Pilot Cafe Flashcards
(293 cards)
1
Q
when is an instrument rating required
A
when acting as PIC under IFR on in weather conditions less than prescribed for VFR
when carrying passengers for compensation or hire on a cross country flights in excess of 50 NM or at night
for flight in Class A airspace
for special VFR between sunset and sunrise
2
Q
to act as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums for VFR -6 hits-
A
6 instrument approaches
holding procedures and tasks
intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems
in the preceding 6 calendar months
3
Q
no six hits logged looking back six months
A
must have a safety pilot when doing your 6 hits in the next 6 months
4
Q
safety pilot requirements
A
holds at least a private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class
have adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft
aircraft must have a dual control system
5
Q
a year since any 6 hits
A
an instrument proficiency check must be completed
6
Q
what is an instrument proficiency check
A
it is an exam to check that you can still be current and must cover the following
air traffic control clearances and procedures
flight by reference to instruments
navigation systems
instrument approach procedures
emergency operations
post-flight procedures
7
Q
what are the requirements for logging instrument approach procedures
A
you must operate the aircraft or sim solely by reference to instruments
be established on each required segment of the IAP down to its published minimums
if conducted in simulated IMC in an aircraft, or in a FFS, ATD, or FTD, simulated conditions must continue down to approach
in an aircraft, flight must be in actual or simulated IMC
8
Q
preflight self assessment
A
IMSAFE
I= illness
M= medication
S=stress
A=Alcohol
F=Fatigue
E=emotion
9
Q
Risk management and personal minimums
A
PAVE
P= pilot(general health, physical, mental, emotional state, proficiency, currency
A= aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance
V= environment(weather hazards, terrain, airports, runways to be used and other conditions
E= external pressure (meetings, people waiting at destination etc
10
Q
decision making
A
DECIDE
D= detect
E=estimate
C=choose
I-identify
D= do
E=evaluate
11
Q
aircraft documents required for flight
A
ARROW
A=airworthiness certificate
R=Registration state and government
O=operating limitations and information
W=weight and balance data
12
Q
Aircraft maintenance inspections requried for flight
A
AVIATE
A= airworthines Directive
V= Vor check every 30 days for IFR
I=inspections, annual 12 calander months, 100 hour, progressive inspection
A= altimeter and static system 24 calander months
T= transponder 24 calander months
E= ELT ever 12 calander months, battery the half life or 1 hour of use
13
Q
preflight info required for IFR
A
NW KRAFT
N=notams
W=weather
K=known traffic delays as advised by ATC
R=runway lengths of intended use
A=alternatives available
F= fuel requirements
T=takeoff and landing performance data
14
Q
no person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has
A
filed an IFR flight plan and recieved an appropriate atc clearance
15
Q
when can you fly IFR without a flight plan or clearance
A
in an uncontrolled airspace (class G) but you must remain in uncontrolled until you have filed and contacted ATC and gotten clearance
16
Q
how can you file an IFR flight plan
A
over the phone, in person, by radio, online, with ATC for pop up IFR
17
Q
for pop up IFR flight plans through ATC is it gauranteed
A
no, ATC can say no and may depending on their workload
18
Q
when must you file your IFR flight plan
A
30 minutes to departure and 4 hours before for lfights above FL230
19
Q
how do you cancel a flight plan
A
ATC will automatically cancel them when you land at a towered airport
for non towered airports you must call via phone or radio and cancel
if you leave IMC you may cancel and change to a VFR flightor if you leave class A
20
Q
when do you need an alternate
A
123 rule
1 hour before and after the published return time the ceiling is 2000 feet or below and the visibility is less than 3 SM
21
Q
what must an airport have to list it as an alternate
A
presicion approach available= 600ft ceiling and 2sm visibility
Non-precision approach = 800ft ceiling and 2sm visibility
no instrument approach available at the alternate= ceiling and visibility must allow decent from MEA, appraoch and landing under VFR
22
Q
IFR takeoff minimums
A
use prescribed takeoff minimums or if there are none 1-2 engine airplane 1sm visibility, more than 2 engines 1/2
23
Q
what does a black triangle with a white T in the middle of it mean
A
non-standard TO mins/Departure procedures
24
Q
what does a black triangle with a white A in the middle of it mean
A
non-standard IFR alternate minimums exist
25
what does a black triangle with a white A in the middle with NA next to it mean
Alternate minimums not authorized
26
Departure Procedures (DP) what does it mean
ensures obstacle clearance
27
what do you need to make ensure obstacle clearance on a DP
the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft AGL
you reached 400 ft AGL before turning
you climb at least 200 feet per NM or as published otherwise on the chart
28
climb in feet per minute needed
feet per minute x groundspeed / 60
29
when should pilots file a DP
at night during MVFR or IMC
30
what are the two types of DP's
Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
31
what is an obstacle departure procedure
a DP
provides only obstacle clearance
printed either textually or graphically
graphic ODP are titled (OBSTACLE)
32
what is a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
a DP
in addition to obstacle clearance it reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearance and minimizing radio communications
may depict special radio failure procedures
SIDs are always printed graphically
33
what are the 3 Equipment categorized DP's
Non-RNAV
RNAV
RADAR
34
what is a NON-RNAV DP
for use by aircraft equipped with ground-based navigation
35
what is a RNAV DP
for aircraft equipped with RNAV equipment
require at least RNAV 1 performance. Identified with the word RNAV in the title
36
what is a RADAR DP
ATC radar vectors to an ATS route, NAVAID, or fix are used after departure. RADAR DPs are annotated "RADAR REQUIRED"
37
are you required to accept a DP
No just put no SIDs in flight plans remarks
38
what are transition routes
connect the end of the basic SID procedure to the enroute structure
39
what is a visual climb over airport (VCOA)
a departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC
pilots can use this to climb visually up to the altitude reported for instrument departure.
40
IFR departure clearance
CRAFT
C-clearance limit
R-route
A-altitude
F-frequency
T-transponder code
41
when does your clearance become void
30 minutes after takeoff time
42
hold for release
you may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure
43
release time
the earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR
44
Expect departure clearance time (EDCT)
a runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT
45
what is a standard terminal arrival (STAR)
serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made
46
what do transition routes do
they connect enroute fixes to the basic STAR procedures
47
What do RNAV STARs require
RNAV 1 performance
48
can you deny a star
yes put no STARs in the remarks section of the flight plan
49
except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below-
minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none:
mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM from the course
Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4NM from the course
50
DA (H)
Decision altitude (height)
the altitude (height) on an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach
or go around
51
MAA
Maximum authorized altitude
annotated "MAA-17000"
52
MCA
Minimum Crossing Altitude
the lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA
53
MDA(H)
Minimum Descent Altitude (Height)
the lowest altitude(height) to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing
54
MEA
Minimum Enroute Altitude
the lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements.
55
what is an MEA gap
it establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated "MEA GAP" on IFR charts
56
MOCA
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
provides obstacle clearance and navigational coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR
57
what altitude can you go to if there is an MEA and a MOCA
You can descend to the MOCA if you are within 22 NM of a VOR
58
MORA
what are the 2 kinds
minimum reception altitude
route MORA and Grid MORA
59
Route MORA
provides obstruction clearance within 10 NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10 NM radius at the ends of the airways
60
Grid MORA
provide obstruction clearance within a latitude/ longitudinal grid block
61
MRA
Minimum Reception Altitude
the lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio navigational aids
62
MTA
Minimum Turning Altitude
provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance fixes. annotated with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction
63
MVA
Minimum Vectoring Altitude
the lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches
64
OROCA
off route obstruction clearance altitude
provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas.
65
what are the two principles of gyroscopic instruments
rigidity in space and precession
66
what does the attitude indicator run off of
they gyroscopic instrument more specifically rigidity in space
67
what does the attitude indicator show
bank and pitch
68
Heading Indicator (HI) what does it operate on
gyroscope specifically rigidity in space
69
what does the turn indicator run operate on
gyroscope, more importantly precession
70
what instruments run off of the pitot static system
altimeter
vertical speed indicator
airspeed indicator
71
what is the altimeter
an aneroid barometer that shows the height above a given pressure level, based on a standard pressure lapse rate of 1000 feet per inch of mercury
72
what should you set the altimeter to under 18000 feet
a station within 100 NM
73
what should you set the altimeter to when you are above 18,000 feet MSL
the standard sea level pressure of 29.92
74
indicated altitude
uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting
75
pressure altitude
altitude above the standard 29.92. Hg plane. used for performance calculations
76
density altitude
pressure alt. corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations
77
True altitude
actual altitude above mean sea level
78
absolute altitude
height above airport elevation
79
what is the vertical speed indicator
it indicates the rate-of-climb if fpm, and rate of trend
80
Indicated airspeed (IAS)
indicated on the airspeed indicator
81
Calibrated airspeed (CAS)
IAS corrected for instrument and position errors
82
Equivalent airspeed (EAS)
CAS corrected for compressibility error
83
True airspeed (TAS)
actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure
84
Mach number
the ratio of TAS tot he local speed of sound
85
Ground speed
actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions
86
white arc
flap operating range. Starts at Vso; ends at Vfe
87
green arc
normal operating range. Starts at Vs1; ends at Vno
88
yellow arc
caution range. Fly only in smooth air and only with caution
89
red line
Vne
90
Va
maneuvering speed
98-113 depending on weight
91
Vs
stall speed, clean configuration
50
92
Vs0
stall speed landing configuration
45
93
Vs1
stall speed specific configuration
we don't have one
94
Vfe
max flaps extended speed
102
95
Vno
max structural cruising speed
125
96
Vne
never exceed speed
154
97
Vx
best angle of climb
64
98
Vy
best rate of climb
76
99
what happens to the airspeed indicator when the static port is blocked
at the blocked altitude it will indicate correctly
at higher altitudes it will indicate lower
at lower altitudes it will indicate higher
100
what happens to the altimeter when the static port is blocked
it will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked
101
what happens to the Vertical Speed Indicator when the static port is blocked
it will freeze on zero
102
what should you do when the static port is blocked
you should verify it is blocked and then use an alternate static source
103
when using an alternate static source what will the airspeed indicator show
it will indicate a faster speed than it should
104
when using an alternate static source what will the altimeter indicator show
it will indicate higher than it should
105
when using an alternate static source what will the vertical speed indicator show
momentarily show a climb
106
what happens to the airspeed indicator when the pitot tube is blocked
ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open- airspeed goes to zero
both air inlet and drain hole are clogged- airspeed will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable
107
think the pitot tube is blocked? what should you do
turn pitot heat on
108
Magnetic compass errors and limitations
DV MONA
D-deviation
V-Variation
M-magnetic dip
O-oscillation
N-north/south turn errors
(undershoot north/overshoot south)
A-acceleration errors- accelerate north/ decelerate south
109
attitude heading reference systems (AHRS)
provides more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional separate gyro systems.
110
Air Data Computers (ADC)
places the mechanical pitot-static instruments. The ADC recievs inputs from the pitot, static and outside temperature ports and computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed and altitude
111
flight director
computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying selected heading, course or vertical speed
112
Flight Management System (FMS)
Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director throughout the flight
113
Electronic Flight Instrument Systems
glass cockpit
114
Primary Flight Display
displays flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI, and heading as well as rate tapes
115
Multi-Function Displays
Displays a variety of information such as moving maps, aircraft system status, weather and traffic.
116
Minimum Equipment list for VFR day
ATOMATO FLAMES
A-altimeter
T-tachometer
O-oil temperature indicator
M-manifold pressure gauge
A-airspeed indicator
T-temperature gauge
O-oil pressure gauge
F-fuel quantity gauge
L-landing gear position lights
A-anticollision lights(for aircraft certified after march 11, 1996)
M-magnetic direction indicator
E-elt, if required by 91.207
S-safety belt/ shoulder harness
117
For VFR night
ATOMATO FLAMES and FLAPS
F-fuses
L-landing light
A-anticollision lights
P- position lights
S-source of electrical power
118
For IFR day
ATOMATO FLAMES and GRABCARD
G-generator/alternator
R-Radios
A-altimeter (sensitive, adjustable)
B- Ball (slip/skid)
C- Clock
A- attitude indicator
R- rate-of-turn indicator
D- directional gyro
119
what do you need for IFR night
ATOMATO FLAMES, FLAPS, and GRABCARD
120
what do you need if you are operating for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from the shore
an approved flotation device for each occupant
at least one pyrotechnic signaling device
121
what do you need if you are operating for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from the shore
an approved flotation device for each occupant
at least one pyrotechnic signaling device
122
What do you need for flight above FL240
when using VOR navigation, DME or RNAV is also required
123
What should you do if there is inoperative equipment
First look at the MEL. If no MES then check the ATOMATOFLAMES next the equipment lift and kind of operations equipment list, check 91.205 and airworthiness directives
if you are still good to fly placard it. inop it and go fly
124
What are the 6 VOR checks and their deflection allowed
VOT-4
Repair Station-4
ground checkpoint-4
airborne checkpoint-6
dual VOR cross check-4
prominent ground landmark-6
125
what is needed for the VOR check sign off
Date
error
place
signature
126
what are the 3 VOR limitations
cone of confusion
reverse sensing
requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station
127
what are the 3 VOR service volumes
Terminal-T
Low-VL
High-VH
128
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
airborne DME unit transmits an interrogation signal and ground DME facility receives and replies letting the airborne unit calculate slant range
129
DME is normally _________ with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC)
tuned automatically
130
the airborne DME unit transmits an
interrogation signal
131
the ground DME facility receives and relies to ...
the interrogation
132
Airborne DME unit calculates the ______ distance to the station based on the reply time
slant range
133
when flying overhead the station, DME indicates greater than zero
slant range error
134
slant range error is negligible at 1 NM DME station per every _______ height
1000ft
135
NDB
Non-Directional beacon
136
what level of frequency band is an NDB
low to medium
137
Magnetic Bearing=
Magnetic heading + Relative Bearing
138
ILS
Instrument Landing System
139
what are the four things that make the ILS
Localizer
glide slope
marker beacons
approach light systems
140
Localizer
provides lateral coourse guidance
signals are carried over the VHF frequency and used by the receiver interpret the aircraft's lateral position
141
Glideslope
provides vertical course guidance
automatically tuned with the localizer. Vertical position interpreted by the intensity of the 90 and 150Hz signals carried over the UHF frequency and directed above and under the slope
142
Marker Beacons
provide range information over specific points along approach
4 different markers
Outer marker
middle marker
inner marker
back course marker
143
Outer Marker
4-7 miles out. Indicates the position at which the aircraft should intercept the GS at the appropriate interception altitude
plus or minute 50 ft
BLUE
144
Middle Marker
3500ft from the runway. Indicates the approximate point where the GS meets the decision height. Usually 200ft above the touchdown zone elevation
AMBER
145
Inner Marker
between the MM and runway threshold. Indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT ll ILS approach
WHITE
146
Approach Light System (ALS)
provides basic visible means to transition between instrument-guided flight into a visual approach
may include sequenced flashing lights, which appear to the pilot as a ball of light traveling towards the runway at twice a second
the visible part of the ALS configuration can help the pilot estimate flight visibility
147
RNAV
area navigation
148
RNAV definition
allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overly ground-based facilities
149
RNAV types
Globe Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
VOR/DME RNAV
DME/DMERNAV
inertial reference unti/ systems (IRU/IRS)
150
RNAV VNAV
vertcal NAVigation guidance
151
BARO-VNAV
an RNAV system that uses the barometric altitude to compute vertical guidance for the pilot
152
published RNAV routes are
RNAV 2 unless charted as RNAV 1
153
Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB)
the published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route
154
how many satellites do we have for GPS in total and how many are we predicted to have in line of sight at a time
24
5
155
How does GPS work
the aircraft's GPS reciever calculates the distance to a GPS satellite base on the time lapse since the broadcast timestamp and the time it received the signal
156
what happens if for GPS you only have 1 satellite
you could be virtually anywhere withing the reach of that satellite
157
2D position with GPS
uses 3 satellites
latitude and longitudinal
158
3D position with GPS
uses 4 satellites
latitude, longitudinal, and altitude
159
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)
a function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals
requires 5 satellites, or 4 satellites + an altimeter input
to eliminate a corrupt satellite, RAIM needs an additional satellite
160
airborne GPS units use
great-circle navigation
161
GPS CDI deflection shows
distance
162
VOR CDI deflection shows
angular distance off course in degrees
163
GPS can be a substitute for
ADF or DME
164
GPS Augmentation systems, or Differential GPS (DGPS)
improves the accuracy of the GPS by measuring errors received by reference stations at known geographical locations and then broadcasting those errors to supported GPS recievers
165
2 kinds of GPS Augmentation systems
satellite based augmentation system (SBAS)
ground based augmentation system (GBAS)
166
Satellite based augmentation system
wide area augmentation system (WASS) in the US
ground stations measure GPS errors and produce correction signals. These corrections are broadcasted back to the satellite segment from which they are bounced back to aircraft GPS WAAS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity and availability monitoring for GPS navigation
covers wide area
facilitates APV approaches such as LPV and LNAV/VNAV and LP approaches
167
Ground Bases Augmentation System (GBAS)
Formerly named local area augmentation system (LAAS) in the US
errors are broadcasted via VHF to BGAS-enabled GPS receivers
GBAS is more accurate than WAAS but covers a much smaller geographical area
allows for category l and above approaches to GLS DA minima
168
RNP
required navigational performance
169
RNP definition
a statement of navigation equipment and service performance
RNAV with navigation monitoring and alr=erting
all RNAV approaches and RNP approaches (RNAV GPS)
if it says RNAV RNP authorization required, you need special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft and operation (only in US)
170
RNP approach minima and equipment
GLS DA minima using GBAS
LP MDA or LPV DA minima require RNP achieved by WAAS
LNAV/VNAV DA achieved by VNAV-approved WAAS, or BARO-RNAV systems
LNAV MDA achieved by a basic unaugmented IFR approved GPS
171
Area Navigation (RNAV)
RNAV is a system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overly ground-based stations
172
GNSS
is a broad term for satellite-based RNAV systems
GPS is the GNSS operated by the USA.
173
Performance Based Navigation (PBN)
PBN is a general basis for navigation equipment standards, in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality for specific operation contexts
174
3 basic attitude instrument flying skills
cross check
instrument interpretation
aircraft control
175
Common basic attitude instrument flying issues
Fixation
Omission
emphasis
176
control and performance methods
divides the cockpit panel by control instruments and performance instruments. First, set the power and attitude, then monitor the performance and make adjustments
177
control instruments
power- tachometer, manifold pressure, EPR, N1 etc
Attitude- attitude indicator
178
Performance Instruments
Pitch: altimeter, airspeed, and VSI
Bank: Heading indicator, Turn coordinator, and magnetic compass
179
Primary and Supporting Method
divides the cockpit panel by pitch, bank, and power instruments
for a specific maneuver, primary instruments provide the most essential information for pitch, bank, and power while supporting instruments back up and supplement the information presented by the primary instruments
180
Primary and secondary method- pitch instruments
attitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed indicator and VSI
181
Primary and secondary method- Bank Instruments
attitude indicator, heading indicator, magnetic compass,and turn coordinator
182
Primary and secondary method- Power Instruments
airspeed, tachometer, manifold pressure
183
Required Reports under IFR
MARVELOUS VFR C500
M- missed approach
A- airspeed +/-10 knots or 5% change
R- reaching a holding fix
V-vfr on top when an altitude change will be made
E-eta change +/-2 min, or +/-3 min in North Atlantic
L-leaving a holding fix/point
O-Outer marker
U- unforcasted weather
S- safety of flight
V- vacating an altitude/ FL
F-final approach fix
R-radio/Nav/approach equipment failure
C-compulsory reporting points
500- unable climb/descent 500 fpm
184
Position report items required in non-radar environment
A PTA NER R
A-aircraft ID
P-position
T-Time
A-altitude
T-type of flight plan
E-eta and name of next reporting fix
N- name only of the next succeeding point along the route of flight
R-remarks
185
why might ATC assign you holding instructions
to delay separate traffic in the air for reasons such as weather or airport closures
186
Non-charted holding clearance items
diretion of hold from fix
holding fix
radial, course, airway, or route on which to hold
leg length in miles or minutes
direction of turns
expect further clearance
187
charted holding clearance items
holding fix
direction
efc
188
start speed reduction _______ before reaching the holding fix
3 minutes
189
actions at hold fix and each turn point
time
turn
throttle
tune
talk
190
adjust the outbound leg so the inbound leg takes
at or below 14,000'- minute
above 14,000'- 1.5 minutes
191
Holding speeds
6,000' or below- 200 knots
6001-14000- 230 knots
14001 or above- 265 knots
192
lost communications procedure in VFR
continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as possible
193
altitude to fly in lost communications
the highest of the MEA
M-minimum altitude prescribed for IFR
E-expected
A-assigned. last altitude assigned by ATC
194
route to fly in lost communications
Select the route by this order AVEF
A- assigned route or if none
V- vectored
E- last expected route by ATC
F- filed route
195
leaving the clearance limit in lost communication
is the clearance limita a fix from which an approach begins?
yes:start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC or ETA
no: at EFC or clearance limit proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach
196
Procedure turn
a maneuver that enables course reversal, a decent from IAF, inbound course interception
197
procedure turn max speed
200 knots
198
do you have to stay in the charted distance for a PT
yes
199
Do you have to follow the shape of the procedure turn
yes
200
when is a procedure turn mandatory
when depicted on the approach chart
201
when is a procedure turn not allowed
NO PT on the chart. radar vectors to final or when conducting a timed approach from a holding fix
202
Do not fly a procedure turn when
SHARP
S-straight-in appraoch clearance
H-holding in lieu of a procedure turn
A-DME Arc
R-radar vectors to final
P-No PT depicted on chart
T-timed approach from a hold fix
teardrop course reversal
203
what are the instrument approach types
Precision
non-precision
approach with vertical guidance
204
Precision Approach
lateral + vertical guidance to a DA
ILS-instrument landing system
MLS- microwave landing system
PAR- precision approach radar
GLS-GBAS landing system
TLS- Transponder Landing System
205
Non-Precision approach
lateral guidance only. flown to MDA
VOR
NDB
RNAV/ RNP to LNAV or LP minima
LOC- localizer
LDA- localizer-type directional aid, identical to a LOC but not aligned with the runway
SDF- simplified directional aid. identical to a LOC but not aligned with the runway
ASR- approach surveillance radar
206
approach with vertical guidance
a precision-like approach flown to a DA with lateral + vertical, but does not meet precision approach standards
RNAV/ GNSS
LDA with glide slope
207
what are the 2 odd kinds of approach clearances
contact approach
visual approach
208
when can you descend to the next instrument approach segment
when cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route
209
Contact Approach
requested by the pilot in lieu of an instrument approach
requires at least 1sm ground visibility and remains clear of clouds
only at airports with approved instrument approach procedures
pilot assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance
210
Visual approach
initiated by either ATC or the pilot
requires at least 1000' ceiling and 3SM visibility
pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to the follow in sight
pilot is responsible for visual separation from traffic to follow
211
Missed approach
execute a missed approach when
arrival at MAP or DH with insufficient visual reference to runway environment
a safe approach si not possible
instructed to do so by ATC
212
when can you descend below the MDA/DA
the aircraft if continuously in position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers
the flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used
at least of the visual references fo rhte intended runways distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot
213
what are the visual references a pilot must have in sight to descend past an MDA
threshold, threshold marking/lights
runway end identifier lights, runway or runway markings or lights
the visual glideslope indicator
touchdown zone or markings or lights
or the approach light system bu the pilot must not descend 100 feet above the touchdown elevation using the approach lights as a reference
214
Visual Descent Point (VDP)
a defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure form which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is established
215
what is the identifier for the visual descent point
V
216
if you are not equipped to identiry the VDP what should you do
fly the approach as if the is no VDP
217
if there is a VDP you should not fly below the _____ until reaching the VDP
MDA
218
Visual Descent angle (VDA)
a computed glide path from the FAF to the runway's TCH published for non-precision approaches
FAA policy is to publish a VDA/TCH on all non-precision approaches except those published in conjunction with vertically guided minimums or no FAF procedures without a stepdown fix. A VDA does not guarantee obstacle protection below the MDA int eh visual segment. The presence of a VDA does not change any non-precision approach requirements
VDA's are advisory only, pilots must still comply with all published altitdued on the procedure
219
Class A
controlled airspave
IFR unless authorized VFR
220
Class B
controlled airspace surrounding the nation's busiest airports
the shape of class B is specifically tailored for its environment
consist of a surface area and two or more layers
requires adsB out mode C and two way radio communications
ATC separates traffic
221
Class C
controlled airspace
ATC provides vfr and ifr traffic
need 2 way communication, Mode-C transponder and ADS-B out
222
Class D
controlled airspace
requires 2 way radio communication
223
Class E
transition area
enroute domestic areas
federal airways/ low altitudes RNAV routes
offshore airspace areas
224
Class G
uncontrolled airspace
225
Special Use Airspaces
prohibited areas
warning area
restricted
millitary operating areas
alert areas
controlled firing areas
special flight rules area
temporary flight restrictions
air defence identification zone
military training routes
226
Prohibited areas
flight is prohibited unless permission is granted by the using or controlling agency as appropriate
exists due to security or other reasons associated with the national welfare
227
Restricted Areas
flight is not completly prohibited but is subject to restrictions due to hazards
must follow restrictions when in airspace
Blue
if the airspace is not active ATC may allow you through it
it airspave is active atc will issue a clearance around it to ensure safety
228
Warning areas
3 NM and out from the US
to warn nonparticipating aircraft of the potential hazard
may be located on domestic or international warer
229
Military operating areas
purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic
IFR traffic may go through with approval, ATC will most of the time vector you around
230
Alert Areas
depicted on charts to inform pilots of high volume of a pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity
pilots transitioning the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance
231
controlled firing areas
hazardous firing for aircraft
can not see on a chart
activities are suspended when an aircraft enters the area
232
Military training routes
used for high speed flight training by the military so they can exceed 250 knots
233
Air defense identification zone
requirements to operate in: an operable transponder with altitude encoding, two way radio communication, ifr flight plan, depart within 5 minutes of flight plan's etd
its an airspace over land or water in which the ready identification, location, and control of all aircraft is required in the interest of national securtiy
234
temporary flight restrictions
defined in flight data center (notams)
they are in place to protect important people or property, provide safe environment for disaster relief aircraft, prevent unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft around an event, protect national disasters, provide safe environment fo space agency operations
235
special flight rules
an airspace defined dimensions above land areas or territorial waters where special air traffic rules have been established for
must adhere to specific rules
236
Max aircraft speed above 10,000'
mach 1
237
max aircraft speed below 10,000'
250 knots
238
max aircraft speed under class B or withing a VFR corridor through clas B
200 knots
239
max aircraft speed at or below 2,500' within 4 NM of the primary airport of a class C or D airspace
200 knots
240
types of weather briefings
standard
abbreviated
outlook
inflight
241
standard weather briefing
a full briefing
242
abbreviated weather briefing
updates previaously recieved information from mass disseminated sources or a previous briefing
243
outlook weather briefing
for departures 6 or more hours awas. includes forecasts for the time of the flight
244
inflight weather briefing
FSS also provides any of the above types in flight
245
Airmet
an advisory of significant weather phenomena at lower intensities than those which require the issuance of SIGMET
246
how long is an airmet valid for
6 hours
247
AIRMET T
moderate turbulence
surface winds of 30 knots or greater
llw wind shear
248
AIRMET Z
describes moderate icing and freezing levels
249
Airmet S
describes IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations
250
Sigmets
non-sheduled inflight advisory with maximum forecast period of 4 hours
251
what will a Sigmet be issued for
severe icing not associeated with thunderstorms
severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence not associated with thunderstorms
dust storms, sandstorms lowering surface visibility below 3 miles
252
Convective Sigmet
in inflight advisory of convective weather
issued every 55 minutes
valid for 2 hours
contains either an observation and a forecast or only a forecast
253
what is a Convective SIGMET issued for
severe thunderstorms
tornados
embedded thunderstorms
line fo thunderstorms
254
International Sigmet
sigmet issued outside of the contiguous USA
put out for thunderstorms, cyclones, severe icing, severe and extreme turbulence, dust storms and sandstorms, volcanic ash
255
Pirep
pilot weather reports
256
Metar
aviation routine weather shows surface weather observations in a standard international format
257
Taf
wather forecast fo r5 SM radius area around the station. issued 4 times a day, every 6 hours and will cover a 24 or 30 hour period
258
Surface analysis chart
shows pressure systems, isobars, fronts, airmass boundaries and station information. issued every 3 hours
259
Radar summary chart
depicts precipitation type, intensity, coverage, movement, echoes, and maximum tops issued hourly
260
wind and temp alogt forecast
issued 4 times daily for various altitudes and flight levels
261
low level significant weather chart
forecasts significant weather conditions for a 12 and 24 hour period form the surface to 400 MB level. issued 4 times a day. depicts weather categories, turbulence and freezing levels
262
mid-level significant weather charts
forecasts of significant weather at various altitudes and flight levels from 10,000' to FL450.
263
High-level significant weather charts
depicts forecasts of significant weather phenomena for FL250 to FL630
264
Convective outlook
available in both graphical and textual format. a 3-day forecast of convective activity
265
what is needed for a thunderstorm to form
sufficient water vapor
an unstable temperature lapse rate
an initial uplifting
266
stages in thunderstorm lifecycle
cumulus- the lifitng action of the air begins, growth rate may exceed 3000fpm
mature- begins when precipitation starts falling from the cloud base updraft is starting, downdrafts may exceed 2500fpm. all thunderstorm hazards are at their greatest intensity at the mature stage
Dissipating- characterized by strong downdrafts and the cell dying rapidle
267
hazards of a thunderstorm
limited visibility
wind shear
stung updrafts/downdrafts
icing
hailstones
heavy rain
severe turbulence
lightning strikes and tornadoes
268
Fog
a cloud begins within 50 ft of the surface
269
when does fog occur
the air temperature near the round reaches its dew point
when the dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture to the air
270
types of fog
radiation fog
advection fog
ice fog
upslope fog
steam fog
271
what are the types of icing
structural ice
instrument ice
induction ice
intake ice
carburetor ice
frost
272
Hypoxia definition
insufficient supply of oxygen to the body cells
273
4 Hypoxia types
hypoxic hypoxia
hypemic hypoxia
histotoxic hypoxia
stagnant hypoxia
274
hypoxic hypoxia
insufficient supply of O2 to the body as a whole. high altitude
275
Hypemic hypoxia
inability of the blood to carry the O2 molecules
not enough blood
CO poisoning
276
Histotoxic hypoxia
inability of the body cells to affectively use the O2 supplied by the blood
alcohol or drugs
277
Stagnant hypoxia
caused by the blood not flowing efficiently.
G's
278
Oxygen requirements above15,000'
each occupent must be provided with supplemental O2
279
Oxygen requirements 14,000-15,000'
the required minimum flight crew must provided with and must use supplemental O2 the entire flight time at these altitudes
280
oxygen requirements 12,500-14000'
the required minimum fllight crew must be provided with and must use supplemental O2 for periods of flight over 30 minutes at there altitudes
281
spatial disorientation
when your body tells you something different
runs off of vestibular, somatosensory, and visual systems
282
false horizons
an illusion in which the pilot mas misidentify the horizon line.
283
autokinesis
staring at a stationary point of light in a dark or featurleess scene for a prolonged period of time may cause the light to appear to be moving
284
featureless terrain slope illusion
flying over dark or featureless terrain can give the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired
285
haze illusion
during an approach, haze may give the illusion that the runway is further of that the airplane is higher than it is
286
fog illusion
flying into fog may create an illusion of a nose-up motion
287
transponder code 7500
aircraft hijacking
288
transponder code 7600
radio failure
289
transponder code 7700
emergency
290
LIFR
less than 500' ceiling
less than 1SM visibility
magenta
291
IFR
500' to 1,000 ft
1SM to 3SM visibility
292
MVFR
1000 to 3000 ceiling
3 to 5 sm visibility
293
VFR
greater than 3000' ceiling
5sm or greater visibility
