Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Repro > Placental Development > Flashcards

Placental Development Flashcards

(70 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Describe sperm capacitation

A

Physiological changes necessary to penetrate the egg
Removal of some epididymis and seminal glycoproteins
Increase in membrane permeability to Ca2+
Ca2+ influx maximizes cAMP, increases sperm motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What process involves the removal of epididymal and seminal glycoproteins, increase in membrane permeability to Ca2+, and Ca2+ influx that maximizes cAMP and increases sperm motility?

A

Sperm capacitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What must precede fertilization?

A 
Sperm maturation (epididymis)
Sperm capacitation (female reproductive tract)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three main events in fertilization?

A

Sperm binding to ZP3
Acrosome reactin
Sperm-egg fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe sperm binding ZP3

A

Outer membrane of sperm binds to ZP3 receptor

This allows for the acrosome reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the acrosome reaction?

A

Release of enzymes (neuramidase and acrosin) from acrosomal space of sperm to break down zona pellucida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe sperm-egg fusion

A

After first sperm fertilizes egg, proteases released from cortical granules present in the egg remove oligosaccharides from ZP3 and partially cleave ZP2
This is also called cortical reaction
Prevents polyspermy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe polyspermy

A

Egg fertilized by more than one sperm

Results in nonviable zygotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What proteins are required for sperm to fuse with eggs?

A

Immunoglobulin superfamily protein Izumo (sperm)

CD9 (egg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens when there is a mutation in Izumo?

A

Inability for sperm to fuse to egg and undergo acrosome reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the fast component of the cortical reaction

A

Change in resting potential of oocyte plasma membrane prevents further binding of sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What component of the cortical reaction is characterized by a change in the resting potential of the oocyte plasma membrane that prevents further binding of sperm?

A

Fast component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the slow component of the cortical reaction

A

Release of cortical granules containing enzymes (into PVS) that destroy sperm receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What component of the cortical reaction if characterized by release of cortical granules containing enzymes that destroy sperm receptors?

A

Slow component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the development of the blastocyst

A

Zygote undergoes cleavage
Develops into morula, once it has attained 8-cell number
Differentiates blastocyst, with outer trophoblast, inner mass, and surrounding blastocyst cavity
Blastocyst hatches from its zona pellucida at 6 to 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe implantation of blastocyst

A

Hatch from zona pellucida
Apposition: adhesion to endometrium
Trophoblastic and endometrial cells express adhesions molecules (integrins)
Implantation mediated by penetrating trophoblastic cells
Invade part of myometrium (interstitial invasion)
Reduction in number of desmosomes facilitates embryo penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe optimal state of endometrial maturation for implantation

A

Vascular and edematous endometrial stroma, secretory endometrial glands, apical microprocesses, pinopodes on the apical domains of luminal endometrial lining cells
Cells enlarge, become pale–staining and store lipids & glycogen under the influence of progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are pinopodes?

A

Apical epithelial cellular protrusions of the endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the apical epithelial cellular protrusions of the endometrium?

A

Pinopodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe interstitial invasion

A

Invasion of endometrium and inner third of myometrium
Determined by action of secretory proteolytic enzymes released by syncytiotrophoblast
Proteases erode the branches of the spiral uterine arteries to form spaces or lacunae of maternal blood within syncytiotrophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe endovascular invasion

A

Initiates primitive uteroplacental circulation and represents the starting point of future intervillous space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is uteroplacental circulation established?

A

When trophoblastic cells are in direct contact with maternal blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The syncytiotrophoblast begins secretion of __ into maternal lacunae. It controls the secretion of estrogens and progesterone by corpus luteum

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) do?

A

Secreted by syncytiotrophoblast into maternal lacunae

Controls secretion of estrogens and progesterone by corpus luteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Describe the role of the decidual cells during implantation
Decidua provides immune-protective environment for the development of the embryo Production of immunosuppressive substances (mainly prostatglandins) to inhibit activation of natural killer cells at implantation site Infilitrating leukocytes in endometrial stroma that secrete interleukin-2 to prevent maternal tissue rejection of implanting embryo Syncytiotrophoblastic cells do not express major histocompatibility complex class II and cannot present antigens to maternal CD4+ T cells
26
What forms primary villi?
At the end of the second week, cytotrophoblastic cells proliferate and extend into syncytiotrophoblast mass
27
At the end of the second week, cytotrophoblastic cells proliferate and extend into syncytiotrophoblast mass, forming ___
Primary villi
28
Describe secondary villi
Early in third week, extraembryonic mesoderm extends into primary vili, forming secondary villi In cross section, secondary villus is formed by a core of extraembryonic mesoderm surrounded by a middle cytotrophoblast layer and an outer layer of syncytiotrophoblast
29
What is formed by a core of extraembryonic mesoderm surrounded by a middle cytotrophoblast layer and an outer layer of syncytiotrophoblast?
Secondary villi
30
Describe tertiary villi
Cells of extraembryonic mesoderm differentiate into capillary blood cells, forming tertiary villi Presence of capillaries in tertiary villi distinguish them from secondary villi
31
What is formed when cells of extraembryonic mesoderm differentiate into capillary and blood cells?
Teritary villi
32
Describe the placenta
Temporary organ with embryonic (chorion frondosum) and maternal (decidua basalis) components
33
What is the embryonic contribution to the placenta?
Chorion frondosum
34
What is the maternal contribution to the placenta?
Decidua basalis
35
What are the functions of the placenta?
``` Protect the fetus Provide for nutrition, respiration, excretion, and hormone protection during development Exchange of gases Transfer of maternal immunoglobulins Rh (D antigen) isoimmunization Steroid hormone production ```
36
Describe the transfer of the maternal immunoglobulins across the placenta
Maternal antibodies, mainly IgG, are taken up by syncytiotrophoblast and then transported to fetal capillaries for passive immunity Larger IgM does not cross placental barrier
37
What immunoglobulin can cross the placental barrier?
IgG
38
Describe Rh (D antigen) isoimmunization
Maternal antibodies against D antigen causes hemolytic disease (erythroblastosis fetalis) Fetus is Rh-postitive, but mother lacks D antigen (Rh-negative) Isoimmunization refers to maternal exposure and sensitization to fetal Rh+ red blood cells, mainly during delivery In subsequent pregnancy, antibodies to D antigen (IgG) cross placenta and cause hemolysis of fetal red blood cells
39
Describe decidua basalis
Portion underlying implantation site and forms maternal part of placenta
40
what is the portion that underlies the implantation site and forms the maternal part of the placenta?
Decidua basalis
41
Describe decidua capsularis
Portion overlying implanted embryo and separating it from uterine cavity
42
What is the portion that overlies implanted embryo and separates it from uterine cavity?
Decidua capsularis
43
Describe decidua parietalis
Remainder of endometrium
44
What portion is the remainder of the endometrium?
Decidua parietalis
45
Describe the villus structure
Chorionic villus is the basic structure involved in maternal-fetal exchanges Each villus has a core of mesenchymal connective tissue and fetal blood vessels (arterioles and capillaries)
46
Describe placental abruption
Premature separation of normally implanted placenta Hemorrhage into decidua basalis leads to premature placental separation and bleeding Impairs oxygenation of fetus
47
What is the premature separation of the normally implanted placenta caused by hemorrhage into decidua basalis and impairs oxygenation of fetus?
Placental abruption
48
What is placenta previa?
Implantation of placenta over cervical os
49
What is implantation of placenta over cervical os?
Placenta previa
50
what is placenta accreta?
Abnormal trophoblastic invasion
51
What is abnormal trophoblastic invasion?
Placenta accreta
52
What is placenta increta?
Abnormal trophoblastic invasion into myometrium
53
What is abnormal trophoblastic invasion into myometrium?
Placenta increta
54
What is placenta percerta?
Abnormal trophoblastic invasion through serosa and into surrounding tissues
55
What is abnormal trophoblastic invasion through serosa and into surrounding tissues?
Placenta percerta
56
What is uterine atony?
Contractions of uterine muscles are not strong enough and postpartum bleeding occurs
57
What happens when contractions of uterine muscles are not strong enough and postpartum bleeding occurs?
Uterine atony
58
What are the predisposing factors of uterine atony?
Abnormal labor Substantial enlargement of the uterus Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)
59
What decreases the possibility of uterine atony?
Intravenous infusion of oxytocin, which stimulates uterine contractions
60
Describe placental calcification
Sign of placental aging Pattern of calcification (precipitation of calcium hydroxyapatite) is similar to that seen in other aging tissues Probably a response to cell death and diminished blood circulation in localized regions of placenta One significant risk factor: smoking
61
Describe lithopedion
Fetal death with ectopic pregnancy | Fetus is too large to be reabsorbed by the body and calcifies
62
What is the term for a fetus that died in utero, was too large to be reabsorbed by the body, and calcified?
Lithopedion
63
What is gestational trophoblastic disease?
Group of neoplasms, both benign and malignant, that arises from fetal tissue invading maternal host Tumors are composed of trophoblastic tissue Malignant GTD diagnosed on basis of elevated tumor markers, primarily beta-hCG GTDs are highly responsive to chemotherapy
64
Describe complete hydatidiform mole
No fetus Diploid, but all chromosomes paternal (fertilization of egg which has lost its chromosomes by 2 sperm, or 1 sperm replicates itself)
65
Describe parital hydatidiform mole
Fertilization of a haploid ovum and duplication of paternal haploid chromosomes or from dispermy
66
Describe malignant GTDs
15-20% of complete moles develop malignant sequelae Invasive moles: invasion into myometrium of edematous chorionic villi covered with layers of proliferative trophoblastic cells, beta-hCG moderately elevated Choriorcarcinoma: admixture of malignant cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast, no villi
67
Compare karyotype of complete vs partial mole
Complete: 46XX, paternal origin; 46XY, paternal origin Partial: triploidy, tetraploidy
68
Describe presence of fetal tissue in complete vs partial mole
Complete: absent Partial: present (maternal chromosomes present)
69
Describe hydropic villi. Compare complete vs partial mole
Genomic imprinting is the epigenetic phenomenon by which certain genes are expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner Complete: extensive (grapelike clusters are diagnostic characteristic (poor or absent blood vessels)) Partial: limited and focal
70
Describe trophoblastic hyperplasia in complete vs partial mole
Complete: extensive with significant atypia Parital: focal with mild atypia

Repro (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions