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IFR Oral > Stage Check > Flashcards

Stage Check Flashcards

(83 cards)

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1
Q

what documents does the pilot need to be airworthy

A

government-issued photo ID
valid medical license
valid pilots license

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2
Q

what makes a pilot airworthy for acting as PIC in ifr flight

A

6 hits
within 6 calendar months
6 instrument approaches
holding procedures and tasks
intercepting and tracking courses
no 6 hits in 6 calendar months must do 6 hits with a safety pilot
been a year since 6 hits must do an IFR proficiency check

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3
Q

what is covered on the IFR proficiency check

A

air traffic control clearances and procedures
flight by reference to instruments
navigation systems
instrument approach procedures
emergency operations
post-flight procedures

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4
Q

what do you need for IFR day flight

A

ATOMATO FLAMES
GRABCARD
A-altimeter
T-Tachometer
O-oil temperature
M-manifold pressure gauge
A-Airspeed indicator
T-Temperature gauge
O-oil pressure gauge
F- fuel quantity gauge
L-landing gear position lights
A-anti collision lights- after march 11 1996
M-magnetic direction indicator
E-ELT
S-safety belt

G-Generator/ altimeter
R-radios
A-altimeter (sensitive, adjustable for barometric pressure)
B-Ball (slip slid indicator)
C-clock
A- attitude indicator
R-rate of turn indicator
directional gyro

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5
Q

what do you need for IFR day flight

A

ATOMATO FLAMES
FLAPS
GRABCARD
F-fuses
L-landing light
A-anticollision lights
P-position lights
S-source of electrical power

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6
Q

what maintenance must be done on the plane for it to be airworthy

A

AVIATE
A- airworthiness directives
V-VOR check every 30 days
I-inspections - progressive inspection events and routines
A-altimeter and static system 24 calender months
T-transponder every 24 calender months
E-ELT- 12calender months or battery half life or 1 hour of use

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7
Q

engine manufacturer

A

Lycoming

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8
Q

Engine model number

A

IO-360-B4A

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9
Q

propleller manufacturer

A

Sensenich

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10
Q

propeller diameter

A

76

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11
Q

total fuel and usable fuel

A

50
48

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12
Q

how much oil should we have in the plane for takeoff

A

6, 7 for xc

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13
Q

Max ramp weighty

A

2558

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14
Q

max takeoff weight

A

2550

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15
Q

max baggage weight

A

200

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16
Q

VNE

A

never exceed speed
154

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17
Q

VNO

A

max structural cruising speed
125

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18
Q

Vo

A

maximum operating maneuvering speed
98-113

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19
Q

VFE

A

max flaps extended speed
102

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20
Q

minimum for emergency battery

A

23.3 volts

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21
Q

Vs

A

stall speed without flaps
50

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22
Q

Vso

A

stall speed with flaps
45

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23
Q

Vy

A

best rate of climb
76

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24
Q

Vx

A

best angle of climb
64

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25
Airmet
an advisory of significant weather phenomena at lower intensities than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs valid for 6 hours
26
Airmet Tango
moderate turbulence surface winds of 30 knots or greater non-convective low-level wind shear
27
how many volts is our battery
24
28
how many volts and amps is our alternator
28 volts 70 amps
29
Airmet zulu
moderate icing frezing level heights
30
Airmet Sierra
ifr conditions mountain obscuration
31
Sigmet
a non-scheduled inflight advisory with maximum forecast period of 4 hours. severe mixing severe or extreme turbulence dust and sand storms volcanic ash
32
Convective Sigmet
valid for 2 hours an inflight advisory o convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft
33
reasons a convective SIGMET would be issued
severe thunderstorms due to surface winds greater or equal to 50 knots, hail at the surface greater than 3/4 inch in diameter tornadoes embedded thunderstorms a line of thunderstorms at least 60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting at least 40% of its length
34
three things needed for a thunderstorm
sufficient water vapor unstable temperature lapse rate lifting force
35
stages of a thunderstorm
cumulus- the lifting action of the air begins mature- begins when precipitation starts falling from the cloud base. thunderstorms are at greatest intesity dissipating- characterized by strong downdrafts and the cell dying rapidly
36
Fog
the air temperature near the ground reaches its dew point when the dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture to the air
37
Icing
very dangerous will change the airfoil
38
VOR
standard service volumes do not apply to published routes pilot must verify correct and usable vor station with morse ID before using it
39
VOR checks
perform every 30 days VOT-4 repair station-4 vor ground checkpoint-4 vor airborne checkpoint-6 dual vor cross-check-4 above a prominent ground landmark on a selected radial at least 20 NM from a VOR flying at a reasonable low altitude-6
40
what must you write down when you do a vor check
D-date E-error P-place S-signature
41
VOR limitations
cone of confusion reverse sensing requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station
42
Distance measuring equipment
DME
43
DME information
normally tuned automatically due to slant range error, when flying overhead the station, dme indicates greater than zero
44
airborne dme
transmits an interrogation signal calculates the slant range distance to the station based on the reply time
45
ground dme
receives and replies tot he interrogation
46
Non-Directional Beacon
NDB
47
NDB info
low to medium frequency band ADF in aircraft points towards the NDB
48
magnetic bearing =
magnetic heading+relatice bearing
49
NDB compass locator size
15 NM
50
NDB medium high size
25 NM
51
NDB high size
50 NM
52
NDB high high size
75 NM
53
Instrument landing system
ILS
54
3 parts of the ILS
localizer glide slope marker beacons approach light system
55
Localizer-ILS
provides lateral course guidance coverage range: 35 degree to each side fo the centerline for the first 10NM and 10 degree up to 18NM from the antenna
56
Glide Slope- ILS
provides vertical course guidance automatically tuned range 10 NM errors; false glide slope
57
Marker Bearons- ILS
provide range information over specific points 4 markers: outer, middle inner back course
58
Outer marker
4-7 miles out. indicate the position at which the aircraft should intercept the GS at the appropriate interceptionaltitude Blue
59
Middle marker
3500ft from the runway. indicates the approximate interception point where the GS meets the decision height. usually 200ft above the touchdown zone elevation amber
60
inner marker
between teh MM and runway threshold. Indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT ll ILS approach white
61
Approach Lifth Systems
provides baxic visible means to transition between instrument-guided flight into visual approach might include sequenced flashing lights
62
what are teh different categories of ILS approaches
CAT l CATll CATlll each one allows for a lower visibility
63
area navigation
RNAV
64
RNAV
allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overly ground-based facilities
65
Types of RNAV
GNSS VOR/DME RNAV DME/DME RNAV inertial reference unit/ system
66
global positioning system
GPS
67
GPS
a global navigation satellite system operated by the US
68
we have __ satellites in orbit and at least __ are in view at any given time
24 5
69
2D GPS
uses 3 satellites latitude and longitude
70
3D GPS
uses 4 satellites latitude, lontitude, altitude
71
reciever autonomous integrity
RAIM
72
RAIM
a function of GPS recievers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals requires 5 satellites, or, 4 satellites and an altimeter input RAIM will get rid of a corrupt satellite if it has an extra available
73
wide area augmentation system
WAAS ground stations measure GPS errors and produce correction signals. These corrections are broadcasted back to the satellite segment from which they are bounced back to aircraft GPS WAAS receiver to improve accuracy, integrity, and availability monitoring for GPS navigation covers a wide area
74
Aircraft Airworthiness FAR and AIM numbers
91.205 91.411-altimeter tests 91.413-transponder tests 1-1-4 - VOR
75
what does sttic port blockage effect
airspeed indicator altimeter VSI
76
what happens to you airspeed indicator when the static port is blocked and when you use the alternate static source
blocked: indicates correctly at blocked altitude. higher altitudes indicates lower than it should and lower altitudes it will indicate higher than it should. alternate static source: indicates a faster speed than it should
77
what happens to you altimeter when the static port is blocked and when you use the alternate static source
blocked: will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked alternate static source: indicate higher than it should
78
what happens to you VSI when the static port is blocked and when you use the alternate static source
Blocked: freezes at zero alternate static source: momentarily shows a climb
79
what instrument is effected by the pitot tube blockage
the airspeed indicator
80
what happens if Ram air inlet is clogged and drain hole is open
airspeed drops to zero
81
what happens if both air inlet and drain hole are clogged
the airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter
82
when suspecting a pitot blockage what should you do
use pitot heat it may melt formed ice
83
preflight info required for IFR flight FAR number
91.103

IFR Oral (3 decks)

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