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Physiology > Physiology Exam Review #4 > Flashcards

Physiology Exam Review #4 Flashcards

1
Q

What do all body processes directly or indirectly require?

A

ATP

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2
Q

What does most ATP synthesis require and produce?

A

Requires oxygen; produces carbon dioxide

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3
Q

A system of tubes that delivers air to the lungs

A

The respiratory system

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4
Q

Which gases diffuse into and out of the blood?

A

Oxygen diffuses into the blood, and carbon dioxide diffuses out

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5
Q

Which systems work together to deliver oxygen to the tissues and remove carbon dioxide?

A

Respiratory and cardiovascular systems - disorders of the lungs directly affect the heart and vice versa

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6
Q

What are the respiratory and cardiovascular systems considered jointly as?

A

The cardiopulmonary system

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7
Q

Which systems collaborate to regulate the body’s acid-base balance?

A

The respiratory and the urinary systems

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8
Q

A term used to refer to ventilation of the lungs (breathing)

A

Respiration

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9
Q

What are the functions of respiration?

A
  • Gas exchange: oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged between blood and air
  • Communication: speech and other vocalizations
  • Olfaction: sense of smell
  • Acid-Base balance: influences pH of body fluids by eliminating carbon dioxide
  • Blood pressure regulation: by helping in synthesis of angiotensin II
  • Blood and lymph flow: breathing creates pressure gradients between thorax and abdomen that promote flow of lymph and blood
  • Expulsion of abdominal contents: breath-holding assists in urination, defecation, and childbirth
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10
Q

Increasing pressure in the thorax cavity

A

Valsalva maneuver

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11
Q

Which zone gets air to the respiratory zone

A

The conducting zone

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12
Q

Which tract is in the head and neck (nose through larynx)

A

Upper respiratory tract

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13
Q

Which tract is in the thorax (trachea through major bronchioles)

A

Lower respiratory tract

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14
Q

Which zone is the site of gas exchange

A

Respiratory zone

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15
Q

The alveoli and respiratory bronchioles are located in which zone?

A

The respiratory zone

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16
Q

What are the functions of the conducting zone?

A
  • Transports air to the respiratory zone
  • Voice production in the larynx as air passes over the vocal folds
  • Warms, humidifies, filters, and cleans the air
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17
Q

What does the mucus secreted by cells of the conducting zone do?

A

The mucus traps small particles

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18
Q

What is it called when mucus moves along the cilia that beat in a coordinated fashion to the pharynx - this is where it can be cleared by swallowing or expectorating

A

Mucociliary escalator

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19
Q

What is the process called when mucus is taken to the pharynx to be cleared by swallowing or expectorating

A

Mucociliary clearance

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20
Q

In which disease does the mucociliary escalator not function properly due to the fact that abnormal mucus is too thick for the cilia to properly clear

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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21
Q

Which preventable cause damages cilia and reduces mucociliary clearance

A

Smoking

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22
Q

These have air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs

A

Alveoli

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23
Q

How many alveoli are there?

A

300 million

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24
Q

What is the purpose for having so many alveoli?

A

To provide a large surface area (760 square feet) to increase diffusion rate

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25
Q

What is one-cell layer thick but has great tensile strength (the ability to expand without ripping or popping)

A

Alveoli

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26
Q

What forms clusters at the ends of respiratory bronchioles

A

Alveoli

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27
Q

What keeps the alveoli clean

A

Resident macrophages - they may engulf carbon dust

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28
Q

Which type of alveolar cell has 95 to 97% surface area where gas exchange occurs

A

Type I

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29
Q

Which type of alveolar cell secretes pulmonary surfactant and reabsorbs sodium and water, preventing fluid buildup

A

Type II

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30
Q

Movement of air from higher to lower pressure, between the conducting zone and the terminal bronchioles, occurs as a result of what

A

The pressure difference between the two ends of the airways

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31
Q

Which cavity contains the heart, trachea, esophagus, and thymus within the central mediastinum

A

The thoracic cavity

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32
Q

What fills the rest of the thoracic cavity

A

The lungs

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33
Q

What lines the thoracic wall

A

The parietal pleura

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34
Q

What covers the lungs

A

The visceral pleura

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35
Q

What is the potential space between the parietal and visceral pleura

A

The intrapleural space

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36
Q

What contains a thin layer of fluid, secreted by the parietal pleura

A

The intrapleural space

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37
Q

What was formed as a filtrate from blood capillaries in the parietal pleura and is drained into lymphatic capillaries

A

The thin layer of fluid within the intrapleural space

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38
Q

What is the main function of the fluid within the intrapleural space

A

To serve as a lubricant so that the lungs can slide relative to the chest during breathing

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39
Q

A dome-shaped skeletal muscle of respiration that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities

A

The diaphragm

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40
Q

Cavity below the diaphragm that contains the liver, pancreas, gastrointestinal tract, spleen, genitourinary tract, and other organs

A

The abdominopelvic cavity

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41
Q

Which physical property of the lungs allows them to expand when stretched, and ease to which they expand under pressure

A

Lung compliance

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42
Q

Which physical property of the lung is reduced by factors that produce a resistance to distention such as infiltration of connective tissue proteins in pulmonary fibrosis

A

Lung compliance

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43
Q

Which physical property of the lungs allow them to return to initial size after being stretched, and is the result of them to have lots of elastin fibers

A

Lung elasticity

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44
Q

Which physical property of the lung is always happening since they are stuck to the thoracic wall

A

Elastic tension

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45
Q

Tension ____ during inspiration and is ____ by elastic recoil during expiration

A

Increases, reduced

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46
Q

Which physical property of the lung is related to the resistance of distension and exerted by fluid secreted on the alveoli

A

Surface tension

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47
Q
  • A surface active agent
  • Secreted into the alveoli by type II alveolar cells
  • Consists of hydrophobic protein and phospholipids
  • Reduces surface tension between water molecules
  • More concentrated as alveoli get smaller during expiration
  • Prevents collapse
  • Allows a residual volume of air to remain in lungs
A

Surfactant

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48
Q

Consists of a repetitive cycle of inspiration (inhaling) and expiration (exhaling)

A

Breathing (pulmonary ventilation)

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49
Q

One complete inspiration and expiration

A

Respiratory cycle

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50
Q

Type of respiration that happens at rest, is effortless, and automatic

A

Quiet respiration

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51
Q

Type of respiration that is deep, rapid breathing, such as during exercise

A

Forced respiration

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52
Q

What does the flow of air in and out of the lung depend on

A

Depends on a pressure difference between air within the lungs and outside the body

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53
Q

Which muscles change lung volumes and create difference in pressure relative to the atmosphere

A

The respiratory muscles

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54
Q

What is the prime mover of respiration

A

The diaphragm

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55
Q

___ flattens diaphragm, enlarging thoracic cavity and pulling air into lungs

A

Contraction

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56
Q

____ allows diaphragm to bulge upward again, compressing the lungs and expelling air

A

Relaxation

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57
Q

Which organ accounts for two-thirds of airflow

A

The diaphragm

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58
Q

Which muscles of respiration act mainly in forced respiration

A

Accessory muscles

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59
Q

An energy-saving passive process achieved by the elasticity of the lungs and thoracic cage

A

Normal quiet expiration

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60
Q

As muscles relax, structures recoil to original shape and original (smaller) size of thoracic cavity, which results in _____

A

airflow out of the lungs

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61
Q

What raises the pressure within the alveoli above the atmospheric pressure and pushes the air out

A

The decrease in lung volume

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62
Q

Greatly increased abdominal pressure pushes viscera up against diaphragm increasing thoracic pressure, forcing air out

A

Forced expiration

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63
Q

Which expiration is important for “abdominal breathing”

A

Forced expiration

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64
Q

Mechanisms of breathing - volume of thoracic cavity (and lungs) increases vertically when diaphragm contracts (flattens) and laterally when parasternal and external intercostals raise the ribs

A

Inspiration

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65
Q

If the thoracic and lung volume increase and then intrapulmonary pressure decreases, then air goes ___

A

in

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66
Q

Mechanisms of breathing - volume of thoracic cavity (and lungs) decreases vertically when diaphragm relaxes (dome) and laterally when external and parasternal intercostals relax for quiet expiration or internal intercostals contract in forced expiration to lower the ribs

A

Expiration

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67
Q

If the thoracic and lung volume decreases and then intrapulmonary pressure increases, then air goes ___

A

out

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68
Q

Subject breathes into and out of a device that records volume and frequency of air movement on a spirogram

A

Spirometry

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69
Q

What pulmonary function test can measure lung volume and capacities and can diagnose restrictive and obstructive lung disorders

A

Spirometry

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70
Q

Lung volume - amount of air expired or inspired in each breath of quiet breathing (normal/relaxed breathing)

A

Tidal volume

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71
Q

Lung volume - amount of air that can be forced out after tidal volume

A

Expiratory reserve volume

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72
Q

Lung volume - amount of air that can be forced in after tidal volume

A

Inspiratory reserve volume

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73
Q

Lung volume - amount of air left in lungs after maximum expiration

A

Residual volume

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74
Q

Lung capacity - maximum amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a maximum inhalation

A

Vital capacity

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75
Q

Lung capacity - amount of gas in the lungs after a maximum inspiration

A

Total lung capacity

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76
Q

Lung capacity - amount of gas that can be inspired after a normal expiration

A

Inspiratory capacity

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77
Q

Lung capacity - amount of air in lungs after a quiet expiration

A

Functional residual capacity

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78
Q

As fresh air is inhaled, it is mixed with air in the ____

A

anatomical dead zone

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79
Q

This area comprises the conducting zone of the respiratory system and is where no gas exchange occurs

A

The anatomical dead space/zone

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80
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume

A

Vital capacity

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81
Q

Residual volume + expiratory reserve volume

A

Functional residual capacity

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82
Q

Tidal volume x breaths per minute (approximately 6L/min)

A

Total minute volume

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83
Q

In which disorder is vital capacity reduced but forced expiration is normal, there is decreased compliance, inhalation is restricted, and it makes it difficult to fill lungs with air

A

Restrictive disorders

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84
Q

In which disorder is vital capacity normal but forced expiration is reduced, there is decreased elastance, and is due to lung damage or narrowing of airways, which makes it difficult to fill lungs with air

A

Obstructive disorders

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85
Q

This is an obstructive disorder that has symptoms of dyspnea and wheezing. Obstruction of air flow caused by inflammation, mucus secretion, and constriction of bronchioles.

A

Asthma

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86
Q

This obstructive disorder is caused by chronic inflammation, narrowing of the airways, and alveolar destruction, which includes emphysema and chronic obstructive bronchiolitis.

A

COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder)

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87
Q

Inflammation from COPD involves which cells

A

Neutrophils and cytotoxic T cells

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88
Q

What may develop from COPD that could eventually lead to failure of the right ventricle

A

Cor pulmonale - pulmonary hypertension with hypertrophy

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89
Q

Which restrictive disorder accumulates fibrous tissue in the lungs when alveoli are damaged, may be due to inhalation of small particles, and is also known as black lung

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

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90
Q

Total atmospheric pressure is the sum of the contributions of the individual gases

A

Dalton’s law

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91
Q

The separate contribution of each gas in a mixture

A

Partial pressure

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92
Q

What percentage of nitrogen constitutes the atmosphere

A

78.6%

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93
Q

The swapping of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the respiratory membrane

A

Alveolar gas exchange

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94
Q

At the air-water interface, for a given temperature, the amount of gas that dissolves in the water is determined by its solubility in water and its partial pressure in air

A

Henry’s law

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95
Q

What does unloading carbon dioxide and loading oxygen involve?

A

Erythrocytes

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96
Q

At rest, how long does a RBC spend in alveolar capillaries

A

0.75 seconds

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97
Q

In strenuous exercise, how long does a RBC spend in alveolar capillaries

A

0.3 seconds

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98
Q

What is the normal pressure gradient of oxygen

A

PO2 = 104 mm Hg in alveolar air vs. 40 mm Hg in blood

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99
Q

What is the normal pressure gradient of carbon dioxide

A

PCO2 = 46 mm Hg in blood vs. 40 mm Hg in alveolar air

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100
Q

Treatment with oxygen at greater than 1 atm of pressure

A

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy

101
Q

At high altitudes, the partial pressure of all gases are ____

A

lower

102
Q

What happens to RBC production when there is less oxygen in the blood

A

Increase of RBC production

103
Q

How much more soluble is carbon dioxide to oxygen

A

CO2 is 20 times as soluble as O2 - equal amounts of O2 and CO2 are exchanged across the respiratory membrane because CO2 is much more soluble and diffuses more rapidly

104
Q

100 mL blood in alveolar capillaries, spread thinly over 70m2

A

Membrane surface area

105
Q

The process of carrying gases from the alveoli to the systemic tissues and vice versa

A

Gas transport

106
Q

What is the amount of hemoglobin bound and amount of plasma dissolved in oxygen transport

A

98.5% bound to hemoglobin and 1.5% dissolved in plasma

107
Q

What are the percentages of carbon dioxide in transport

A

90% is hydrated to form carbonic acid, 5% is bound to proteins, and 5% is dissolved as a gas in plasma

108
Q

What are the percentages of carbon dioxide in exchange

A

70% of CO2 comes from carbonic acid, 20% comes from proteins, and 10% comes straight from plasma

109
Q

How much oxygen is carried in the arterial blood

A

Arterial blood carries about 20 mL of O2 per deciliter

110
Q

Molecules specialized for oxygen transport

A

Hemoglobin

111
Q

How many protein (globin) portions are there

A

Four

112
Q

___ hemoglobin molecule can carry up to 4 O2

A

One

113
Q

O2 bound to hemoglobin

A

Oxyhemoglobin (HbO2)

114
Q

Hemoglobin with no O2

A

Deoxyhemoglobin (HHb)

115
Q

What are the three forms that carbon dioxide can be transported in

A
  • Carbonic acid: 70%
  • Carbamino compounds: 20%
  • Dissolved in plasma: 10%
116
Q

What percentage of CO2 is hydrated to form carbonic acid

A

90%

117
Q

What can transport O2 and CO2 simultaneously

A

Hemoglobin

118
Q

Which gas competes for the O2 binding sites on the hemoglobin molecule

A

Carbon monoxide (CO)

119
Q

Colorless, odorless gas in cigarette smoke, engine exhaust, fumes from furnaces and space heaters

A

Carbon monoxide

120
Q

When carbon monoxide binds to iron of hemoglobin (Hb)

A

Carboxyhemoglobin

121
Q

The unloading of O2 and loading of CO2 at the systemic capillaries

A

Systemic gas exchange

122
Q

When 22% of its oxygen load has been given up

A

Utilization coefficient

123
Q

The oxygen remaining in the blood after it passes through the capillary beds

A

Venous reserve

124
Q

Why would hemoglobin unload O2

A

To match metabolic needs of different states of activity of the tissues

125
Q

What are the four factors that adjust the rate of oxygen unloading to match need

A
  • Ambient PO2
  • Temperature
  • Bohr effect
  • Concentration of biphosphoglycerate
126
Q

Active (meaning metabolism has been increased) tissues have decreased PO2; O2 is released from Hb

A

Ambient PO2

127
Q

During this factor that adjust oxygen unloading, active tissues have increased ____ which promotes O2 unloading

A

Temperature

128
Q

Active tissues have increased CO2, which lowers pH of blood, promoting O2 unloading

A

Bohr effect

129
Q

Low level of oxyhemoglobin enables the blood to transport more CO2

A

Haldane effect

130
Q

Contraction and relaxation of breathing muscles is controlled by motor neurons from which two areas of the brain

A
  • Cerebral cortex: voluntary breathing
  • Respiratory control centers of the medulla oblongata and pons: involuntary breathing
131
Q

Motor neurons that innervate the diaphragm form the phrenic nerve and arise from where

A

From the cervical region of the spinal cord

132
Q

Motor neurons that innervate the other breathing muscles arise from where

A

The thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord

133
Q

Where is the rhythmicity center/ventrolateral region

A

Medulla oblongata

134
Q

Generates inspiratory rhythm; has intrinsic rhythmicity but can also have automatic bursts of activity

A

Pre-Botzinger complex

135
Q

Influenced by both excitatory and inhibitory synapses, so it can be modified for speech and other motor activities

A

Pre-Botzinger complex

136
Q

Which area of the brain may influence medulla activity

A

The pons

137
Q

Area within the pons that promotes inspiration by stimulating medulla inspiratory centers

A

Apneustic center

138
Q

Area within the pons that inhibits inspiration

A

Pneumotaxic center

139
Q

Which respiratory center controls breathing largely via the phrenic motor nuclei from C3-C6 cervical spinal nuclei

A

Brainstem respiratory centers

140
Q

Automatic control of breathing is influenced by feedback from these receptors, which monitor pH of fluids in the brain and pH PCO2 and PO2 of the blood

A

Chemoreceptors

141
Q

Chemoreceptors located in the retrotrapezoid nucleus of the medulla

A

Central chemoreceptors

142
Q

Chemoreceptors located in the carotid and aorta arteries

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors

143
Q

Which body sends feedback to medulla along vagus nerve

A

Aortic body

144
Q

Which body sends feedback to medulla along glossopharyngeal nerve

A

Carotid body

145
Q

What is it called when ventilation is inadequate

A

Hypoventilation

146
Q

What is it called when CO2 levels rise and pH falls

A

Hypercapnia

147
Q

What is it called when CO2 levels fall and pH rises

A

Hyperventilation

148
Q

Why do oxygen levels not change as rapidly

A

Because of oxygen reserves in hemoglobin

149
Q

This is controlled to maintain constant levels of CO2 in the blood

A

Ventilation

150
Q

What can cross the blood-brain barrier and react with water in the CSF to produce H+ in the brain interstitial fluid that stimulates the central chemoreceptors

A

Arterial CO2

151
Q

Which process takes longer but is responsible for 70 to 80% of increased ventilation

A

Arterial CO2 crossing the blood-brain barrier to react with water in the CSF

152
Q

These chemoreceptors respond much quicker and occur when aortic and carotid bodies respond to the rise in H+ in the blood due to increased CO2 levels due to hypoventilation

A

Peripheral Chemoreceptors

153
Q

Which pulmonary receptors stimulate coughing

A
  • Irritant receptors: in wall of larynx; respond to smoke, particulates, etc.
  • Rapidly adapting receptors: in lungs; respond to excess fluid
154
Q

Which reflex is stimulated by pulmonary stretch receptors, inhibits respiratory centers as inhalation proceeds, and makes sure that you do not inhale too deeply

A

Hering-Breuer reflex

155
Q

This is due to low plasma PCO2 due to hyperventilation which causes cerebral vasoconstriction, which also results in inadequate brain perfusion and hypoxia that can produce dizziness

A

Hypocapnia

156
Q

What are the kidney’s function?

A

The regulation of the extracellular fluid environment in the body

157
Q

Which extracellular fluid is regulated by the kidneys?

A
  • Volume of blood plasma (affects blood pressure)
  • Wastes
  • Electrolytes
  • pH
  • Secrete erythropoietin
158
Q

Where is urine made?

A

In the kidney nephrons

159
Q

What is the path of urine after it is made?

A
  • Drains into the renal pelvis
  • Down the ureter to the urinary bladder
  • Passes from the bladder through the urethra to exit the body
160
Q

How is urine transported

A

By a wave like motion through the tubes called peristalsis

161
Q

What are the distinct regions of the kidney

A

The renal cortex and the renal medulla

162
Q

What is the renal medulla made up of

A

Renal pyramids and columns

163
Q

Where does each renal pyramid in the renal medulla drain into

A

The minor calyx to the major calyx to the renal pelvis

164
Q

The functional unit of the kidney

A

The nephron

165
Q

How many nephrons does each kidney have

A

More than a million

166
Q

What does each nephron consist of

A

Small tubules and associated blood vessels

167
Q

____ is filtered, fluid enters the tubules, is modified, then leaves the tubules as urine

A

Blood

168
Q

What surrounds the glomerulus

A

The glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule

169
Q

Together, the glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule and glomerulus make up

A

The renal corpuscle

170
Q

What is produced in the renal corpuscle

A

Filtrate

171
Q

What is the path of the fluid filtrate

A
  • After being produced in the renal corpuscle, it passes into the proximal convoluted tubule
  • Fluid passes into the descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle
  • Fluid then passes into the distal convoluted tubule
  • Finally, fluid passes into the collecting duct
  • The fluid is now urine and will drain into a minor calyx
172
Q

What are the two types of nephrons

A
  • Juxtamedullary: next to the medulla
  • Cortical: in the cortex region of the kidney
173
Q

Which muscles line the wall of the urinary bladder

A

Detrusor muscles

174
Q

Which junctions connect the smooth muscle cells of the detrusor muscles

A

Gap junctions

175
Q

Detrusor muscles are innervated by which neurons

A

Parasympathetic neurons - which release acetylcholine into muscarinic ACh receptors

176
Q

What are the two sphincters that surround the urethra

A
  • Internal urethral sphincter: smooth muscle
  • External urethral sphincter: skeletal muscle
177
Q

Which receptors in the bladder send information to S2-S4 regions of the spinal cord

A

Stretch receptors

178
Q

What is it called when neurons normally inhibit parasympathetic nerves to the detrusor muscles, while somatic motor neurons to the external urethral sphincter are stimulated

A

The guarding reflex - prevents involuntary emptying of bladder

179
Q

What initiates the voiding reflex

A

Stretch of the bladder

180
Q

Hard objects formed in the kidneys containing crystalized minerals or waste products

A

Nephrolithiasis or kidney stones

181
Q

What are kidney stones made up of

A

80% are calcium stones, but other can be of magnesium, ammonium, phosphate, or uric acid

182
Q

Uncontrolled urination due to loss of bladder control

A

Urinary incontinence

183
Q

This type of incontinence is present when urine leakage occurs due to increased abdominal pressure, as during sneezing, coughing, and laughing

A

Stress urinary incontinence

184
Q

Where does filtration being within the kidneys

A

Begins at the glomerulus

185
Q

Why are capillaries of the glomerulus fenestrated

A

Large pores allow water and solutes to leave but not blood cells and plasma proteins

186
Q

What is the fluid entering the glomerular capsule called

A

Filtrate

187
Q

What are the major barriers for the filtration of plasma proteins

A

Slits in the pedicles called slit diaphragm pores

188
Q

____ is the fluid in the capsular space - similar to blood plasma except almost no protein

A

Glomerular filtrate

189
Q

Volume of filtrate produced by both kidneys each minute

A

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

190
Q

How often is the total blood volume filtered

A

Every 40 minutes

191
Q

What changes the filtration rate of afferent arterioles

A

Vasoconstriction or dilation

192
Q

Which regulation is via sympathetic nervous system

A

Extrinsic regulation

193
Q

Which regulation is via signals from the kidneys, called renal autoregulation

A

Intrinsic regulation

194
Q

What is maintained at a constant level even when blood pressure fluctuates greatly

A

GFR

195
Q

When smooth muscles in arterioles sense an increase in blood pressure

A

Myogenic constriction

196
Q

When cells in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle called macula densa sense a rise in water and sodium as occurs with increased blood pressure (and filtration rate)

A

Tubuloglomerular feedback

197
Q

What is it called when a minimum of 400 ml (14oz) must be excreted to rid the body of wastes

A

The obligatory water loss

198
Q

Where does 85% of reabsorption occur

A

In the proximal tubules and descending loop of Henle

199
Q

The osmolality of filtrate in the glomerular capsule is equal to that of ____

A

Blood plasma (isosmotic)

200
Q

What is actively transported out of the filtrate into the peritubular blood to set up a concentration gradient to drive osmosis

A

Sodium

201
Q

In active transport, cells of the proximal tubules are joined by tight junctions on which side of the tubule

A

The apical side (facing inside the tubule)

202
Q

In active transport, what do the cells have a lower concentration of

A

Lower sodium concentration than the filtrate inside the tubule due to sodium potassium pumps on the basal side of the cells and low permeability to sodium

203
Q

In passive transport, the pumping of sodium into the interstitial space attracts what

A

Negative chloride out of the filtrate

204
Q

In passive transport, what follows sodium and chloride into the tubular cells and the interstitial space

A

Water

205
Q

In passive transport, where do the ions and water diffuse

A

Into the peritubular capillaries

206
Q

What cannot be actively pumped out of the tubules and will not cross if isotonic to extracellular fluid

A

Water

207
Q

Which structure allows for a concentration gradient to be set up for the osmosis of water

A

The loop of Henle - the ascending portion

208
Q

Salt is actively pumped into the interstitial fluid where in the loop of Henle

A

The thick segment of the ascending limb

209
Q

Which part of the loop of Henle can osmosis not occur

A

The ascending part of the loop - the walls are not permeable to water

210
Q

Which part of the loop of Henle is not permeable to salt but is permeable to water

A

The descending limb

211
Q

What is the positive feedback mechanism that is created between the two portions of the loop of Henle

A

Countercurrent Multiplication

212
Q

Specialized blood vessels around loop of Henle, which also have a descending and ascending portion

A

Vasa Recta

213
Q

What helps to create the countercurrent system by taking in salts in the descending regions but losing them again in the ascending region

A

Vasa Recta

214
Q

What is the last stop in urine formation

A

The collecting duct and ADH secretion

215
Q

What stimulates the release of ADH

A

An increase in blood osmolality

216
Q

What is called when kidneys must remove excess ions and wastes from the blood

A

Renal clearance

217
Q

Where does renal clearance begin

A

Filtration in the glomerular capsule

218
Q

Reabsorption returns some substances to the blood ______ renal clearance

A

Decreasing

219
Q

Excretion rate =

A

(filtration rate + secretion rate) - reabsorption rate

220
Q

What is used to measure glomerular filtrate rate (GFR) - which is also an indicator of renal health

A

Excretion rate

221
Q

Compound found in garlic, onion, dahlias, and artichokes - great marker of glomerular filtration rate because it is not filtered but not reabsorbed or secreted

A

Inulin

222
Q

Produced in muscles from creatine and released into the blood plasma - its concentration is used to help assess kidney function

A

Creatinine

223
Q
  • A substance enters the glomerular ultrafiltrate
  • Some or all of a filtered substance may enter the urine and be “cleared” from the blood
A

Filtration

224
Q
  • A substance is transported from the filtrate, through tubular cells, and into the blood
  • This decreases the rate at which a substance is cleared, clearance rate is LESS THAN the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
A

Reabsorption

225
Q
  • A substance is transported from peritubular blood, through tubular cells, and into the filtrate
  • When done so by nephrons, its renal plasma clearance is GREATER THAN the GFR
A

Secretion

226
Q

An exogenous molecule injected for measurement of total renal blood flow

A

PAH (para-aminohippuric acid)

227
Q

____ is easily filtered out into the glomerular capsule

A

Glucose

228
Q

Control of sodium levels is important for

A

Blood pressure and blood volume

229
Q

Control of potassium levels is important for

A

Healthy skeletal and cardiac muscle activity

230
Q

What plays a big role in sodium and potassium balance

A

Aldosterone

231
Q

About how much of filtered sodium and potassium is reabsorbed in the nephron - not regulated

A

About 90%

232
Q

An assessment of what the body needs is made, and ______ controls additional reabsorption of sodium and secretion of potassium in the distal tubule and collecting duct

A

Aldosterone

233
Q

Increase in blood potassium triggers an increase in the number of potassium channels in the cortical collecting duct (when blood potassium levels drop, these channels are removed)

A

Aldosterone independent response

234
Q

Increase in blood potassium triggers adrenal cortex to release aldosterone (this increases potassium secretion in the distal tubule and collecting duct)

A

Aldosterone-dependent response

235
Q

This is located where the afferent arteriole comes into contact with the distal tubule and acts as a baroreceptor and detects a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume

A

Juxtaglomerular Apparatus

236
Q

When the juxtaglomerular apparatus detects a decrease in blood pressure and volume, granular cells secrete ____ into the afferent arteriole

A

Renin

237
Q

After granular cells secrete renin into the afferent arteriole, this converts angiotensinogen into _____

A

angiotensin I

238
Q

When angiotensinogen converts angiotensin I, angiotensin-converting enzymes (ACE) converts it then into ___

A

angiotensin II

239
Q

Once angiotensin II is present, this stimulates the adrenal cortex to make ____

A

Aldosterone - which increases blood volume and raises blood pressure

240
Q

Renin is released by the granular cells in response to decreased blood volume and pressure, but what other system can also stimulate renin

A

The sympathetic nervous system

241
Q

Which receptors in the carotid and aorta stimulate the sympathetic nervous system

A

Baroreceptors

242
Q

A system of hormones that helps control blood pressure and GFR

A

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

243
Q

Which organ releases angiotensinogen

A

The liver

244
Q

In which organs does angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) convert angiotensin I to angiotensin II

A

In the lungs and kidneys

245
Q

What is the active hormone that increases blood pressure

A

Angiotensin II

246
Q

This hormone lowers blood pressure in the peritubular capillaries enhancing reabsorption of NaCl and water, stimulates the posterior pituitary to secrete ADH and stimulates thirst

A

Angiotensin II

247
Q

Increases in blood volume will increase the release of ______ from the atria of the heart when atrial walls are stretched

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide hormone

248
Q

Which hormone decreases blood volume and blood pressure

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide

249
Q

Which natriuretic hormone released by the heart’s ventricle can be used clinically to help diagnose CHF

A

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

Physiology (6 decks)

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