Platelets Flashcards

(142 cards)

1
Q

Platelets are produced directly from…

A

Megakaryocyte cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hormone responsible for megakaryopoiesis

A

Thrombopoietin

70,000 daltons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Thombopoietin is produced by which organ

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Refers to the form of mitosis that lacks telophase and cytokinesis

A

Endomitosis

formation of giant multinucleated or polyploidy cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Megakaryopoiesis: Least mature specific progenitor

A

Burst forming unit-Meg / BFU-Meg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Megakaryopoiesis: most mature specific progenitor

A

Light density colony forming unit - Meg / LD-CFU-Meg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Megakaryopoiesis: Least mature precursor

A

MK-I / Megakaryoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Megakaryopoiesis: Most mature precursor

A

MK-III / Megakaryocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Endomitosis starts at_________________ (specific progenitor)

A

LD-CFU-Meg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Endomitosis end at ________________ (precursor)

A

MK-II / Promegakaryocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Thrombopoietin (TPO) is also known as…

A

MPL ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stimulating hormonal factors that controls the production and release of platelets

A

TPO/MPL ligand and IL-11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Each megakaryocyte produces ________ (#) platelets

A

2,000-4,000 (Rodaks)
1,000-4,000 (Steinenger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Thrombocytes’ lifespan

A

8-11 days or 9-12 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Platelets are phagocytized by the…

A

Liver
Spleen
Other mononuclear phagocytic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Major source of energy of platelets

A

Glucose / dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Platelet composition

A

60% protein
30% lipid
8% carbohydrates
Mineral
Water
Nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Platelet’s maturation time:

A

5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Platelet structure that is responsible for adhesion and aggregation

A

Peripheral zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Coagulation factors composed in Glycocalyx

A

Factor V, Factor VIII, Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Platelet structure responsible for change in shape, extension of pseudopods, and secretion of granules

A

Sol-gel zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which among the Sol-gel components is majorly responsible for the platelet disc shape

A

Microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Microtubules disassemble when treated with…

A

Colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rope-like polymers

A

Intermediate filaments of the Sol-gel zone

connect the actin to tubules = maintain shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Alpha granules
Platelet factor IV, platelet derived growth factor, thrombospondin, VWF, fibrinogen, fibrinectin, Factor V
26
Dense / Delta granules
**CAPASM** *Calcium, ADP, Pyrophosphate, ATP, Serotonin, Magnesium*
27
Lysosomes / Lysosomal type granules
Acid hydrolases, ACP, hydrolytic enzymes
28
Which composition in organelle zone has “clearing” responsibilities
Lysosomes
29
Membranous system that is derived from Rough ER
Dense tubular system / DTS
30
DTS sequesters/hold _________ for _______________ and ________________
Calcium Platelet activation process Prostaglandin synthesis
31
Control center for platelet activation
DTS system
32
System that acts as a canal for the release of alpha-granules
Surface connecting **canal**icular system (SCCS) or Open canalicular system (OCS)
33
Sponge like portion of the cell
SCCS / OCS *provides an expanded reactive surface to which plasma clotting factors are selectively adsorbed*
34
Route for endocytosis
SCCS / OCS
35
Type of platelet that is associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease
Reticulated platelets
36
Platelets become *round* when in ____________ and *cylindrical and beaded* when in ___________
EDTA Citrated blood
37
Pro platelet process occur in MK- ______
III
38
Megakaryocyte progenitors arise from _______ under the influence of transcription gene product: ___________, regulated by: _____________.
CMP GATA-1 Cofactor FOG1
39
Megakaryocyte differentiation is suppressed by ________
transcription gene product: MYB
40
Which transcription factor mediates the switch from mitosis to endomitosis?
RUNX1 *suppress Rho/ROCK signaling pathway = suppresses the assembly of actin cytoskeleton*
41
Morphological vague clue of megakaryoblast
Plasma membrane *blebs* Blunt projections from the margin that resemble platelets
42
Procoagulant-laden alpha-granules, dense granules (bodies), and demarcation system (DMS) begin to develop during the ___________ stage
Megakaryoblast / MK-I
43
Nuclear lobularity first becomes apparent during the _______________ stage.
MK-II / Promegakaryocyre
44
Most abundant precursor stage
MK-III / Megakaryocyte
45
Megakaryocyte characteristics/features
30-50um Intensely indented and lobulated nucleus Degree of lobulation is imprecisely proportional to ploidy Chromatin is variably condensed w/ light and dark patches Azurophilic cytoplasm, granular
46
Ploidy levels are measured using
Mepacrine *a nucleic acid dye in megakaryocyte flow cytometry*
47
MRNA for TPO is found in….
Liver Kidney Stromal cells Smooth muscle cells Liver - has the most copies = main site
48
Cytokines act in synergy with TPO to induce early differentiation of stem cells
IL-3
49
Cytokine that enhance endomitosis, megakaryocyte maturation, and thrombocytopeiesis
IL-6 and IL-11
50
Normal peripheral blood platelet count
150-400x10^9/L
51
Excess hemostasis = ___________________ Inadequate hemostasis = __________________
Clot extension, thrombosis Poor wound healing and prone to bleeding
52
Key component in intravascular hemostasis
Platelets and biochemical (procoagulants)
53
Primary or Secondary hemostasis: Involves vascular intima
Primary hemostasis
54
Primary or secondary hemostasis: activated by large injuries to blood vessels and surrounding tissues
Secondary hemostasis
55
Primary or secondary hemostasis: Rapid, short lived
Primary hemostasis
56
Primary hemostasis is initiated by…
Exposure of platelets to the subendothelial connective tissue components blood vessels
57
Factors essential for vascular integrity or resistance to vessel disruption
**CFP-3As**: Circulating functional platelets Adrenocorticosteroids Ascorbic acid
58
Anticoagulant used for collection tubes for hemostasis testing
Buffered sodium citrate
59
Example of drug to avoid prior hemostasis testing
Aspirin
60
Needle gauge: Adult w/ good veins: ______ Child/adult w/ small/fragile/hardened veins: ________ Transfer from syringe to tube:______
20-21 23 19
61
Tourniquet application of >1min
Activate endothelial cells Elevate conc. Of vWF and fibrinogen Falsely shortening clot-based tests
62
Specimen storage at 1-6deg C causes
Precipitation of VWF multimers Activation of coagulation factor 7/11 Activation of plts Destruction of plt integrity
63
Specimen storage at >25deg C causes
Coagulation of factor 5/8 to deteriorate
64
Ratio if blood to anticoagulant
9:1
65
Specimen processing for hemostasis should be done at _________ (*temp *)
37deg C
66
Drugs like aspirin and other NSAIDS INHIBIT __________________
Cyclooxygenase pathway Plt Func Test: 1 week abstinence Bleeding time test: 24hrs prior to test
67
Specimen processing validity: PT: _______ APTT: ______
24hrs 4hrs
68
Platelet rich plasma obtained by centrifuging ______________ from 3.2% sodium citrate at ___________________________
Whole blood 50g x for 30mins
69
Platelet poor plasma obtained by centrifuging ______________ from 3.2% sodium citrate at ___________________________
Whole blood 1500g x for 15mins
70
PRP samples are used for __________________ (*type of tests*)
Platelet aggregometry or platelet function test *PPP is for clot-based coagulation tests (PT/APTT)*
71
Blood collection volume is less than specified minimum
PT falsely prolonged Recollect
72
Visible hemolysis PT is….
Falsely shortened Recollect
73
If sample undergo heparin therapy, solution:
Use rgt known to be in to heparin sensitive Or w heparin neutralizer such as **polybrene**
74
Electromechanical detection fibrin clot formation uses ________________ Instrument: _______________
Wire loop/hook Fibrometer
75
Detection of fibrin clot formation through Photo-optical detection depends on the _________________________
Increase in light scattering
76
Semi automated photo-optical detection instruments
Electra 750 and 750A Fibrintimer series FP 910 Coagulation analyzer Other semi automated instruments: Fibrometer -Start 4 -Cascade M and M-4 -BFT-II -KC1 -KC4
77
Automated photo-optical detection instruments
Ortho Koagulab 16s and 40A, Coag-A-Mate X2 and XC, MLA Electra 700 Other Automated instruments: ACL TOP, STA-R Evolution, STA Compact, and Compact CT Sysmex CA-530, CA-560, CA-620, CA-660, CA1500, CA-7000, BCS XP, CoaLAB
78
Clotted samples will cause results to be _______________
Falsely shortened clotting times Due to premature activation of coagulation factors and plts that generate Factor VIIa and thrombin (*same with Hemolyzed samples*)
79
Samples that are expected to have liver dysfunction
Icterus/Bilirubinemia and abnormal clot formation Prolonged clotting times because of inadequate factor production
80
Measurement that measures the *uniformity* of platelet size
Platelet distribution width Serve as validity chech and monitor false results
81
PdW normal value
<20%
82
Conditions w/ INC PDW
Aplastic and megaloblastic anemia CML Antileukemic chemotherapy
83
Measurement that measures the average *volume* of platelets
Mean Platelet Volume Analogous to erythrocytic MCV
84
MPV should be based on EDTA specimens that are between _______________ hours old
1-4
85
Healthy patients have inverse relationship between ________________ and ___________
Count Size INC count = DEC MPV (*vice versa*)
86
Conditions w/ INC MPV
ITP After splenectomy Sickle cell anemia
87
Prostacyclin’s action:
Inhibit PLT activation Vasodilator (synthesized through **eicosanoid pathway**)
88
ATP’s action in intact endothelial cells:
Stimulates vasodilation
89
Endothelial surface receptor of thrombin
Thrombomodulin *Binds and inactivates thrombin, enhances anticoagulant and fibrinolytic action of **protein c** in plasma*
90
Heparan sulfate’s action in endothelial cells:
Coats the surface and weakly enhances **anti-thrombim III**
91
Converts plasminogen to plasmin
Tissue plasminogem activator (tPA)
92
Storage site of vwf in: - endothelium: - PLTs or Megakaryocyte:
Wiebel palade Alpha granules
93
“Carpet” on which activated platelets assemble
VWF
94
Teh vasculau “relaxing” factor
Nitric oxide
95
Heparan sulfate is a…..
Blood plasma serine protease that enhances the activity of antithrombin
96
The alteration in cellular shape is triggered by an ____________^^^^^
Increase level of cytoplasmic calcium
97
During platelet (adhesion, activation, aggregation) occurs the morphological and functional change in platelets
Activation
98
During platelet (activation, aggregation, secretion): Cyclooxygenase metabolizes _______________ to form _______________ that is then converted to _______________ which is a ____________ and a ____________ that causes _________ and __________
Arachidonic acid Prostagalndin endoperoxidase Thromboxane A2 Vasoconstrictor Platelelet stimulator Platelet Aggregation Secretion
99
Necessary cofactor for platelet aggregation
Fibrinogen
100
(Adhesion, aggregation, secretion) seals the endothelial gaps
Adhesion Requires VWF
101
(Adhesion, aggregation, adhesion) essential to coagulation
Secretion
102
Proteins that controls the cellular activation for all cells in the inner membrane surface
G proteins
103
Three stages of coagulation mechanism
Generation of prothrombinase complex Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
104
Extrinsic pathway is initiated by the entry of ______________________
Tissue thromboplastin (tissue factor)
105
Fibrinogen is mainly synthesized in ______________
Liver
106
Largest and most concentrated clotting factor
Fibrinogen
107
Fibrinogen is the primary substrate of __________
Thrombon
108
Prothrombin half life
3 days *70% consumption during clotting*
109
In the presence of ______________, prothrombin is converted to ____________ by the enzymatic action of _________________ from both extrinsic and intrinsic sources
Ionized calcium Thrombin Thromboplastin
110
In the presence of ___________, prothrombin is converted to ___________ by the enzymatic action of ________________ from both extrinsic and intrinsic sources
Ionized calcium Thrombin Thromboplastin
111
Thrombin is consumed during ___________________
The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
112
Main enzyme of coagulation pathway
Thrombin (Factor IIa)
113
Thrombin bound to __________ activate ___________ to suppress _________
Thrombomodulin Protein **C** pathway **C**oagulation
114
Tjrombin activates ________ to suppress ___________
TA**F**I **F**ibrinolysis
115
Factor V half life
16hrs
116
Action of Factor VII
Activation of thromboplastin Acceleration of conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
117
Vitamin K deficiency and Vitamin K antagonists reduce Factor _____
VII
118
Factor ______ falsely decreased in presence of Lupus anticoagulant (LA)
VIII
119
Factor VIII is produced by __________ and _______________ in lungs
Hepatocytes Microvascular endothelial cells
120
Alpha subunit of Factor XIII is produced by ___________, beta subunit by ___________
Megakaryocyte and monocyte Liver
121
Factors that are acute phase reactants
Fibrinogen Prothrombin Factor VIII *INC during inflammation (trauma, pregnancy, infection, stress)*
122
Fibrinogen group factors (Thrombin sensitive group)
Factor I, V, VIII, XIII
123
Prothrombin group factors (Vit. k dependent group)
Factor VII IX X II
124
Contact group factors
Factor XII XI HMWK PK
125
Major inhibitor of blood coagulation
Protein C
126
Protein C stimulates fibrinolysis by……
Inactivating plasminogen activator inhibitors
127
Cofactor of protein C
Protein S 40% is free and active 60% is bound to **complement c4 binding protein** and is inactive
128
Major inhibitor of thrombin
Antithrombin C Enhanced by heparin = Heparin cofactor II
129
Also called as lipoprotein associated coagulation inhibitor (LACI) , inhibits the VIIa-tissue factor complex
Extrinsic pathway inhibitor (EPI)
130
Principle inactivator of factor XIIa and plasma kallekrein
C1-inhibitor
131
Weak inhibitor of thrombin and factor Xa and XIa
Alpha 1 antitrypsin
132
Primary purpose of fibrinolysis
Digest fibrin clots
133
Fibrinolysis occurs when _________ is converted to ____________
Plasminogen Plasmin *dissolved fibrin or fibrinogen into smaller fragments = (FDP) Fibrin Degradation product or (FSP) Fibrin split product*
134
Plasminogen is produced by the ______
Liver
135
It is a single-chain protein possessing 5 glycosylated loops termed “kringles”
Plasmimogen
136
Fibrin-bound plasminogen is converted to __________________ when cleaved between _____________ and ___________
Two-chain active plasmin Arginin at position 561 Valine at position 562
137
Primary or Secondary Fibrinolysis: excessive amount of plasminogen activator from damaged cells or malignant cells
Primary fibrinolysis Ex. Surgery, trauma, malignancy
138
Primary or secondary fibrinolysis: DEC fibrinogen and DEC plt count
Secondary hemostasis *Primary hemostasis has Normal PLT count*
139
Marker of thrombosis and fibrinolysis
D-dimer *Disseminated intravascular coagulation, rule out venous thromboembolism, and pulmonary embolism*
140
Primary inhibitor of plasmin
Alpha 2 antiplasmin
141
Urokinase - secreted by: ________ - circulates in ___________ at a ______ng/mL - converts _________ to plasmin - therapeutically used to: _________
Urinary tract epithelial cells, monocytes and macrophages Plasma 2-4ng/mL Dissolve thrombi
142
Playelet stimulating agents
Adp Collagen Thrombin Epinephrine