PIM Flashcards
1
Q
wingspan
A
53’4”
2
Q
height
A
14’
3
Q
length
A
47’3”
4
Q
landing gear width
A
14’10”
5
Q
ground turning clearance using rudder - wing tip radius
A
57’5”
6
Q
ground turning clearance using brake - wing tip radius
A
35’7”
7
Q
engine model number
A
PT6A-67P
8
Q
takeoff power (shp)
A
1200
9
Q
propeller speed (Np rpm)
A
1700
10
Q
approved fuels
A
Jet a, jet-a-1, jet b, jp4
any other fuel which complies with the latest revision of pratt & Whitney service bulletin
11
Q
Total fuel capacity
A
406.8 gal, 2736.5 lbs
12
Q
usable fuel
A
402 gal, 2703.6 lbs
13
Q
total oil capacity
A
3.6 gal
14
Q
oil operating range
A
1 gal
15
Q
maximum ramp weight
A
10495 lb
16
Q
maximum takeoff weight
A
10450 lb
17
Q
maximum landing weight
A
9921 lb
18
Q
maximum zero fuel weight
A
9039 lb
19
Q
maximum cargo weight - baggage area
A
400 or 265 lb
20
Q
maximum cargo weight - cabin area
(maximum freight load)
A
3300 lb
21
Q
with the exception of circuit breakers on which bus, and if not detailed otherwise in procedures, all tripped open circuit breakers are not allowed to be reset in flight
A
essential bus
22
Q
circuit breakers on which bus, if tripped, may be reset how many times in flight providing what?
A
essential bus, once,
1. at least one minute has elapsed from the time of the circuit breaker trip
2. there is no remaining smoke or burning smell
23
Q
Vmo
A
240 kias
24
Q
Mmo
A
0.48 mach
25
Vo at 10450 lb
166 kias
26
Vo at 9921
161 kias
27
Vfe flaps 15
165 kias
28
Vfe flaps greater than 15
130 kias
29
Vlo
180 kias
30
Vle
240 kias
31
SHP - takeoff and climb
1200 SHP
32
SHP - cruise
1000 SHP
33
SHP - max reverse
900 SHP
34
Torque PSI - Takeoff and climb
44.34 PSI
35
Torque PSI - cruise
36.95 PSI
36
Torque PSI - max reverse
34.25 PSI
37
Max ITT - takeoff
850° C
38
Max ITT - climb and cruise
820° C
39
Max ITT - starting (limited to how many seconds maximum)
1000° C, 5 seconds
40
Max ITT - transient
870° C
41
Max ITT - max reverse
760° C
42
Ng - takeoff, climb, cruise and transient
104 %
43
Ng - min idle (G.I & F.I)
50.7 %, 64 %
44
Np RPM - Takeoff, climb, and cruise
1700 RPM
45
Np RPM - Transient (limited to how many seconds maximum)
1870 RPM
46
Np RPM - max reverse
1650 RPM
47
Oil pressure PSI - takeoff, climb, cruise, and max reverse
90 to 135 PSI
48
Oil Pressure PSI - min idle
60 PSI MIN
49
Oil pressure PSI - starting
200 PSI MAX
50
Oil pressure PSI - Transient (limited to how many seconds maximum)
40 to 200 PSI, 20 seconds maximum
51
Oil temp C - takeoff
10° to 110° C
52
Oil temp C - climb, cruise, and max reverse
10° to 105° C
53
Oil temp C - min idle and transient
-40° to 110° C
54
Oil temp C - starting
-40° C MIN
55
Oil pressure under what PSI are undesirable?
90 PSI
56
Under emergency conditions, to complete a flight, a lower oil pressure of what PSI is permissible at reduced power level not exceeding what Torque PSI
60 PSI, 23.9 PSI
57
Oil pressure below what PSI are unsafe and require that either the engine be shut down or a landing be made as soon as possible using the minimum power required to sustain flight
60 PSI
58
Anti-icing additive must be used for all flight operations in ambient temperatures below what temperature
0° C
59
Additive concentration must be between a minimum of what % and a maximum of what % by volume
0.06% to 0.15% by volume
60
The engine starting cycle shall be limited to the following intervals:
1. sequence, 60 seconds OFF
2. sequence, 60 seconds OFF
3. sequence, 30 minutes OFF
61
Generator 1 max continuous load
300 AMP
62
Generator 1 max load for 2 minutes*
450 AMP *maximum load permitted for a 2 minute period per each one hour of operation
63
Starter/generator 2 max continuous load
300 AMP
64
Starter/generator 2 max load for 2 minutes *
450 AMP *maximum load permitted for a 2 minute period per each one hour of operation
65
Power control lever operation aft of the idle detent is prohibited:
1. When the engine is not running
2. During flight. Such operation may lead to a loss of airplane control and total power loss
3. When the engine is controlled by the Manual Override System. Such operation may lead to a loss of airplane control or may result in an engine/propeller overspeed condition and consequent loss of engine power
66
Takeoff is not approved with what cation annunciator illuminated
ENGINE CHIP
67
Maximum floor loading - on seat rails
205 lb/ft squared
68
Maximum floor loading - on cabin floor
125 lb/ft squared
69
Forward CG limit at 10450 lb
232.2"
70
Aft CG limit at 10450 lb
240.43"
71
Forward CG limit at 9921 lb
232.2"
72
Aft CG limit at 9921 lb
240.94
73
Flight load limits with flaps up
+3.3 g, -1.32 g
74
Flight load limits with flaps down
+2.0 g, -0.0 g
75
The pneumatic deice system boots are required to be installed for what flights?
all flights
76
A preflight test of the pneumatic deice system boots are required before takeoff and flight into what conditions
known icing conditions
77
The pneumatic deice system boots is required to function properly for flight into what conditions
known icing conditions
78
Operation of the pneumatic deice system boots in ambient temperatures below and above what temperatures may cause permanent damage to the boots?
-40° C and +40° C
79
The wing and tail leading edge pneumatic deicing boot system must be activated at the first sign of what?
ice formation anywhere on the aircraft
80
The wing and tail leading edge pneumatic deicing boot system may be deactivated only after what?
leaving icing conditions and after that the aircraft is determined to be clear of ice
81
Flight in icing conditions is only approved with
all ice protection systems, generator 1 and generator 2 serviceable
82
flight in icing conditions is prohibited when what caution is active
Propeller de ice
83
during flight in icing conditions or flight with any visible ice accretion on the airframe, the following flap maximum extension limitations apply:
- with operational airframe pneumatic deice boots: 15° FLAP
- after failure of the airframe pneumatic deice boots: 0° FLAP
84
In the event of a balked landing go-around with residual ice on the airframe, the flaps should or should not be retracted from the 15° position
should not
85
The aircraft must be clear of all deposits of snow, ice and frost adhering to the lifting and control surfaces immediately prior to
takeoff
86
What light must be operative prior to flight into known or forecast icing conditions at night
Left wing inspection light
87
Total unusable fuel
4.8 gal, 32.9 lb
88
maximum fuel imbalance
26.4 gal, 178 lb
89
Maximum operating altitude
30,000 '
90
Minimum outside air temperature
-55° C (-67° F)
91
Maximum outside air temperature
+50° C (122° F)
92
Maximum cabin pressure differential
5.75 PSI
93
pressurized landing is approved up to
0.7 PSID
94
Maximum number of occupants
9 plus pilots
95
What is required of the Stall warning/stick pusher before takeoff
preflight function test
96
The stall warning/stick pusher system is required to function properly in normal mode for all
flights and in ice mode for flight into known icing conditions
97
To allow adequate cooling of the wheels and brakes the aircraft must remain on the ground for at least how many min following the two events:
45 min,
- rejected takeoff with brake on speed greater than Vr -20 its and heavy brake usage
- 0° flap full stop landing and heavy brake usage
98
which trim systems must function properly for all flights
stabilizer normal and alternate, and rudder trim systems
99
which heated windshields must function properly for all flights, and what is the exception
left hand and right hand
for IFR flights conducted into no known or forecast icing conditions at least one heating zone of the windshield on the side of the pilot in command must function properly
100
what is required of the fire detection system for takeoff
preflight function test and system must function properly for all flihts
101
what is required of the engine ice protection for takeoff
preflight function test
102
A minimum oxygen supply of how many minutes duration for each occupant is required for dispatch for pressurized flight above what FL
10 minutes, FL250
103
Flaps system cycle limits up to 25° C OAT
10
104
Flaps system cycle limits from 25° C to 50° C OAT
8
105
Minimum engagement height after takeoff of the autopilot is
400' AGL
106
with the exception of approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged below
1000' AGL
107
For non-precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged below
400' AGL
108
For approach procedures with vertical guidance in VGP mode, the autopilot must be disengaged below
200' AGL
109
For autopilot coupled ILS approaches up to 4° the autopilot must be disengaged below
200' AGL
110
Maximum approved glide slope angle for all coupled approaches is
4°
111
The luggage area maximum load is
500 lb
112
Vg - 10450 lb (propeller feathered)
119 KIAS
113
Vg - 9920 lb (propeller feathered)
116 KIAS
114
Landing approach speeds (minimum approach speed) with ice accretion on the airframe:
After failure of: Pneumatic Deice Boots (flaps limit 0°)
130 KIAS
115
Landing approach speeds (minimum approach speed) with ice accretion on the airframe:
After failure of:
AOA probe deice
Pitot and static probe deice
Pusher ice mode (flaps limit 15°)
105 KIAS
116
Balked landing (go around) speed after failure of:
Pneumatic deice boots (flaps limit 0°)
130 KIAS
117
on the ground immediately after engine start if there is a rapid increase in ITT towards 1000° C, then:
Cutoff/feather
Dry motoring run
118
on the ground immediately after engine start If Ng stays below 50% then:
flight idle
back to ground idle or
cutoff/feather
starter interrupt
after 30: dry motoring run
119
Vr - flaps 15° (10450 lb)
82 KIAS
120
Vr - flaps 30° (10450 lb)
76 KIAS
121
Vx (10450 lb)
120 KIAS
122
Vy (10450 lb) - Sea level to FL200
130 to 120 KIAS
123
Recommended climb speed with flaps retracted and pusher ice mode (10450 lb)
135 KIAS
124
Landing approach speed - flaps 0° (9921 lb)
120 KIAS
125
Landing approach speed - flaps 15° (9921 lb)
99 KIAS
126
Landing approach speed - flaps 30° (9921 lb)
89 KIAS
127
Landing approach speed - flaps 40° (9921 lb)
85 KIAS
128
Landing approach speed - flaps 15° pusher ice mode with residual ice on the airframe (9921 lb)
105 KIAS
129
Balked Landing (Go around) speed - flaps 15° - gear down
98 KIAS
130
Balked Landing (Go around) speed - flaps 30° - gear down
89 KIAS
131
Balked Landing (Go around) speed - flaps 40° - gear down
85 KIAS
132
Balked Landing (Go around) speed - flaps 15° - gear down, pusher ice mode
105 KIAS
133
Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing (not a limitation) - flaps 0°
30 kts
134
Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing (not a limitation) - flaps 15°
25 kts
135
Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing (not a limitation) - flaps 30°
20 kts
136
Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing (not a limitation) - flaps 40°
15 kts
137
What kind of flight control system is used
conventional, using push-pull rods and carbon steel cables
138
what drives the aileron, rudder, and elevator trim
electrical
139
What type of flaps
Fowler
140
If the flap lever is not at one of the four preset positions, what will drive the flaps to where?
the flap control and warning unit, to the nearest preset position
141
how are the flaps actuated
electrically
142
what drives the flaps
Power drive unit (PDU)
143
If a failure (twisting) of the flaps is detected, what disconnects the power to the PDU and what CAS caution will be shown? can this condition be reset by pilot action?
the Flap control and warning unit (FCWU),
a Flaps caution
no
144
When flaps are set to 15°, flap panel asymmetry occurs when the difference between the left and right flap angle exceeds the angle of
1.6°
145
When flap position is between 15° and 30°, flap panel asymmetry occurs when the difference between the left and right flap angle exceeds the angle of
4.3°
146
When flap position is between 30° and 40°, flap panel asymmetry occurs when the difference between the left and right flap angle exceeds the angle of
5°
147
what will cause pusher safe mode to activate
if flap asymmetry or twist is detected and the flap angle is greater than 2° after ten seconds
148
what will cause a takeoff configuration CAS advisory
If any of the trims or the flap position are not in the takeoff range with the engine running
149
what will cause a NO TAKEOFF warning on the PFD and an aural no takeoff callout
if any of the trims or the flap position are not in the takeoff range or the condition lever is not at flight idle and the engine torque is increased more than 20 PSI with an airspeed of less than 50 KIAS
150
how is the landing gear extended and retracted
hydraulic pressure produced by an electrically powered hydraulic
151
how is hydraulic pressure maintained to hold the gear in the retracted position in normal operation and following a hydraulic system failure
a nitrogen charged accumulator
152
how can the gear be lowered if required
manually through a combination of free-falling and the emergency landing gear hand pump
153
how is nose wheel steering accomplished
mechanical nose wheel steering and by differential braking
154
what assists the nose gear in free fall during emergency extension
A spring attached to the nose gear
155
how long will the nitrogen charged accumulator hold the gear up after power pack failure
200 minutes
156
what will may happen 200 minutes after power pack failure
the landing gear may start to extend due to loss of system pressure
157
why would the CAS show a hydraulics caution on ground after landing
the power pack has been automatically initiated in flight more than 6 times in an hour
158
what will cause the FAS to initiate a gear warning message on the PFD and an aural warning
if the landing gear is not down and locked whilst in the air with:
- an airspeed of less than 130 KIAS and the PCL at idle
- the flaps set to 30° or 40°
- a radar altitude of less than 200' and a power setting of less than 10 PSI
159
what airspeed to manually extend the landing gear
110 KIAS (hydraulic)
120 KIAS (electric)
160
if the landing gear Does not completely extend and show three green -
pull the emergency landing gear hand pump handle out and pump 60-80 times. Yaw the airplane to assist if necessary
161
If the pilot and copilot simultaneously apply pressure to the same side brake pedal, which one will control the braking
the one applying the greatest pressure
162
What type of engine is the PT6a-67P
reverse flow, free turbine engine
163
how is engine inter turbine temperature measured
between the compressor and power turbine
164
the MOR controls the engine power in case of a
pneumatic failure of the engine fuel control or in case of a PCL system failure
165
what Ng must be maintained when using the MOR
do not permit the Ng to fall below 65 %. in descent and until touchdown 75 % or above
166
what is the prohibited RPM range of the PCL
350 to 950 RPM
167
when starting the engine when will the starter automatically disengage and the green starter annunciator go off
when the engine Ng reaches 50% or 80 seconds after the start sequence.
168
what is the starter engagement time limited to for air starts
60 seconds
169
Which battery provides the electrical power to maintain the essential systems during engine start
battery 1
170
what does battery 1 provide electrical power to maintain during engine starts
essential systems
171
what occurs at either 10% Ng or ten seconds after starter activation
Battery one is connected to the starter circuit to further enhance starter capability
172
At what temperature should you follow procedure for starting with a cold engine
below +5° C
173
what is the starting procedure for a cold engine (below +5° C)
Flight idle above 13% Ng, then ground idle when Ng is above 50%
174
how to resolve lower than normal engine rpm (Ng) or propeller RPM (Np) after engine start
flight idle, beta, or inhibiting ACS
175
when will ignition activate when set to auto
it will activate when ITT is less than 500° C and the Ng is 10% or more, and stops 10 seconds after the ITT is more than 500° C and when the Ng is less than 10%
176
when should ignition manually be switched to on
when operating in heavy precipitation
177
what causes the CAS warning "engine fire" red
the release of hydrogen gas causing a pressure rise
178
In case that neither the CSU nor the overspeed governor limit the propeller speed, what will limit the engine power to not exceed what %/RPM
the Nf governor will limit the engine power to not exceed (Np 109 %) 1853 rpm
179
should the CSU governor fail, what will limit the engine power and to what Np/RPM
the overspeed governor will limit the propeller speed (Np) to 106 % (1802 RPM)
180
what type of de-ice does each propeller blade have
an electrically heated boot on the inboard upper and lower leading edge
181
how does the propeller deice timer unit select the appropriate cycle
automatically depending on IOAT
182
which propeller deice boot will activate first
all inner zones followed by all outer zone
183
describe the 3 modes of the propeller deice
mode 1 (warmer than 0° C) - timer in standby
Mode 2 (0° C or colder but not colder than -16° C) -
45 sec - all inner zones are heated
45 sec - all outer zones are heated
90 sec - blade heating OFF
Mode 3 (colder than -16° C)
90 sec - all inner zones are heated
90 sec - all outer zones are heated
184
when the propeller deice system is powered on the deice timer first performs a test which lasts how long
20 seconds
185
what balances the fuel level in each wing
electric booster pumps
186
how is fuel symmetry maintained
automatically by the Fuel control and monitoring unit (FCMU)
187
what pump transfers fuel from the wing tank to the collector tank
the transfer jet pump
188
when will the electric booster pump automatically operate to balance fuel
when fuel asymmetry exceeds 68 lbs
189
at what degree of fuel asymmetry must the fuel be balanced manually
267 lbs
190
what amount of fuel is represented by one segment of the analogue gauge
50 lbs
191
at what degree of fuel imbalance is takeofff prohibited
more than 178 lbs
192
what does PGDS stand for and what are its components
Power Generation Distribution System
Generator 1 - 28V, 300A
Generator 2 - 28V, 300A
Battery 1 - 24V, 42A
Battery 2 - 24V, 42A
EPS - 24V, 5A
193
What monitors the condition of the generators for under and over voltage and the batteries for under and over voltage and over current (discharge)
the Modular Avionics Unit (MAU)
194
what range must the external power VDC be in
22 to 29.5
195
how long will the EPS provide power in case of a dual generator and dual battery loss
30 min
196
What buses are powered by Generator 1
Essential, Avionics 1,
197
what buses are powered by generator 2
Main, Avionics 2, non essential, cabin
198
What buses power the PFD's and MFD's
E
M
S
A2
essential - pilots PFD
main - upper MFD
standby - lower MFD
avionics 2 - copilots PFD
199
what is on the EPS bus
ESIS, CPCS, OXYGEN
200
what lights will turn on when the switch on the forward edge of the passenger door is pressed and how long will they stay on
for 45 seconds
cockpit overhead panel
dome light
passenger door light
stair lights -for 4 minutes longer
cabin flood lights
(stair lights
201
what is the environmental control system (ECS) comprised of
ACS
Auxiliary heaters
Vapor Cycle Cooling System (VCCS)
202
What does the Air cycle cooling system (ACS) do
cools engine bleed air for pressurization and ventilation
203
ACS bleed air will be taken exclusively from which bleed port during normal operation
P2.5
204
The cabin Pressure Control System comprises:
-Cabin pressure control unit (CPCU)
-Cabin pressure control & monitoring unit (ECMU)
-electrically driven Outflow Valve (OFV)
-pneumatic safety pressure relief valve (PRV)
-2 negative pressure relief valves (NPRV)
205
what does the CPCU/ECMU do
controls rate of exhaust that ACS supplies for ventilation and maintains cabin pressure
206
what does low cabin mode do
uses Landing field elevation as the target cabin altitude up to a maximum pressure differential of 5.75 PSI
207
at what cabin altitude will the CPCS automatically select the passenger oxygen to ON when the passenger oxygen control valve selector is set to AUTO
13500'
208
location of fire extinguisher
behind copilots seat
209
which pitot system supplies pitot pressure to the ESIS
the No. 2 (right side) pitot system
210
how many of the stall warning/stick pusher computers are required to provide stall warning (shaker & warning) vs activation of the pusher
1 for warning/shaker, both for pusher
211
how long is the pusher inhibited for after takeoff
5 seconds
212
when are the shaker and stall warning operative after lift off
immediately after lift off
213
when operated in pusher ice mode all the shaker and pusher actuating points measured by the angle of attack vanes are reduced by how much
8°
214
pusher ice mode is set when
the propeller de-icing system is switched to ON and the inertial separator is set to OPEN
215
what occurs when you perform the pusher test in the air by pressing and holding the test switch
pusher ice mode advisory
"stall" warning with shaker for 2 sec
1 sec pause
"stall" warning with shaker for 2 secs
216
as the airplane approaches stall (how many knots before pusher actuation) the stick shaker and the "stall" warning will activate when
(5-10 knots before pusher actuator)
when one of the AOA pusher computers senses the defined angle of attack for stall warning/stick shaker activation.
217
if the "stall" warnings are ignored and the approach to stall is continued, the stick pusher will activate when
when both AOA pusher computers sense the defined angle of attack for pusher activation
218
will the activation of the shaker disengage the autopilot
yes
219
what activates pusher safe mode
flap asymmetry greater than 2° for 10 seconds or more
220
what does pusher safe mode do
the stall warning trigger thresholds operate at the 0° flap position settings irrespective of the flap position
221
which bleed air is used for the pneumatic deice boots on the leading edges of the wings and the horizontal stabilizer
P3
222
in what order are the deicing boots inflated and for how many seconds
8 seconds each (40 sec total)
horizontal stabilizer
lower portion of inboard wing
upper portion
lower portion of the outboard wing
upper portion
223
how long is the deice boots dwell period between inflations when set to the 1 minute or 3 minute cycle
(20 sec dwell period in case the switch was selected by accident)
repeated immediately in the one minute cycle
140 seconds in the 3 minute cycle
224
if the deice boots control system is deactivated during a deicing cycle, will the cycle be completed before system shutdown
yes
225
ELT location
rear feuselage
226
AGM 1 drives which PFD and MFD
pilit PFD and upper MFD
227
AGM 2 drives which PFD and MFD
copilots PFD and lower MFD
228
DU 1 through 4 drive which PFD and MFD's
DU 1 - pilots PFD
DU 2 - upper MFD
DU 3 - lower MFD
DU 4 - copilots PFD
229
what indication is there in the event of AGM failure and what is the appropriate response
RED X's across the pilots or copilots PFD
twist AGM knob to opposite AGM
230
static and pitot pressure inputs to the ESIS which pitot/static system
the right hand No. 2 pitot/static system and a separate magnetometer in the right wing
231
tire pressure
60 (+3 -0) PSI
232
