Practice Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
- What is the foundation of the Salesforce platform that allows for customization and development of applications?
a) Standard Objects
b) AppExchange
c) Metadata
d) Reports and Dashboards
A
Correct Answer: c) Metadata
2
Q
- Which of the following is a standard object used to represent companies or organizations?
a) Contact
b) Lead
c) Account
d) Opportunity
A
Correct Answer: c) Account
3
Q
- What is the term for a potential sales deal in progress?
a) Case
b) Campaign
c) Opportunity
d) Quote
A
Correct Answer: c) Opportunity
4
Q
- Which standard object is used to track customer inquiries and issues?
a) Solution
b) Case
c) Task
d) Event
A
Correct Answer: b) Case
5
Q
- What is the purpose of a Lead in Salesforce?
a) To track closed sales deals
b) To manage existing customer accounts
c) To represent unqualified potential sales prospects
d) To log customer service interactions
A
Correct Answer: c) To represent unqualified potential sales prospects
6
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a standard relationship type in Salesforce?
a) Lookup
b) Master-Detail
c) Many-to-Many
d) Circular
A
Correct Answer: d) Circular
7
Q
- In a Master-Detail relationship, what happens to the detail record when the master record is deleted?
a) The detail record is automatically moved to the Recycle Bin.
b) The detail record becomes orphaned.
c) The detail record is automatically deleted.
d) The detail record is unaffected.
A
Correct Answer: c) The detail record is automatically deleted.
8
Q
- Which type of field automatically calculates a value based on other fields?
a) Formula Field
b) Lookup Field
c) Picklist Field
d) Text Field
A
Correct Answer: a) Formula Field
9
Q
- What is the purpose of Record Types in Salesforce?
a) To define the fields available on a record.
b) To control user access to specific records.
c) To customize the picklist values and page layouts for different types of records.
d) To automate business processes.
A
Correct Answer: c) To customize the picklist values and page layouts for different types of records.
10
Q
- Which Salesforce feature allows you to automate business processes using a visual, point-and-click interface?
a) Apex Triggers
b) Visualforce Pages
c) Workflow Rules
d) SOQL Queries
A
Correct Answer: c) Workflow Rules
11
Q
- What is the purpose of Validation Rules in Salesforce?
a) To automate data entry.
b) To ensure data accuracy and consistency.
c) To control user interface elements.
d) To send email notifications.
A
Correct Answer: b) To ensure data accuracy and consistency.
12
Q
- Which Salesforce tool is used to create reports and visual representations of data?
a) Process Builder
b) App Builder
c) Report Builder
d) Schema Builder
A
Correct Answer: c) Report Builder
13
Q
- What is a Dashboard in Salesforce?
a) A collection of fields on a record.
b) A visual display of key metrics and trends based on reports.
c) A set of rules for automating tasks.
d) A customizable user interface layout.
A
Correct Answer: b) A visual display of key metrics and trends based on reports
14
Q
- Which type of report displays a grand total but no subtotals?
a) Tabular Report
b) Summary Report
c) Matrix Report
d) Joined Report
A
Correct Answer: a) Tabular Report
15
Q
- What is the purpose of User Profiles in Salesforce?
a) To assign specific permissions and access settings to users.
b) To define the fields users see on page layouts.
c) To control the branding and appearance of the Salesforce interface.
d) To automate email communications.
A
Correct Answer: a) To assign specific permissions and access settings to users.
16
Q
- What are Permission Sets used for in Salesforce?
a) To define the basic layout of user pages.
b) To grant additional permissions to users beyond what their profile allows.
c) To manage user passwords and security settings.
d) To assign users to specific roles within the organization.
A
Correct Answer: b) To grant additional permissions to users beyond what their profile allows.
17
Q
- Which level of access control allows you to restrict access to specific records based on criteria?
a) Organization-Wide Defaults
b) Role Hierarchy
c) Sharing Rules
d) Profile Permissions
A
Correct Answer: c) Sharing Rules
18
Q
- What does OWD stand for in the context of Salesforce sharing settings?
a) Organization-Wide Data
b) Organization-Wide Defaults
c) Object-Wide Distribution
d) Operational Workflow Design
A
Correct Answer: b) Organization-Wide Defaults
19
Q
- What is the purpose of the AppExchange?
a) To manage user licenses and subscriptions.
b) To provide a marketplace for installing pre-built Salesforce applications and components.
c) To configure the Salesforce user interface.
d) To access Salesforce training materials and documentation.
A
Correct Answer: b) To provide a marketplace for installing pre-built Salesforce applications and components.
20
Q
- Which of the following is a declarative development tool in Salesforce?
a) Apex
b) Visualforce
c) Process Builder
d) Lightning Web Components
A
Correct Answer: c) Process Builder
21
Q
- What is the purpose of the Schema Builder?
a) To create reports and dashboards.
b) To visually design and modify the data model of your Salesforce org.
c) To automate business processes.
d) To manage user security settings.
A
Correct Answer: b) To visually design and modify the data model of your Salesforce org.
22
Q
- Which Salesforce feature allows you to create custom user interface pages using a drag-and-drop interface?
a) Apex Pages
b) Visualforce Pages
c) Lightning App Builder
d) Schema Builder
A
Correct Answer: c) Lightning App Builder
23
Q
- What is the purpose of the Salesforce mobile app?
a) To allow users to access and work with their Salesforce data on mobile devices.
b) To develop custom mobile applications.
c) To manage Salesforce user accounts.
d) To monitor system performance.
A
Correct Answer: a) To allow users to access and work with their Salesforce data on mobile devices.
24
Q
- Which of the following is a key benefit of using the Salesforce Lightning Experience?
a) It has the same user interface as Salesforce Classic.
b) It offers enhanced productivity, a modern design, and new features.
c) It requires extensive coding knowledge to customize.
d) It has limited functionality compared to Salesforce Classic.
A
Correct Answer: b) It offers enhanced productivity, a modern design, and new features.
25
25. What is the purpose of Global Search in Salesforce?
a) To search for specific settings within the Salesforce Setup menu.
b) To search across multiple Salesforce objects for relevant records.
c) To search for users within the organization.
d) To search the Salesforce Help documentation.
Correct Answer: b) To search across multiple Salesforce objects for relevant records.
26
26. Which feature allows users to follow records and receive updates when they are changed?
a) Chatter
b) Topics
c) Groups
d) Feed Tracking
Correct Answer: d) Feed Tracking
27
27. What is the purpose of Salesforce Knowledge?
a) To manage and track sales leads.
b) To create and manage a library of articles for customer self-service and internal use.
c) To automate marketing campaigns.
d) To provide real-time customer support via chat.
Correct Answer: b) To create and manage a library of articles for customer self-service and internal use.
28
28. What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA) in Salesforce Service Cloud?
a) A contract outlining the terms of a sales deal.
b) A set of rules defining the expected response and resolution times for customer cases.
c) A marketing campaign strategy.
d) A user training manual.
Correct Answer: b) A set of rules defining the expected response and resolution times for customer cases.
29
29. Which Salesforce Cloud focuses on managing and analyzing marketing activities?
a) Sales Cloud
b) Service Cloud
c) Marketing Cloud
d) Commerce Cloud
Correct Answer: c) Marketing Cloud
30
30. What is the primary function of Salesforce Sales Cloud?
a) To provide customer service and support.
b) To manage sales processes, leads, opportunities, and customer accounts.
c) To automate marketing campaigns and analyze their effectiveness.
d) To facilitate online sales and e-commerce operations.
Correct Answer: b) To manage sales processes, leads, opportunities, and customer accounts.
31
31. What is the purpose of a Sandbox environment in Salesforce?
a) To store inactive user data.
b) To provide a testing and development environment that is separate from the production org.
c) To host the live Salesforce instance for all users.
d) To manage user security settings.
Correct Answer: b) To provide a testing and development environment that is separate from the production org.
32
32. Which type of Sandbox contains a full copy of your production org's data and metadata?
a) Developer Sandbox
b) Developer Pro Sandbox
c) Partial Copy Sandbox
d) Full Sandbox
Correct Answer: d) Full Sandbox
33
33. What is the programming language used for more complex automation and customization in Salesforce?
a) Java
b) Python
c) Apex
d) JavaScript
Correct Answer: c) Apex
34
34. What is SOQL used for in Salesforce?
a) To define user interface layouts.
b) To automate business processes.
c) To query and retrieve data from the Salesforce database.
d) To create custom reports and dashboards.
Correct Answer: c) To query and retrieve data from the Salesforce database.
35
35. Which of the following is a key consideration when planning a Salesforce implementation?
a) The number of users who will access the system.
b) The specific business requirements and processes.
c) The available budget and timeline.
d) All of the above.
Correct Answer: d) All of the above
36
36. What is the role of a Salesforce Administrator?
a) To develop custom applications using Apex and Visualforce.
b) To design and implement marketing campaigns.
c) To configure, customize, and maintain the Salesforce platform.
d) To provide end-user support for hardware issues.
Correct Answer: c) To configure, customize, and maintain the Salesforce platform.
37
37. What is the purpose of User Stories in an Agile Salesforce project?
a) To document technical specifications for developers.
b) To describe a feature from the end-user's perspective.
c) To outline the project budget and timeline.
d) To track project risks and issues.
Correct Answer: b) To describe a feature from the end-user's perspective.
38
38. Which of the following is a key principle of the Salesforce Lightning Design System (SLDS)?
a) Prioritizing complex and highly customized user interfaces.
b) Providing a consistent and accessible user experience.
c) Encouraging developers to use their own unique styling.
d) Limiting the use of visual elements to improve performance.
Correct Answer: b) Providing a consistent and accessible user experience.
39
39. What is the purpose of Salesforce Connect?
a) To integrate Salesforce with external data sources without writing code.
b) To connect different Salesforce orgs together.
c) To enable offline access to Salesforce data.
d) To provide real-time translation of Salesforce content.
Correct Answer: a)
40
40. Which of the following is a key benefit of using the Salesforce platform?
a) Low initial setup costs and minimal ongoing maintenance.
b) Scalability, security, and a wide range of features and integrations.
c) Complete control over the underlying infrastructure.
d) Limited customization options to ensure platform stability.
Correct Answer: b) Scalability, security, and a wide range of features and integrations.
