Polishing Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

Describe the coronary venous drainage

A

Great cardiac vein: arises at apex, runs in AV sulcus and around to the coronary sinus. Drains territory supplied by LCA
Middle cardiac vein: runs in posterior interventricular septum
Small cardiac vein: starts on right marginal side, runs in AV sulcus to drain into coronary sinus

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2
Q

How can CKD cause hTn?

A
  • Kidneys cannot filter blood as effectively
  • Less sodium detected by macula densa
  • Renin release
  • Plus: increase in blood volume because less is filtered out
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3
Q

What is phaeochromocytoma?

A
  • Tumour of chromaffin cells in adrenal gland
  • Overproduction of catecholamines
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4
Q

How can diabetes cause hypertension (two mechanisms)

A

Mech 1: Hyperglycaemia damages kidneys, leading to renin release and hypertension
Mech 2: Glucose stays in blood, creating an osmotic gradient that causes hypertension

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5
Q

List three causes of secondary hypertension

A
  • Phaeochromocytoma
  • Chronic Kidney Disease
  • Diabetes
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6
Q

How can hypertension damage the brain

A
  • Vascular damage
  • Increased arterial clot formation
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7
Q

Which muscle does the long thoracic nerve supply?

A

Serratus anterior

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8
Q

Why is the long thoracic nerve vulnerable to damage?

A
  • Long, superficial course
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9
Q

What property of a pressure-volume loops tells us its compliance?

A

Its slope (change in volume per change in pressure)

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10
Q

Describe the gradient of lung ventilation from the apical to the basilar regions

A

Ventilation is lowest at the lung apices, and highest at the lung bases.

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11
Q

How does the V/Q ratio change from lung base to lung apex?

A

It increases

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12
Q

Describe the four different kinds of mechanoreceptors in the lung (and, briefly, their roles)

A
  • Stretch receptors (Hering-Breuer reflex)
  • Muscle receptors (increase respiration in response to activity)
  • Juxtacapillary receptors (respond to capillary engorgement and chemicals)
  • Irritant receptors (cough reflex)
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13
Q

What receptors are on the end of bronchopulmonary C-fibres?

A

Juxtacapillary receptors

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14
Q

Effect of obstructive/restrictive lung disease on lung volumes

A

Obstructive: increased reserve volume
Restrictive: all lung volumes (including TLC) decreased

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15
Q

Are the symptoms of a STEMI and NSTEMI different?

A
  • No
  • They are the same
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16
Q

Recap ECG lead placement

A
  • Leads V1-V6:
    Fourth ICS parasternal right side (V1)
    Fourth ICS parasternal left side (V2)
    Fifth ICS mid-clav left side (V4)
    Between V2 and V4 (V3)
    Anterior axilla fifth ICS (V5)
    Middle axilla fifth ICS (V6)
  • Limb leads (traffic light):
    Right Arm: Red
    Left Arm: Yellow
    Left Foot: Green
    Right foot: Black
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17
Q

List two non-atherosclerotic causes of myocardial infarction

A
  • Coronary artery dissection
  • Vasospasm
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18
Q

List some causes of Type 2 MI

A
  • Anaemia
  • Hypotension
  • Sepsis
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19
Q

Describe conservative treatment of peripheral vascular disease

A
  • Risk factor reduction (weight loss, smoking cessation, exercise)
  • Medication (aspirin, hTn meds, diabetes medication, statin)
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20
Q

Describe more invasive methods of treating peripheral vascular disease

A
  • PCI (stent placement)
  • Surgical bypass
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21
Q

Recall some inherited and acquired causes of hypercoagulability

A

Inherited:
- Factor V Leiden Mutation
- Protein C/S deficiency
Acquired:
- Pregnancy
- Malignancy
- Birth control pills
- HRT

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22
Q

How does oestrogen increase coagulation in pregnancy, HRT, and oral contraceptive use?

A
  • Increased factors VII, X, XII, and XIII
  • Decrease protein S
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23
Q

What is added to plasma in aPTT testing?

A
  • Calcium
  • Phospholipids
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24
Q

Describe the innervation of the visceral and parietal pleura (basic overview)

A

Parietal:
- Mediastinal surface: phrenic nerve
- Lateral surface: intercostal nerves

Visceral:
- Autonomic

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25
How does pneumothorax cause chest pain?
It triggers sensory fibres in the visceral (autonomic) and parietal (phrenic/intercostal) nerves
26
Thoracentesis vs thoracostomy
Thoracentesis: needle drainage Thoracostomy: insertion of chest tube (continuous drainage)
27
Primary spontaneous pneumothorax management
In HD stable: observation and monitoring In HD unstable: thoracostomy
28
How is recurrent spontaneous pneumothorax treated?
Definitive management (pleurodesis) should also occur
29
How is tension pneumothorax treated?
- Needle decompression - Tube thoracostomy
30
How can pulmonary embolism cause transudative AND exudative effusions?
Transudative: increase hydrostatic pressure proximal to blockage Exudative: release of vasoactive cytokines in response to blockage
31
What are the three types of infective pleural effusion?
- Parapneumonic - Empyema - Complex parapneumonic
32
Sliding vs rolling hiatus hernia
Sliding: gastrooesophageal junction Rolling: fundus of stomach
33
Where is haem predominantly synthesised?
Erythrocyte precursors in bone marrow (before organelles are dissolved)
34
Microcytic anaemia acronym
TAILS: - Thalassaemia - Anaemia of chronic disease - Iron deficiency - Lead poisoning - Sideroblastic anaemia
35
Normocytic anaemia acronym
3 As, 2 Hs: - Acute blood loss - Anaemia of chronic disease - Aplastic anaemia - Haemolysis - Hypothyroidism
36
Macrocytic anaemia acronym
FATRBC: - Foetal pregnancy - Alcohol - Hypothyroidism - Renal failure - B12 and folate deficiency - Cirrhosis/liver disease
37
Vulnerable stages of life to iron deficiency
- Pregnancy - Pre-menopausal women - Growing adolescents
38
Neutrophil lifespan
~2.5 days
39
What is the lifespan of lymphocytes (memory/non-memory)
Non-memory: weeks/months Memory: years
40
Lifespan of eosinophils
2-5 days
41
Macrophage/monocyte lifespan
Monocyte: 1-6 day Macrophage: months/years
42
Basophil lifespan
12-15 days
43
List the three functions of macrophages/neutrophils
- Phagocytosis - Chemotaxis - Killing foreign bodies
44
What do CD4 and CD8 bind to?
Corresponding MHC molecule (product is always 8)
45
What disease does Binet staging relate to?
CLL
46
Outline stages A, B, and C of binet staging
A: <3 lymphoid areas of involvement, no anaemia/thrombocytopaenia B: =>3 lymphoid areas of involvement, no anaemia/thrombocytopaenia C: Anaemia and/or thromboytopaenia
47
Describe the three phases of chemotherapy for haematological malignancies
Induction: Aim is to induce remission Consolidation: Aim is to kill all remaining cancer cells once remission has been achieved Maintenance: Given to prolong remission/stop recurrence of cancer
48
Name and describe the mutation that causes chronic myeloid leukaemia
- ABL gene is moved from chromosome 9 to chromosome 22 - Joins next to BCR gene from 22 - New BCR-ABL gene allows unregulated cell proliferation
49
Briefly describe the mechanism of anaphylaxis
Allergic reaction (usually IgE mediated) that results in release of inflammatory substances into the bloodstream, causing multi-organ involvement.
50
How is anaphylaxis treated
- Intramuscular adrenaline - Antihistamines - Airway monitoring (supplemental O2, airway management, IV fluids)
51
Four criteria of informed consent
- Capacity - Voluntary - Specific to procedure - Must understand alternatives, risks
52
List some organs other than the lungs that TB can infect
- Kidneys - Brain - Bones
53
Symptoms of bronchiectasis
Transient: - Wheezing - Dyspnoea - Foul-smelling mucous - Coughing - Clubbing
54
What causes S3 and S4?
S3: Ventricular filling S4: Atrial systole
55
Which valvulopathy radiates to the left axilla?
Mitral regurgitation
56
Common features of IV-drug related endocarditis
Right-sided valve involvement
57
Common organism of acute native valve endocarditis
Staph aureus
58
Common organisms of subacute endocarditis
Enterococcus/ alpha haemolytic strep
59
Four levels of alpha thalassaemia
One mutated alpha globin: silent Two: Trait Three: HbH disease Four: Incompatible with life
60
Genetic inheritance of beta thalassaemia
Autosomal recessive
61
Haemophilia inheritance pattern
X-linked recessive
62
Does ferroportin reduce iron ions?
No; that is done by an enzyme
63
Which family of organisms are most commonly responsible for community acquired pleural infections?
Streptococcus
64
What describes a positive bronchodilator response in an adult?
Increase in FEV1 (or FVC) of ≥12% and an absolute increase in FEV1 (or FVC) of ≥200 mL
65
True or false: obesity is a risk factor for PE
True
66
Does COPD cause clubbing?
No
67
At what level does an airway obstruction cause a stridor?
Extrathoracic (i.e. trachea, glottis etc.)
68
Is connective tissue disorder more likely to cause regurgitant or stenotic valvulopathies?
Regurgitant
69
What causes a JVP "wave"
Atrial contraction
70
What is more specific to myocardium: Troponin or creatine kinase MB?
Troponin
71
What is the most common modification of the left ventricle in mitral stenosis
Dilation
72