolic murmur functions for the left side of the heart
Aortic regurgitation
Mitral Stenosis
(arms)
**Opposite for systolic murmur : (Ie. Mitral regurgitation, aortic stenosis)
131
What law states what muscle will increase in size when used
Davis' law
132
Which law states that stroke volume increases in response to increase volume of blood filling heart
Frank-Starling law (aka Maestrini heart's law)
133
What is another name for the frank-starling law
Maestrini heart's law
134
Which law states that there is an inversely proportional relationship between absolute pressure and volume of gas, if temp is kept constant within a closed system
Boyle's law
135
What are the precursor platelets for hematology and immunity
megakaryocytes
136
What are the two proteins found in blood
albumin and globulin
137
What is produced while an embryo
yolk sac
138
What is produced while a fetus
liver, spleen, lymph, bone marrow
139
What is produced while an adult
membranous bone marrow
140
Where is erythropoietin made and what does it stimulate
made in kidney
| stimulates RBC production
141
Bilirubin is taken care of by which organ
liver
142
What is the sequence of events that takes place during blood clotting
damaged cells--> prothrombin activator changes prothrombin to thrombin--> thrombin is changed to fibrinogen--> fibrinogen is changed to fibrin--> mixes with RBC, platelets, and plasma--> blood clot is formed
143
white blood cells are known as what
leukocytes
144
Leukocytes are composed of what
```
neutrophil (60%)
lymphocyte (30%)
monocyte (8%)
eosinophil (3%)
basophil (0%)
```
145
Granulocytes
basophil, eosinophils, neutrophil
BEN
146
Agranulocytes
lymphocytes
| monocytes
147
mnemonic for remembering granulocytes and agranulocytes
never let my engine blow, 60-30-8-3-0
148
Neutrophils can also be called what
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PML)
149
Where are Kupffer cells found
liver
150
Where are alveolar macrophages located
alveoli
151
Where are microglial cells located
brain
152
Where are histiocyte or fixed macrophages located
tissue
153
*Cell membrane found in skeletal and cardiac muscle
sarcolemma
154
*Stores Ca++ to be released (skeletal muscle)
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
155
*Telephone line to send the action potential into the muscle to cause calcium release from the Sarcoplasmic reticulum
T-tubules
156
two types, actin and myosin, ratio 2:1
myofibril
157
Thick, H zone, cross bridges, (ATPase attach to the myosin head)
Actin
158
contains the binding site
F-actin filament
159
Covers F actin's binding sites
tropomyosin "mom"
160
Binds calcium and moves tropomyosin off binding site (found skeletal and cardiac)
troponin "dad"
161
Consists of actin, myosin, and sarcoplasmic reticulum
smooth muscle
162
What is needed for smooth muscle contraction
calmodulin
163
When the muscle is contracted, what band shortens
I band
164
During muscle contraction, what band stays the same length
A band
165
Z line to Z line is called what
sarcomere
166
which band contains both actin and myosin
A band
167
What band contains myosin only
H band
168
What band contains actin only
I band
169
muscle lengthens while it contracts
eccentric contration
170
muscle shortens while it contracts
concentric contraction
171
Muscle contracts without joint movement or muscle lengthening
isometric
172
muscle contracts with joint movement and constant weight
isotonic
173
muscle contracts with joint movement and constant weight and speed
isokinetic
174
single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
motor unit
175
split ATP rapidly
fast-twitch muscle fibers
176
Alpha- extrafusal
Gamma- intrafusal
are what type of fibers
ventral root fibers
177
determined by number of muscle fibers recruited
strength of muscle
178
What is the name of the complex that moves to expose active sites
troponin-tropomyosin complex
179
What is impermeable to water
ascending loop of Henle
180
Abdominal swelling
ascites
181
Fats are digested where
duodenum
182
Edema of the whole body is known as what
anasarca
183
Kidney blood flow sequence
renal artery, interlobar, arcuate, interlobar, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, peritubular capiullary, venule, interlobular vein, arcuate vein, interlobar vein, renal vein, IVC
184
Urine flow sequence
collecting duct, calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra
185
*Which part of the kidney contains no H2O
Ascending portion
186
*E = F - R + S
Refers to several questions regarding kidney
Know equation, but what does each letter stand for
Excreted (urine)
Filtered (in glomerulus)
Reabsorbed
Secreted
187
How much is filtered through the kidney per day
180L/day
| other capillary beds only filter 3 L/day
188
What part of the kidney is responsible for filtration
Bowman's capsule
189
Cells form filtration membrane of Kidney are known as what
Podocytes
190
Counter current membrane in kidney is called
Loop of Henle
191
Thin-walled vessels, parallel loops of Henle known as what
Vasa recta
192
Aldosterone reabsorbs Na+ and secretes K+ occurs in what location of the kidney
Distal tubule
193
How much filtrate is reabsorbed by the end of the proximal tubule
65%
194
How much filtrate is reabsorbed by the end of the distal tubule in the kidney
99%
195
120-125 ml/min in an adult, determined by hyrdostatic pressure is referred to as what
Normal Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
