Portfolio Management (Part One) Flashcards
Real Return
= Nominal Return Less Inflation
Why is evaluating investments using expected return and variance of returns a simplif ication?
Because returns do not follow a normal distribution; distributions are negatively skewed, with greater kurtosis (fatter tails) than a normal distribution. The negative skew ref lects a tendency towards large downside deviations, while the positive excess kurtosis re flects frequent extreme deviations on both the upside and
downside. These non-normal characteristics of skewness (≠ 0) and kurtosis (≠ 3) should be taken into account when analyzing investments.
How does liquidity impact evaluation of investments?
Liquidity can affect the price and, therefore, the expected return of a security. Liquidity can be a major concern in emerging markets and for securities that trade infrequently, such as low-quality corporate bonds.
Who is a risk-averse investor?
A risk-averse investor is simply one that dislikes risk (i.e., prefers less risk to more risk). Given two investments that have equal expected returns, a risk-averse investor will choose the one with less risk (standard deviation, σ). Financial models assume all investors are risk averse.
Who is a risk-seeking investor?
A risk-seeking (risk-loving) investor would actually prefer more risk to less and, given equal expected returns, would prefer the more risky investment.
Who is a risk-neutral investor?
A risk- neutral investor would have no preference regarding risk and would therefore be indifferent between any two investments with equal expected returns.
What are an investor’s utility functions?
Investors’ utility functions represent their preferences regarding the tradeoff between risk and return (i.e., their degrees of risk aversion)
What is an indifference curve?
An indifference curve is a tool from economics that, in this application, plots combinations of risk (standard deviation) and expected returns among which an investor is indifferent.
In constructing indifference curves for portfolios based on only their expected return and standard deviation of returns, we are assuming that these are the only portfolio characteristics that investors care about.
Expected Risk for a 2 Asset Portfolio where one asset is risk free
Wa*SDa
where, a is the risk bearing asset
An Indifference curve for a risk averse investor will be (flatter/steeper)
Steeper - as they will require a greater increase in expected return per unit increase in risk reflecting a higher risk aversion coefficient
The capital allocation line is a line from the risk-free return through the:
optimal risky portfolio
Expected Return for a 2 Asset Portfolio
E(Rp) = WaE(Ra) + WbE(Rb)
Sample Variance
S^2 = [Sum of (Rt - R_)]^2 / T-1
Rt = Return for period t
R_ = Mean of Sample
T = Total periods
Expected Risk for a 2 Asset Portfolio
SDp = Root of Wa^2SDa^2 + Wb^2SDb^2 + 2WaWbCorrel(A,B)SDa*SDb
Capital Allocation Line
The line representing thes possible combinations of risk-free assets and the optimal risky asset portfolio is referred to as the capital allocation line.
Two-fund separation theorem
Combining a risky portfolio with a risk-free asset is the process that supports the two-fund separation theorem, which states that all investors’ optimal portfolios will be made up of some combination of the optimal portfolio of risky assets and the risk-free asset.
Combination of Capital Allocation Line + Indifference Curve
Gives the Optimal Portfolio that maximises investors expected utility
Population Variance
SD^2 = [Sum of (Rt - Mu)]^2 / T
Rt = Return for period t
Mu = Mean of Population
T = Total periods
Covariance for Returns of Two Assets (Features)
- extent to which two variables move together over time
- does not indicate strength, only direction
- Cov = 0 - no LINEAR relation (may have non-linear relation)
Covariance for Returns of Two Assets (Formula)
Cov1,2 = Sum of [(Rt,1 - R_1)(Rt,2 - R_2)] / n-1
Rt,1 = return on Asset 1 in period t
Rt,2 = return on Asset 2 in period t
R_1 = mean return on asset 1
R_2 = mean return on asset 2
n = number of periods
Correlation
- magnitude of covariance
- standardised measure
P1,2 = Cov1,2 / SD1*SD2
P1,2 = Correlation Coefficient
-1 <= P1,2 <= 1
-1 = perfectly negatively correlated
1 = perfectly positively correlated
0 = no LINEAR relationship
Portfolio Variance
Varp = Wa^2SDa^2 + Wb^2SDb^2 + 2WaWb*Cov(a,b)
= Wa^2SDa^2 + Wb^2SDb^2 + 2WaWbCorrel(a,b)SDa*SDb
Zero-Variance Portfolio
A zero-variance portfolio can only be constructed if the correlation coeff icient between assets is -1
Can you get diversification benefits if correlation is less than 1?
Yes