Pilot Open book

Question 1

When in ALT HOLD at selected MCP altitude, selecting a new MCP altitude illuminates the ALT HLD switch light and arms V/S mode.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

Glideslope capture is inhibited prior to localizer capture. The G/S can be captured from above or below.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

Fire extinguishers provide a means of extinguishing engine, APU, wheel well and lavatory fires.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

If the upper display unit fails, the primary engine display automatically moves to either inboard display unit.

Answer 4

False

Question 5

Departure and arrival prompts are available for the origin airport. Destination airports also have departure and arrival prompts.

Answer 5

False

Question 6

The supplemental navigation database is accessed by typing SUPP in the scratchpad while on the INIT/REF INDEX page, then selecting the NAV DATA prompt. Access is available on the ground and in flight.

Answer 6

False

Question 7

If both normal and alternate brake system pressure is lost, trapped hydraulic pressure in the brake accumulator can still provide several braking applications or parking brake application.

Answer 7

True

Question 8

Antiskid protection is not available with loss of both hydraulic systems.

Answer 8

False

Question 9

Flight crews are expected to do non-normal maneuvers from memory.

Answer 9

True

Question 10

During a Ground Evacuation, the copilot is responsible for taking the Halon fire extinguisher (if possible).

Answer 10

True

Question 11

How are the engine bleed valves powered?

a. AC activated and pressure operated
b. DC activated and pressure operated
c. Pressure activated and DC operated
d. Pressure activated and AC operated

Answer 11

b. DC activated and pressure operated

Question 12

An amber illuminated COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates:

a. an overpressure condition
b. an overtemperature condition or overpressure condition
c. the related cowl anti-ice valve is open
d. the cowl anti-ice valve position disagreed with the respective engine anti-ice switch position

Answer 12

a. an overpressure condition

Question 13

For the Engine Generator, the engine integrated drive (IDG):

a. has an integral electro-mechanical disconnect device that does not provide complete mechanical isolation of the IDG.
b. provides three-phase, 115 volt, 400 cycle direct current.
c. adjusts varying generator speeds throughout normal range of operation.
d. maintains a constant generator speed throughout the normal operating range of the engine.

Answer 13

d. maintains a constant generator speed throughout the normal operating range of the engine.

Question 14

Which bus normally provides power to the AC standby bus?

a. 115V AC MAIN BUS 1
b. 115V AC MAIN BUS 2
c. AC TRANSFER BUS 1
d. AC TRANSFER BUS 2

Answer 14

c. AC TRANSFER BUS 1

Question 15

The GEN OFF BUS light illuminated blue indicates:

a. the APU is running and not powering a bus
b. the related main bus is not powered
c. the IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus
d. the related transfer bus is not powered

Answer 15

c. the IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus

Question 16

The ELEC amber light will illuminate on the ground if:

a. a fault exists in AC or standby power system
b. a fault exists in DC power system or standby power system
c. a fault exists in AC, DC or standby power system
d. a fault exists in AC power system only

Answer 16

b. a fault exists in DC power system or standby power system

Question 17

When does the cross bus tie relay open, isolating DC bus 1 from DC bus 2?

a. If an engine-driven generator drops off line
b. At glideslope capture, during a F/D or autopilot ILS approach
c. If the bus transfer switch is positioned to OFF.
d. Both b and c are correct.

Answer 17

d. Both b and c are correct.

Question 18

Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates one or more of the following busses are unpowered:

a. the AC standby bus
b. the DC standby bus
c. the Battery bus
d. all or any combination of the above

Answer 18

d. all or any combination of the above

Question 19

The thrust reverser may be deployed.

a. during cruise when the thrust lever is at idle
b. when the air/ground sensor is in the ground mode
c. when either radio altimeter senses less than 10 feet altitude
d. Both b and c are correct

Answer 19

d. Both b and c are correct

Question 20

The engine fuel shutoff valves:

a. are the only fuel shutoff valves with an associated blue light on the forward overhead fuel panel
b. and the spar fuel shutoff valves require AC power to operate
c. and the spar fuel shutoff valve close whenever their respective engine fire switch is pulled or engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF
d. are controlled by both the engine fire warning switch and the engine start lever; however, the spar fuel shutoff valves are controlled only by the engine start lever

Answer 20

c. and the spar fuel shutoff valve close whenever their respective engine fire switch is pulled or engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF

Question 21

Placing the TEST switch in the FAULT/INOP test position tests:

a. the fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU.
b. the engine overheat detectors.
c. the APU DET INOP light, FAULT light and APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE light.
d. the APU DET INOP light and engine overheat detectors.

Answer 21

a. the fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU.

Question 22

Pulling the engine fire switch up:

a. closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve
b. closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar shutoff valve only if the battery switch is on
c. closes the hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and disables thrust reverser for the related engine
d. both a and c are correct

Answer 22

d. both a and c are correct

Question 23

The Speed Trim System (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to improve flight characteristics during operations with ____ gross weight, _____ center of gravity, and _____ thrust when the autopilot is not engaged.

a. low, forward, low
b. low, forward, high
c. low, aft, high
d. low, aft, low

Answer 23

c. low, aft, high

Question 24

There are ________ ground spoilers on each wing.

a. two
b. three
c. four
d. six

Answer 24

a. two

Question 25

There are ______ flight spoilers located on the upper surface of each wing. a. two b. three c. four d. six

Answer 25

c. four

Question 26

The airplane is on the ground and the flight recorder is in NORMAL (guarded position). In this instance, the recorder will: a. operate any time electrical power is available. b. operate when electrical power is available and either engine is operating. c. operates whenever the battery switch is on. d. Both a and b are correct.

Answer 26

b. operate when electrical power is available and either engine is operating.

Question 27

What information is provided with the IRS mode selector in ATT? a. Attitude and heading information b. Only heading information c. Only altitude information d. Only position and groundspeed information.

Answer 27

a. Attitude and heading information

Question 28

During transit or through-flight stops with brief ground times, what is the expected time the Inertial Reference System will take to perform a fast realignment?: a. 30 seconds b. 1 minute c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes

Answer 28

a. 30 seconds

Question 29

When operating in their normal navigation mode, the IRSs provide: a. track, present position and wind data. b. acceleration, vertical speed and ground speed. c. attitude, true and magnetic heading. d. all of the above are correct.

Answer 29

d. all of the above are correct.

Question 30

During an IRS alignment a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot be completed due to: a. entered position does not agree with the last stored position b. entered latitude and system-computed latitude do not properly compare c. a related IRS operating in ALIGN mode d. both a and b are correct

Answer 30

d. both a and b are correct

Question 31

Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because: a. center tank check valves open at lower differential pressure than main tank check valves. b. center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps. c. main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate and the center tank pumps are turned OFF. d. center tank check valves open at higher pressure than main tank check valves.

Answer 31

b. center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.

Question 32

Do not use _________________ as an alternative for ground de-icing/anti-icing. Close inspection is still needed to ensure that no frost, snow, or ice is adhering to the wing, leading edge devices, ___________, control surfaces, or other critical airplane components at takeoff.

Answer 32

wing anti-ice / stabilizer

Question 33

Ice crystals are most frequently found in areas of ________________ and ________ altitudes normally associated with icing conditions.

Answer 33

visible moisture / above

Question 34

When performing the pushback or tow out procedure, prior to installing the nose gear steering lockout pin, do not make any __________ or _________ power changes with tow bar connected. Any change to __________ power may cause momentary pressurization of the nose wheel steering actuators causing unwanted tow bar movement.

Answer 34

electrical / hydraulic / electrical

Question 35

Non-normal checklists start with steps to __________________________. If needed, information for planning the rest of the flight is included. When special items are needed to configure the airplane for landing, the items are included in the _____________________ section of the checklist.

Answer 35

correct the situation / Deferred Items

Question 36

``` Above 80 knots and prior to V1, the takeoff should be rejected for any of the following: ·_____________________________ ·_____________________________ ·_____________________________ ·_____________________________ ```

Answer 36

- fire or fire warning - engine failure - predictive windshear warning - if the airplane is unsafe or unable to fly

Question 37

The refill indication (RF) is displayed adjacent to its respective hydraulic system quantity: a. automatically when the hydraulic quantity of the respective system is below 88% b. when the hydraulic quantity is below 76%; valid only when airplane is on ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in c. at all times d. only during MASTER CAUTION recall

Answer 37

b. when the hydraulic quantity is below 76%; valid only when airplane is on ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in

Question 38

For the autobrake system, after braking has started, which of the following pilot actions will disarm the system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light: a. moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the flight detent position. b. advancing the forward thrust lever(s), except during the first three seconds after touchdown for landing. c. applying manual brakes. d. Both b and c are correct

Answer 38

d. Both b and c are correct

Question 39

Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown: a. prior to decelerating through 30 knots groundspeed b. after decelerating through 30 knots groundspeed c. prior to decelerating through 20 knots groundspeed d. none of the above

Answer 39

a. prior to decelerating through 30 knots groundspeed

Question 40

When a spinning tire with loose tread impacts a fitting in the wheel well ring opening: a. automatic braking to the main gear occurs during retraction b. that gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position c. positive uplock during main gear retraction is provided d. the landing gear transfer unit to uses hydraulic system B pressure to raise the gear

Answer 40

b. that gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position