Pilot Instrument Exam

Question 1

When reported weather is at or below published landing minimums for the approach to be conducted, an approach shall not be commenced in multi-piloted aircraft unless the aircraft has the capability to proceed to a suitable alternate in the event of a missed approach.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

Pilots navigating on a STAR procedure shall maintain last assigned altitude until receiving authorization to descend so as to comply with all published/issued restrictions.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

Except for preplanned missions, pilots exercising “Due Regard” authority shall record the details in writing, and upon request from higher authority, furnish a detailed report.

Answer 3

True

Question 4

Only an Aircraft Commander with a Special Instrument Rating who is also on the flight controls is authorized to make departures from an airfield when weather is below minimums.

Answer 4

True

Question 5

To be eligible for an instrument rating, pilots returning from DIFDEN orders or newly assigned reserve pilots must fulfill the 12 month flying minimums (12 inst. hours, 18 approaches).

Answer 5

False

Question 6

RVR values can be reported in either feet or meters, often dependent on whether one is operating in the NAS (U.S. domestic) or under ICAO.

Answer 6

True

Question 7

For filing, an alternate is not required if the destination weather at ETA +/- 1 hr is 2000’ ceilings with 3 miles visibility.

Answer 7

False

Question 8

A displaced threshold designates where the runway’s landing area starts. White arrows along the centerline indicate the portion between the beginning of the pavement and the displaced threshold. This portion is usable for taxi only.

Answer 8

False

Question 9

Circling minima accompanied by the “negative C” symbol (black background with white C) are certified for Expanded Circling Approach Maneuvering.

Answer 9

True

Question 10

The advisory term “minimum fuel” indicates that an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

Answer 10

True

Question 11

Begin outbound timing in the holding pattern when:

a. Abeam the fix
b. Wings level outbound, if unable to determine the abeam position
c. First positive ‘From’ indication
d. Either A or B

Answer 11

d. Either A or B

Question 12

In a multi-pilot aircraft, when weather is reported at or below published landing minimums for the approach
to be conducted, an approach:
a. Shall not be commenced
b. Is authorized as long as the aircraft has the capability to proceed to a suitable alternate
c. Shall not proceed beyond the FAF
d. Can be commenced as long as the PF is a designated Instructor Pilot

Answer 12

b. Is authorized as long as the aircraft has the capability to proceed to a suitable alternate

Question 13

If an alternate is required with the weather at your destination at or above minimums, weather at the alternate
(plus or minus one hour) must be:
a. Non-precision published minimums
b. Non-precision published minimums plus 300-1
c. Precision minimums plus 200-1/2
d. Both B and C

Answer 13

d. Both B and C

Question 14

Under which conditions does ATC issue a STAR:

a. To all pilots whenever STARs are available
b. Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the ‘remarks’ section of the flight plan
c. When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests ‘no STAR’
d. Any aircraft that files a flight plan with an equipment suffix /W or /X

Answer 14

c. When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests ‘no STAR’

Question 15

If you are flying an RNAV (GPS) approach to LNAV/VNAV DA minimums, using your EFIS, you must:

a. Set the DA minimums plus 50’ as the barometric minimums
b. Set the DA minimums as the barometric minimums
c. Set the MDA minimums as the barometric minimums
d. Set the MDA minimums plus 50’ as the barometric minimums

Answer 15

b. Set the DA minimums as the barometric minimums

Question 16

Approach types that can use Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) include:

a. RNAV or GPS
b. VOR or TACAN
c. NDB
d. LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF
e. All of the above

Answer 16

e. All of the above

Question 17

When continuing an instrument approach to a landing, pilots shall not descend below the prescribed MDA or
continue an approach below the decision height (DH) unless:
a. They are familiar with the airfield
b. They have the runway environment in sight
c. In their judgment a safe landing can be executed
d. Both b and c

Answer 17

d. Both b and c

Question 18

For a precision approach, the missed approach shall be executed immediately upon:

a. Reaching the MDA, unless the runway environment is in sight and a safe landing can be made
b. Reaching the decision height, unless the runway environment is in sight and a safe landing can be made
c. Realizing the ceiling is below approach minimums
d. When the visibility is below approach minimums

Answer 18

b. Reaching the decision

Question 19

At an airfield with only non-precision approaches, takeoff minimums for a pilot with a standard instrument rating are the published minimums for the available non-precision approach, but not less than _________.

a. 200-1/2
b. 200-1
c. 300-1/2
d. 300-1

Answer 19

d. 300-1

Question 20

Which of the following is considered an actual instrument approach:

a. Less than 3SM of visibility
b. Actual instrument conditions are encountered below 1,000 feet above airport/flight deck elevation during the approach
c. Instrument approach flown in IMC from the FAF inbound
d. Ceilings 1500’ or less during the instrument approach

Answer 20

b. Actual instrument

Question 21

In order for a pilot to execute a contact approach, which of the following must exist:

a. Aircraft on an IFR flight plan
b. Operating clear of clouds with at least 1 mile visibility
c. Must be requested by the pilot
d. All of the above

Answer 21

d. All of the above

Question 22

An aircraft flying an instrument approach at 125 knots would use aircraft approach category ___ minimums.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Answer 22

c. C

Question 23

A QFE altimeter setting means which of the following:

a. Altitude above the aerodrome providing the setting
b. Indicated above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
c. Standard altimeter setting (29.92)
d. Indicated above standard datum plane

Answer 23

a. Altitude above the aerodrome providing the setting

Question 24

According to Article 3 of the Chicago Convention of 1944 (which stipulates there must be ‘due regard for the safety of navigation of civil aircraft’) which of the following must be met in order to go ‘operational’ or ‘due regard’

a. Aircraft in VMC
b. Aircraft within surface or airborne radar surveillance with radio communications
c. Outside controlled airspace
d. Any one of the above allows an aircraft to proceed ‘due regard’

Answer 24

d. Any one of the above allows an aircraft to proceed ‘due regard’

Question 25

Timed holding above 14,000' MSL will have inbound leg lengths of: a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 90 seconds d. Holding legs are not timed above 14,000' MSL

Answer 25

c. 90 seconds

Question 26

The following altitudes on an approach plate are MSL with the exception of: a. MDA b. HAA c. DH d. MSA

Answer 26

b. HAA

Question 27

The abbreviation 'O/S' in the Airport/Facility Directory stands for: a. Optical landing system b. Official status c. Out of service d. Operational survey

Answer 27

c. Out of service

Question 28

LLWAS found in the remarks section means: a. Localizer window acquisition site b. Limited aviation weather system c. Local limited aviation weather system d. Low-level Windshear Alert System

Answer 28

d. Low-level Windshear Alert System

Question 29

During two-way radio failure in IMC when the clearance limit is the fix from which an approach begins, a pilot should: a. Commence descent as close as possible to the expected further clearance limit time (if received) b. Begin the descent before the ETA or EFC time c. Commence the descent and approach immediately regardless of the ETA or EFC time d. None of the above

Answer 29

a. Commence descent as close as possible to the expected further clearance limit time (if received)

Question 30

A NOTAM code of QFZAR indicates which of the following: a. Fueling not available b. Customs service available on request c. Freezing rain indicated at the station d. Flocks of migratory waterfowl in the vicinity

Answer 30

b. Customs service

Question 31

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as: a. Light turbulence b. Light chop c. Moderate turbulence d. Occasional light chop

Answer 31

a. Light turbulence

Question 32

GNSS, the international term for all GPS type systems, is the acronym for: a. Global Navigation Satellite System b. Geosynchronous Navigation Satellite System c. Global Navigation Separation System d. Grand Nova Safety Satellite

Answer 32

a. Global Navigation Satellite System

Question 33

What equipment is required for RVSM operations: a. Two independent altitude measurement systems b. One secondary surveillance radar altitude reporting transponder c. Altitude alerting system capable of operation from either of the two required independent altitude measuring systems d. Automatic altitude control system e. All of the above

Answer 33

e. All of the above

Question 34

Minimum requirements for special instrument ratings include all of the requirements for a standard plus: a. Five years of military and non-military flying experience b. Two thousand hours of military and/or civilian time as a certified commercial/airline transport pilot c. One hundred hours of actual instrument time d. All of the above

Answer 34

d. All of the above

Question 35

Runway aiming point markings are 2 rectangular markings consisting of two rectangular broad white stripes approximately ______ feet from the landing threshold a. 1000 b. 1500 c. 2000 d. 2500

Answer 35

a. 1000

Question 36

Holding position markings for ILS critical areas (activated when weather is less than 800-2) consist of two ______ solid lines spaced ____ feet apart extending across the width of the taxiway and connected together by pairs of solid lines, each pair spaced 10 feet apart. A sign with an inscription in ______ on a _____ background is installed adjacent to these markings. a. white, 4, yellow, black b. thin, far, blood, pale c. yellow, 2, white, red d. ILS hold short lines are advisory only.

Answer 36

c. yellow, 2, white, red

Question 37

Because the C-40A circles at flaps 15 until lading is assured, it falls into Aircraft Approach Category D (AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary CG A-6). If the MDA for the approach used is 1300' MSL, circling radii for this approach would be ______ for approaches not certified for Expanded Maneuvering, and ______ if the approach is certified for Expanded Maneuvering. a. 1.7, 3.6 b. 3.7, 2.1 c. If you're visual, it doesn't matter. d. 2.3, 3.7

Answer 37

d. 2.3, 3.7

Question 38

In some cases, hypoxia exposure can lead to a shock type reaction that could further reduce the time of useful consciousness. In any case, the potential for impairment begins ___________. For this reason, the donning of the O2 mask should be practiced _________. a. within 30 seconds, annually b. almost immediately, from time to time c. quickly, monthly d. gradually, during initial

Answer 38

b. almost immediately, from time to time

Question 39

Which of the following will help prevent Spatial Disorientation? a. When flying at night or in reduced visibility, use the flight instruments/automation. If intending night flight, maintain night currency. b. If you experience a vestibular illusion during flight, trust your instruments and disregard your sensory perceptions. c. Take the opportunity to experience spatial disorientation illusions in a Barany chair, a Vertigon, a GYRO, or a Virtual Reality Spatial Disorientation Simulator. d. All of the above.

Answer 39

d. All of the above.

Question 40

The ____________________ involves a sudden linear deceleration (air braking, lowering flaps, decreasing thrust) during level flight where the pilot perceives the illusion that the nose of the aircraft is pitching down. The pilot's response to this illusion would be to pitch the nose of the aircraft up. If this illusion occurs during final approach, the pilot could stall the aircraft. a. Head-Down Illusion b. Inversion Illusion c. Head-Up Illusion d. Coriolis Illusion

Answer 40

a. Head-Down Illusion