Practical Exam Review Flashcards
(325 cards)
1
Q
Increased Segs Indicates what?
A
Bacterial infection
2
Q
Elevated Lymphocytes indicate:
A
A Viral Infection
3
Q
What is your working diagnosis for a pt. Who presents with increased AST Troponin?
A
MI
4
Q
High BUN indicates an issue where?
A
Kidney
5
Q
What are some extra tests for Kidney issues?
A
- CCR
- KUB X-Ray
6
Q
High calcium + Low Phosphorus indicates what?
A
Hyperparathyroidism
7
Q
High Calcium + High Phosphorus indicates what?
A
Bone breakdown / Bone Issue
8
Q
What X Ray sign does “salt & pepper skull” indicate?
A
Hyperparathyroidism
9
Q
74 year old presents with fatigue and malaise. Lab results show increased Alk Phos, Increased Calcium, and an inverted A/G Ratio. Urinalysis reveals Bence Jones Proteins. Diagnosis?
A
Multiple Myeloma
10
Q
Rain Drop Skull is an indication of what?
A
Multiple Myeloma
11
Q
Confirmatory tests for Multiple Myeloma include:
A
- M Spike
- Electrophoresis
12
Q
Low Albumin indicates an issue where?
A
Liver
13
Q
Increased Indirect serum bilirubin indicates what?
A
Hemolysis (Sickle Cell)
14
Q
Increased Direct serum bilirubin indicates what?
A
Obstruction
15
Q
What causes the 3 obstructions that we have discussed in lab?
A
1) Gallstones
2) Tumor @ the Head of the Pancreas
3) Inflammation of the Bile Duct
16
Q
A 68 year old female complains of joint pain and skin rashes. X-ray reveals pencil-in-cup deformity. She has a positive HLA-B27. Diagnosis?
A
Psoriatic Arthritis
17
Q
Liver markers + High Lymphocytes indicates?
A
Viral Hepatitis
18
Q
What is the most sensitive BLOOD test for iron-deficiency anemia?
A
Serum Ferritin
19
Q
What lab marker is used to primarily diagnose bleeding disorders?
A
Fibrinogen
20
Q
What is the functional test for Folic Acid deficiency?
A
Hypersegmented Neutrophil Test
21
Q
What antibodies are associated with Hashimoto’s?
A
1) Thyroglobulin
2) Thyroid Peroxidase
22
Q
Patient presents with Peri-Orbital Edema and Oliguria post strep infection. Diagnosis?
A
Acute glomerulonephritis
23
Q
Protein in the Urine with Excessive Edema indicates?
A
Nephrotic Syndrome
24
Q
What does white foam in the urine mean?
A
Protein
25
What does yellow foam in the urine mean?
Bilirubin
26
What does blood in the urine indicate?
Nephritic syndrome
27
What is the gold standard test for Type 2 diabetes?
Hgb A1c
28
65 year old male smoker presents with low back and abdomen pain. Diagnosis?
AAA
29
Low iron and low TIBC. Diagnosis?
Anemia of Chronic Disease
30
Low Iron and High TIBC. Diagnosis?
Chronic Anemia
31
41 year old presents with stomach pain, bloating and nausea. Lab work shows an increased direct bilirubin. She has white colored stools and they float in the toilet. Diagnosis?
Gallbladder Issue / Cholecystitis
32
Gold standard for B12 deficiency?
Schillings Test
33
What autoantibodies are associated with Graves’ disease?
TSI
34
What is more definitive for a UTI: Leukocyte Esterase or Nitrites?
Leukocyte Esterase = 90% accurate
Nitrites = 50% accurate
35
35 year old female patient presents with a Staphylococcus Aureus infection. Which WBCs will be elevated?
Neutrophils
36
35 year old female that is an IV drug user and has an abrasion, is diabetic, and has a staph infection with lumbar spine pain. Diagnosis?
Osteomyelitis or Discitis
37
75 year old female presents with non painful frank blood in the stool. Diagnosis?
Colon Cancer / Large Bowel Adenocarcinoma
38
55 year old with painful frank blood in their stool. Diagnosis?
Hemorrhoids
39
56 year old male presents with nausea, right flank pain and blood in the urine. What is MOST LIKLEY his diagnosis?
Renal Calculi (Kidney Stones)
40
Right flank pain indicates and issue where?
Kidney
41
High specific gravity and blood in the urine indicates?
Renal Calculi (Kidney Stones)
42
76 year old Male presents with increased frequency of urination, and nocturia. His prostate palpates hard and lumpy. Diagnosis?
Prostate Cancer
43
Prostate palpates firm indicates?
Benign Protastatic Hyperplasia
44
Prostate palpates mushy and boggy indicates?
Prostatitis (might see High segs or neutrophils as well)
45
34 year old with fatigue, weakness and yellowing of the skin. Lab work shows increased ALT and GGTP. Diagnosis?
Liver Cirrhosis
46
Bent over and colicky pain indicates?
Pancreatitis
47
What is confirmatory for cirrhosis?
Biopsy
48
29 year old male presents with fatigue, pallor and general weakness. Physical Exam reveals upper abdominal pain with burping, bloating and acid reflux. Lab work shows a factor deficiency anemia. What is MOST LIKELY the cause of this anemia?
Peptic Ulcer or GERD
49
Peptic Ulcer is caused by what infection?
H. Pylori
50
49 year old male presents with fatigue and flu-like symptoms and is slightly jaundiced. Liver panel shows elevated bilirubin, AST, ALT and ALP, low Albumin. CBC shows elevated lymphocytes. Diagnosis?
Viral Hepatitis
51
43 year. Old female presents with headaches, vision issues and weight gain. Lab work reveals decreased TRH, increased TSH and increased T3/T4. Diagnosis?
Secondary Hyperthyroidism
52
Secondary Hyperthyroidism primary diagnosis is:
Pituitary Adenoma
53
Secondary Hypothyroidism primary diagnosis is:
Pituitary Adenoma
54
What is CPK BB Used for?
Brain, Breast, Breath
55
What is CPK MB used for?
Heart
56
What is CPK MM Used for?
Muscle
57
Fraction-1 LDH Isoenzyme Indicates:
Heart
58
Fraction-2 LDH Isoenzyme Indicates:
Lungs
59
Fraction 5 LDH Isoenzyme Indicates:
Liver mostly; skeletal muscle
60
Fraction 2 & 3 LDH Isoenzyme Indicates:
Pulmonary congestion
61
Fraction 4 & 5 LDH Isoenzyme Indicates:
Liver congestion
62
Causes of Polychromatophilic RBCs (Reticulocytes):
- Acute bleeding
- Hemolysis
- Factor deficiency anemia
63
Rouleaux “Stack of coins” RBCs indicate
Abnormal plasma proteins (Multiple Myeloma)
64
Basophilic Stippling is a sign of
Lead Poisoning
65
Howell-Jolly Bodies indicate
Severe Hemolytic Anemia following a Splenectomy
66
Heinz bodies indicate: Q
A RBC Enzyme Defect
67
Bone Marrow Aspiration is used to diagnose (3):
1) Megaloblastic Anemia
2) Leukemia
3) Multiple Myeloma
68
What is deficient in Macrocytic Anemia?
Folic Acid or B12
69
Causes of Microcytic Anemia (3):
1) Chronic Iron Deficiency
2) Alpha or Beta Thalassemia
3) Anemia of Chronic Disease
70
Another name for “different sizes of cells”
Anisocytosis
71
MC Cause of Neutrophilic Leukocytosis & Other Causes:
MC: Inflammation
- Bacterial Infection
- Viral Infection
72
Causes of Lymphocytosis:
- Viral Infection
- Addison’s Disease
73
What do you suspect with Atypical Lymphocytes?
- Mononucleosis
- Adult Cytomegalovirus
- Viral hepatitis
74
Causes of Monocytosis:
1) Sub-Acute Bacterial Endocarditis
2) Disseminated Tuberculosis
3) Acute Infection Recovery
4) Malignant Lymphomas and Carcinomas
75
Causes of Eosinophilia:
1) Parasites
2) Acute Allergies
3) Scarlet Fever
4) Cancer, Hodgkin’s
76
Causes of Basophilia:
1) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
2) Myeloproliferative Diseases
77
Sweet, Acetone Urine Aroma
Ketoacidosis
78
Protein in the urine is an indicator for:
Kidney function
79
The combination of Proteinuria and Edema is known as:
Nephrotic Syndrome
80
High Specific gravity means the urine is
Concentrated
81
Low Specific Gravity means the urine is
Dilute
82
Specific gravity is a measure of (2 things):
1) Hydration
2) Kidney Function
83
Ketones in the urine indicates:
Uncontrolled Diabetes
84
What type of bilirubin can be found in the urine?
Conjugated
85
Conjugated bilirubin in the urine indicates:
Gallstones
86
High bilirubin and high urobilinogen in the urine indicates:
Hemolysis
87
High bilirubin with normal or low Urobilinogen indicates;
Obstruction
88
Casts in the urine is usually associated with:
Proteinuria
89
Fatty casts in the urine indicates:
Nephrotic Syndrome
90
Waxy Casts in the urine indicate:
Chronic Renal Disease or Renal Failure
91
Epithelialcells and casts in large numbers in the urine indicates:
Glomerulonephritis
92
WBCs and casts in the urine indicates:
Kidney Infection
93
Renal Causes of Proteinuria (3):
1) Glomerulonephritis
2) Nephrotic Syndrome
3) Destructive Lesions
94
Bence-Jones Proteins Indicate:
Multiple Myeloma
95
What LDH is a sensitive indicator of M.I.?
LDH-1
96
In general, CPK is an indicator for:
Tissue Damage
97
In general, what does LDH Indicate?
Cell Damage
98
What test is primarily used to diagnose and stage prostate cancer?
Prostatic Acid Phosphatase (PAP)
99
Increased Acid Phosphatase Indicates:
1) Prostatic Carcinoma
2) Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy
3) Multiple Myeloma
4) Hyperparathyroidism
100
Prostate Specific Antigen is used to screen for:
Prostate Cancer
101
Increased. PSA Indicates:
1) Prostate cancer
2) BPH
3) Prostatitis
102
What is the. MC Cause of Lipase elevation?
Acute Pancreatitis
103
Increase in Cortisol indicates: (4)
1) Stress
2) Cushng’s
3) Hyperthyroidism
4) Obesity
104
Decreased Cortisol Indicates: (2)
1) Addison’s
2) Hypothyroidism
105
What test do you run for a patient you suspect is secretly taking insulin?
C-Peptide
106
Increased C-peptide Indicates:
1) Insulinoma
2) Renal Failure
107
Decreased C-Peptide Indicates:
Diabetes
108
Increased CRP Indicates:
1) Acute Inflammatory Reaction
2) Bacterial Infection
3) Malignant Disease
109
Increased ESR Indicates: (5)
1) Acute or Chronic Inflammation
2) Chronic Renal Failure
3) Malignancy
4) Necrotic Disease
5) Severe Anemia
110
Creatinine Clearance is used to determine:
GFR
111
Decreased Creatinine Clearance Indicates: (3)
1) Impaired Kidney Function
2) Congestive Heart Failure
3) Dehydration, Shock, Cirrhosis
112
What test is primarily used to assess nutritional status?
Folic Acid (Folate)
113
(+) HLA-B27 Antigen indicates (5)
1) AS
2) Reiter’s Syndrome
3) Celiac Disease
3) Psoriasis/RA
4) Juvenile Diabetes
5) M.S.
114
Decreased Sodium Indicates:
1) Addison’s Disease
2) vomiting
3) diarrhea
4) Kidney dysfunction
115
Which electrolyte is important for Heart Rate and Contractility?
Potassium
116
Increased Chloride indicates:
Dehydration
117
Decreased Chloride indicates
Overhydration
118
What is Phosphorus used to investigate?
Parathyroid and Calcium abnormalities
119
High Calcium and Low Phosphorus =
Hyperparathyroidism
120
High Calcium ad High Phosphorus =
Bone Breakdown
121
Increased Phosphorus indicates:
Hypoparathyroidism
122
Decreased Calcium Indicates:
Hypoparathyroidism
123
Increased Calcium Indicates:
1) Bone Disease
2) Paget’s Disease
3) Hyperthyroidism
124
Increased Albumin indicates:
Dehydration
125
What disease classically has Increased Gamma Globulins?
Multiple Myeloma
126
If diabetes is suspected, what test should be ordered? (2)
1) Glycosylated Hemoglobin
2) Glucose Tolerance Test
127
Decreased Glycosylated Hemoglobin Indicates: (3)
1) Hemolytic Anemia
2) Chronic Blood Loss
3) Chronic Renal Failure
128
What is Elevated BUN called?
Azotemia
129
What 2 things together assess renal function?
BUN & Creatinine
130
Increased BUN Indicates:
Renal Disease/Failure
131
Decreased BUN Indicates:
Liver Failure
132
Increased Creatinine Indicates:
1) Kidney Disease
2) Rhabdomyolysis
3) Acromegaly, Gigantism
133
Decreased Creatinine Indicates:
(Decreased Muscle Mass)
- Muscular Dystrophy
- Myasthenia Gravis
134
What test is used to evaluate Gout or Urinary Calculi?
Uric Acid
135
Uric Acid is the final breakdown product of…
Purine
136
Increased Uric Acid Indicates:
1) Idiopathic
2) Renal. Disease
3) Acidosis
4) Hypothyroidism
5) Alcoholism
137
Decreased Uric Acid Indicates: (4)
1) Wilson’s Disease
2) Falconi’s Syndrome
3) MS
4) Lead Poisoning
138
Amylase Digests:
Starch
139
Lipase Digests:
Fat
140
Trypsin Digests:
Protein
141
What is Bicarbonate?
A Gastric Acid Buffer
142
What are the 4 Major Pancreatic Enzymes?
1) Amylase
2) Lipase
3) Trypsin
4) Bicarbonate
143
What are the 3 Major Pancreatic Hormones?
1) Insulin
2) Glucagon
3) Somatostatin
144
What type of cells create Insulin?
Beta Cells
145
What type of cells create Glucagon?
Alpha Cells
146
What type of cells create Somatostatin?
Delta Cells
147
What type of pain is seen with Acute Pancreatitis?
Sudden onset of Severe Epigastric pain that may radiate to the back
148
Acute Pancreatitis is the MC cause of:
Chronic Relapsing Pancreatitis
149
Acute Pancreatitis is associated with: (2)
1) Alcohol Abuse
2) Biliary Tract Stones
150
What is the MC lab test for Acute pancreatitis?
Serum Amylase
151
What lab test is more specific, but less sensitive than serum amylase for pancreatic damage?
Serum Lipase
152
What tests other than Serum Amylase & Serum Lipase can be run for Acute Pancreatitis?
1) Ultrasound
2) Serum Immunoreactive Trypsin (SIT)
3) Carboxypeptidase A
153
What 3 things make up the classic presentation of Chronic Pancreatitis?
1) Diabetic
2) Pancreatic Calcification (on x-ray)
3) Steatorrhea
154
With Chronic Pancreatitis, what do serum amylase levels present like?
Normal or Slightly Elevated
155
With Chronic Pancreatitis, What do serum immunoreactive trypsin levels present like?
Decreased w/ pancreatic insufficiency
Decreased in Type 1 diabetics on insulin
156
Characteristics of Type 1 Diabetes:
1) Early in life
2) Insulin dependent
3) more severe
157
Characteristics of Type 2 Diabetes;
1) Later in life
2) associated with increase in body fat
3) may have normal or elevated insulin levels
4) Decreased insulin use in the peripheral tissues and liver
158
What type of Hypoglycemia is Diagnosed based on symptoms?
Clinical Hypoglycemia
159
What type of Hypoglycemia is often adrenergic and has an abrupt onset of symptoms?
Postprandial Hypoglycemia
160
Symptoms of Persistent Hypoglycemia: (9)
1) CNS Glucose Deprivation
2) Lethargy
3) Headache
4) Confusion
5) Bizarre Behavior
6) Visual Disturbances
7) Syncope
8) Convulsions
9) Coma
161
What is Whipple’s Triad?
1) Hypoglycemic Symptoms when FASTING
2) Fasting Blood Glucose 10 mg below normal
3) Relief of Symptoms by Glucose
162
What is Malabsorption caused by?
1) Inflammation
2) Pancreatic Insufficiency
3) HCL Insufficiency
163
3 Main clinical findings of Malabsorption:
1) Steatorrhea
2) Weight Loss
3) Weakness
164
What lab findings are associated with Steatorrhea?
1) Increased fecal fat
2) Anemia
3) Decreased Calcium
4) Decreased Prothrombin Time
5) Low Albumin
6) Peripheral Edema
165
What lab test stains fat bright orange?
Qualitative Fecal Fat: Sudan Dye III
166
What is the primary test for Steatorrhea?
Quantitative Fecal Fat
167
What is the SECOND most important test for Malabsorption?
D-xylose Test
168
Where is D-xylose secreted normally? What about during malnutrition?
Normally: Urine
Malabsorption: Feces
169
What is another name for Celiac disease?
Non-Tropical Sprue
170
Celiac Disease is cause by an immune reaction to:
Gluten (Gliadin)
171
Celiac Disease is 10-15x higher in people with ______ deficiency.
IgA
172
4 Screening tests for celiac disease:
1) D-xylose
2) Plasma Carotene
3) Fecal Fat
4) Antigliadin Antibody Assay (if above are normal)
173
What measures gastric pH?
Heidelberg Capsule
174
What is Felty’s Syndrome?
RA + Splenomegaly and Leukopenia
175
Onset of RA is usually _________ and ____________.
Gradual; Symmetric
176
Lab findings associated with RA;
1) Increased HLA-DR4 antigen
2) Increased ESR
3) Increased C-Reactive Protein
4) Low Iron & TIBC
177
A.K.A. For Juvenile RA:
Still’s Disease
178
What is the MC disorder of childhood involving chronic joint inflammation?
Juvenile RA (Still’s Disease) (Juvenile Chronic Polyarthritis)
179
Characteristics of Polyarticular JRA (3):
1) Multiple Joints (>4)
2) Female
3) Normocytic & Normochromic Anemia
180
Characteristics of Pauciarticular JRA: (3)
1) 30-40% of all cases
2) Only a few joint (<4)
3) Asymmetric Distribution
181
Characteristics of Systemic Onset of JRA: (4)
1) 20% of cases
2) Male
3) Fever
4) Macular Rash
182
Inflammation of the Spine & SI Joints is called:
Ankylosis Spondylitis
183
Inflammation of the Urethra is called:
Reiter’s Syndrome
184
Inflammation of the Skin is called:
Psoriasis
185
A.K.A. For Ankylosing Spondylitis:
Marie-Strumpell Disease
186
Lab findings associated with AS: (3)
1) Increased ESR
2) HLA-B27
3) Mild Anemia
187
What disease is associated with conjunctivitis or iritis?
Reiter’s Syndrome
188
Arthritis that is associated with IBS may have ___________ present, but doesn’t have ___________.
Spondylitis; Urethritis
189
Which Arthropathies have a reactive secondary component? (4)
1) Reiter’s Syndrome
2) Crohn’s Disease
3) Ulcerative Colitis
4) Acute Rheumatic Fever
190
Enteropathic Arthropathies have a positive _________.
HLA-B27
191
Infection that have the greatest risk of developing an Arthropathies include:
1) Salmonella
2) Shigella
3) Lyme Disease
4) Hepatitis B
5) Parvovirus
192
What may a throat culture show with Acute Rheumatic Fever?
Beta-Hemolytic Streptococci
193
Features of Systemic Lupus Erythematous (SLE): (4)
1) Facial or Skin Rash
2)Arthritis
3) Nephritis
4) Inflammation of pericardium & Pleura
194
Positive Coombs test, Abnormal plasma proteins (rouleaux) indicates:
SLE (Lupus)
195
FANA vs. EANA (what do they stand for?)
FANA: Flourescent ANA
EANA: Enzyme ANA
196
A.K.A. For Scleroderma:
Progressive Systemic Sclerosis (PSS)
197
What is Scleroderma?
Progressive replacement of collagen with Dense Connective Tissue
198
Scleroderma is Accompanied by:
Raynaud’s Phenomenon
199
Lab findings associated with Scleroderma: (4)
1) Increased ESR
2) + ANA
3) Diffuse Hypergammaglobulinemia
4) Auto-Antibodies
200
Finish the Key Concept: “Virtually all human disease result from the interaction of ____________________ and __________________________.”
Genetic Susceptibility; Modifiable Environmental Factors
201
Finish the Key Concept: “Slight Variations in genetic make-up called ______________________ are associated with almost all diseases.”
Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs)
202
Finish the key Concept: “____________________ themselves do not cause _________, but rather influence a person’s ________________.”
Genetic Variations; Susceptibility
203
Components of the Cardio Genomic Panel: (6)
1) Methylation
2) Coagulation
3) Cholesterol Regulation
4) Atherosclerosis
5) Hypertension
6) Red-Oxygen Balance
204
Components of the Osteo Genomic Panel: (3)
1) Bone formation
2) Bone Resorption
3) Inflammation
205
Components of the Immuno Genomic: (3)
1) Chronic Inflammation
2) Allergy, Asthma, Atopy
3) Viral infection, Cancer Risk
206
Components of the Detoxi Genomic Panel: (4)
1) Free Radical Scavenging
2) Conjugation
3) Drug metabolism
4) Cancer Risk
207
4 Components of the Predictive Genomic Profiles:
1) Relevant
2) Prevalent
3) Modifiable
4) Measurable
208
What 3 Areas of Clinical Relevance are applied to Predictive Genomic Profiles?
1) Proactive Risk Assessment
2) Family Hx of Chronic Disease
3) Pt’s Refractory to Tx
209
3 Aspects of Clinical Implementation when is comes to genetic testing are:
1) Proactive Screening
2) Challenging Cases
3) Familial Associations
210
2 methods of collecting genetic sample are;
1) Venipuncture
2) Mouth Rinse
211
What does Hemolysis do to Bilirubin? (Conjugated and Unconjugated)
1) Increases Serum Unconjugated
2) Normal Serum Conjugated
3) No Urine Conjugated Bilirubin present
212
What does Obstruction do to Urobilinogen?
No Urobilinogen can be formed leading to Clay-Colored Stools
213
Obstruction ultimately leads to ____________.
Liver Damage
214
What type of Bilirubin can be found in the urine?
Conjugated (Direct) Bilirubin
215
What are the MC causes of chronic ALP elevation (3x above normal)?
1) Common Bile Duct Obstruction
2) Metastatic Liver Tumor
3) Cirrhosis
216
Common Causes of Increased ALP (related to bone): (6)
1) Childhood bone growth
2) Healing fractures
3) Paget’s Disease
4) Hyperparathyroidism
5) Rickets/Osteomalacia
6) Osteoblastic metastasis
217
What is the MC cause of abnormal Prothrombin Time?
Liver Disease
218
Prothrombin Time is _____________ dependent.
Vitamin K
219
Fill in the Arrows:
Liver Disease -> ___ Bile salts -> ___ Vit. K Absorption -> ___ Prothrombin Time
Decreases; Decreases; Increases
220
What is the Most Sensitive test for liver or biliary tract dysfunction?
Bile Acid Assay
221
What conditions are associated with: 1) Gamma-Globulin Levels, & 2) Beta-Globulin levels?
1) Hepatitis = Gamma
2) Biliary Obstruction = Beta
222
Blood Ammonia is __________ in Liver disease, but is used primarily for ______________ or ________________.
Elevated;
Hepatic Coma / Encephalopathy
223
Reye’s Syndrome affects what age group?
Children & Young Adolescents
224
Lab Findings associated with Reye’s Syndrome: Increased (4); Abnormal (1); Decreased (1)
Increased: AST, ALT, PT, Blood Ammonia
Abnormal: CPK Levels
Decreased: Phosphorus
225
Symptoms of Reye’s Syndrome Include: (4)
1) Confusion
2) Lethargy
3) Aggressive Behavior
4) Vomiting
226
Lab Findings associated with Acute Cholecystitis Include: (5)
1) Bilirubinemia
2) Jaundice
& Increased:
3) AST
4) ALP
5) Serum Amylase
227
Factor Deficiency Anemia is deficiency of what?
Iron, B12, Folic Acid (or a combination of all 3)
228
Pathologies that lead to Depletion Anemia: (3)
1) Peripheral Blood Loss
2) Hemorrhage
3) Hemolytic Anemia (Hypersplenism)
229
Absorption of iron is increased by _____________.
Vitamin C
230
What transports Iron in the Blood?
Transferrin
231
What is the MC Cause of Anemia?
Bleeding
232
With Chronic Bleeding, RBCs become _____________ & _____________.
Microcytic & Hypochromic
233
MC Cause of bleeding for men:
[GI Bleeding]
GI Carcinoma = > 40 years old
Peptic Ulcer = < 40 years old
234
An Increase in Serum Iron is MC in what condition? What other condition is this seen in?
Hemolytic Anemia;
Estrogen Therapy (increases transferrin)
235
TIBC is Increased in:
Uncomplicated Chronic Iron Deficiencies
236
What is the most sensitive test for Iron deficiency?
Serum Ferritin
237
What is the Gold Standard test for Iron deficiency?
Bone Marrow Iron Stain
238
Decreased Serum Iron + Decreased %TS Indicates:
Thalassemia Minor
239
MC Cause of Vitamin B12 Deficiency:
Lack of Intrinsic Factor (IF)
240
Factors that make B12 appear low: (4)
1) Large Vitamin C Dose
2) Pregnancy
3) Folic Acid Deficiency
4) Chronic Iron Deficiency
241
What Deficiencies cause megaloblastic Anemia? (2)
B12 & Folic Acid
242
What RBC change occurs with Megaloblastic Anemia?
Hypersegmented Polymorphonuclear Neutrophils
243
In Pernicious Anemia, ____________ leads to _____________ and __________ Deficiency which creates ________________ anemia with __________________.
Atrophic gastritis -> HCl & IF -> Macrocytic w/ Oval macrocytes
244
What is the Definitive test for Pernicious Anemia?
Shilling
245
MC Cause of Folic Acid Deficiency:
Dietary Deficiency
246
Pyridoxine Deficiency is classified as what type of Anemia?
Sideroblastic
247
What does a Direct Coomb’s test detect?
Iso- & Auto-Antibodies on RBCs
248
In Depletion Anemia, what type of bilirubin is elevated?
Serum Unconjugated
249
Infant Hb has 1) ___________________ which gives it a 2) ____________________.
1) Two Alpha & Two Gamma Chains
2) Greater affinity for Oxygen
250
What is the MC Hemoglobin Abnormality in the Western hemisphere?
Sickle Hemoglobin
251
What is the screening test for Sickle hemoglobin?
Peripheral Blood Smear
252
A.K.A. For Thalassemia Major:
Cooley’s Anemia
253
Thalassemia Major Lab Findings: (2)
1) HbA1 (Suppression)
2) Hb F (Increased)
254
RDW is _____________ with Thalasemia.
Normal
255
What classification of leukemia includes all ACUTE Leukemias that involve cells other that Lymphocytes?
Acute Nonlymphocytic Leukemia (ANLL)
A.K.A. Acute Myeloproliferative Leukemia
256
What is the MC Malignant disease in Children?
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
257
What Chromosome is seen in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?
Philadelphia Chromosome
258
What is the MC Leukemia in the Western hemisphere?
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
259
What is the etiology of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia?
Viral
260
Lymphocytes Accumulate where in Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?
- Blood
- Bone Marrow
- Lymph nodes
- Spleen
261
Painless Lymph node enlargement Indicates:
Hodgkin Disease
(Cervical Lymph Nodes = Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma)
262
What type of cells are found in Hodgkin Disease?
Reed-Sternberg Cells
263
Hodgkin Disease may present with a _____________.
Mediastinal mass
264
2 Common causes of increased CSF Pressure:
Meningitis & Subarachnoid hemorrhage
265
Decreased CSF Glucose Indicates: (3)
1) Meningitis
2) Metastasis
3) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
266
A newborn has more ________, but it decreases to adult levels within _____________.
CSF Protein; 6 Months
267
Increased CSF Protein Indicates: (7)
1) CSF Leukocytosis
2) Blood in the CSF
3) Cerebral trauma
4) Tumor / Hemorrhage
5) MS
6) DM w/ peripheral Neuropathy
7) SLE
268
Positive Panda test indicates: (3)
1) Chronic Infection
2) Syphilis
3) Multiple Sclerosis
269
CSF Lactase Increases in ________________, but not in _________________.
Bacterial meningitis; Viral meningitis
270
CSF Findings with a Brain Tumor Include: (3)
1) Clear & Colorless
2) Increased pressure & protein
3) Normal Cell Counts
271
Definition of IsoAntibody:
Antibodies produced against antigens coming from genetically different individuals of the same species
272
Definition of AutoAntibody:
Antibody that attacks one or more of the body’s own tissues
273
What is a Direct Coombs Test used for?
Tests for Antibody Response
274
What is an Indirect Coombs Test used for?
Blood Typing
275
What disease is caused by Rh Factor incompatibility?
Erythroblastosis Fetalis
276
HLA Stands for:
Human Leukocyte Antigen
277
(+) HLA-B27 is seen in: (5)
1) RA
2) Psoriatic Arthritis
3) Enteropathic Arthritis
4) AS
5) Reiter’s Syndrome
278
(+) HLA-B8 is seen in: (3)
1) Celiac Disease
2) Chronic Active Hepatitis
3) MS
279
What test is more sensitive for MI than AST?
LDH
280
LDH is ____________ to _________ than AST.
Less Sensitive; liver disease
281
The protein Troponin T is found in:
Skeletal Muscle & the Myocardium
282
The protein Troponin I is found in:
Specifically the Myocardium
283
What test can localize Damaged Myocardium?
Radionuclide Heart Scan
284
Fibrinogen Increases as a result of: (5)
1) Inflammation
2) trauma
3) severe illnesses
4) smoking
5) genetic influences
285
Fibrinogen Decreases as a result of: (1)
Liver Disease
286
What is used to monitor Coumadin Therapy?
Prothrombin Timme
287
Prothrombin time indicates ______________ and measures __________________ (Factor____).
Extrinsic pathway Defects; Prothrombin (II)
288
What test helps detect Intrinsic Factor Abnormalities?
Activated partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)
289
A.K.A. For Hemophilia B:
Christmas Disease
290
Patients with Decreased Factor XII have an Increased Incidence of ____ and ______________.
MI & Thrombosis
291
What are the Vitamin K Dependant Factors?
2, 7, 9 & 10
292
In Hemophilia, who carries the recessive trait and who expresses it?
Females Carry; males Express
293
What does Hemophilia cause?
Severe Bleeding into the joints
294
Decreased Factor VIII is seen in:
Hemophilia A
295
Decreased Factor (VIII:C) and Decreased (vWF) is seen in:
Von Willibrand’s Hemophilia
296
Most transfusion patients develop antibodies against what factor?
Factor VIII:C
297
What is the major screening test for Hemophilia A?
APTT
298
Decreased protein C or S will cause:
Increased Thrombosis
299
IgG is most often associated with complications such as: (4)
1) Thrombosis
2) Thrombycytopenia
3) Hemolytic Anemia
4) Spontaneous Abortion
300
Thyrotoxicosis is seen with:
Grave’s Disease
301
Caloric Study is used to evaluate:
CN VIII and the Temporal Lobe
302
Caloric Study can detect: (4)
1) Neuritis or CN VIII
2) Inflammation/Tumor of Brainstem or Cerebellum
3) Inflammtion/Tumor of Vestibule or Cochlea
4) Acoustic Neuroma
303
A Cardiac Stress test can help detect: (4)
1) Coronary Artery OCCLUSIVE Disease
2) Exercise Hypertension
3) Int. Claudication
4) Cardiac Rhythms
304
Manometry is the measure of ____________.
Pressure
305
What is the Bernstein test used for?
Esophagitis
306
What is Prebyesophagus?
Synchronous contraction of the esophagus which traps food between the areas of contraction
307
What is Esophageal Chalasia? Who do we see this in?
Absence of TONE in the LES allowing reflux; Vomiting newborns
308
What is Esophageal Achalasia? Who do we see this in?
LES does not relax & obstructs passage into stomach; Young Adults
309
What does the Tourniquet test evaluate for? (2)
Capillary Fragility & Platelet Disorders
310
What is a Blood C&S Used for?
Detect presence or absence of bacteria in the blood
311
If a pt. Is currently taking antibiotics, the specimen should be drawn when?
Right before the next dose
312
Microcytes are seen in: (3)
1) Iron-Deficiency Anemia
2) Thalassemia
3) Hereditary Spherecytosis
313
Macrocytes are seen in: (3)
1) B12 or Folate Deficiency
2) Increased RBC Production
3) Liver Disorders
314
Spherocyte RBC Shape is seen in:
Hereditary Spherocytosis
315
Elliptocyte RBC Shape is seen in:
Sickle Cell Anemia
316
Leptocyte RBC Shape is seen in: (2)
Thalassemia or Hemoglobinopathies
317
Spicule Cell RBC Shape is seen in: (3)
1) Uremia
2) Bleeding Ulcer
3) Liver Disease
318
Basophilic Stippling is seen in: (2)
Lead Poisoning & Reticulocytosis
319
Howell-Jolly Bodies are seen in: (2)
Hemolytic & Megaloblastic Anemia
320
Heinz Bodies are seen in: (2)
Hemoglobinopathies & Hemolytic Anemia
321
A Bone Marrow Biopsy is used to confirm the following Diagnoses: (4)
1) Megaloblastic Anemia
2) Leukemia, Myeloma & Lymphomas
3) Marrow Neoplasm or Fibrosis
4) Iron Deficiency
322
A PAP Smear is ___% accurate in Dx Cervical cancer and ___% accurate in Dx Endometrial Cancer.
95% Cervical
40& Endometrial
323
What test is used to confirm Steatorrhea?
Fecal Fat
324
What does a Stool Culture Identify?
Bacteria and parasites in the GI Tract
325
Occult Blood is a sign of: (6)
1) GI Cancer
2) Peptic Disease
3) Varices
4) Ulcerative Colitis
5) Crohn’s Disease
6) Trauma
